Agencia:
Junta de Calidad Ambiental
Número:
3497
Estado:
Activo
Año:
1989
Fecha:
21 de agosto de 1989
Las enmiendas al Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios Sólidos Peligrosos y No Peligrosos fueron promulgadas por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental del Estado Libre Asociado de Puerto Rico. Estas modificaciones se realizaron en conformidad con la Ley de Política Pública Ambiental, Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada. La Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental aprobó estas enmiendas mediante una Resolución con fecha del 24 de julio de 1987. El Secretario de Estado, Héctor Luis Acevedo, dio su aprobación a estas disposiciones. El documento oficial que certifica estas enmiendas fue emitido en San Juan, Puerto Rico, el 19 de agosto de 1987. Su propósito principal es actualizar y fortalecer el marco regulatorio para la gestión de residuos sólidos en la isla.
ESTADO LIBRE ASOCIADO DE PUERTO RICO / OFICINA DEL GOBERNADOR JUNTA DE CALIDAD AMBIENTAL:
Aprobado: Héctor Luis Acevedo Secretario de Estado
Por: Sccretaria Auxiliar de Estado
A tenor y de acuerdo a la Ley de Política Pública Ambiental (Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada), estas
DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS han sido promulgadas mediante Resolución de la Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental de fecha 24 de julio de 1987.
En San Juan, Puerto Rico, hoy 19 de afosto de 1987.
ESTADO LIBRE ASOCIADO DE PUERTO RICO / OFICINA DEL GOBERNADOR
A tenor y de acuerdo a la Ley de Polftica Pablica Ambiental (Ley Nômero 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, segun enmendada), estas
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS han sido promulgadas mediante Resolucion de la Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental de fecha 24 de julio de 1987.
En San Juan, Puerto Rico, hoy/9 de afosto de 1987.
EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS 1987
I - 40 CFR 260 II - 40 CFR 261 III - 40 CFR 262 IV - 40 CFR 263 V - 40 CFR 264 VI - 40 CFR 265 VII - 40 CFR 266 VIII - 40 CFR 270 IX - DISPONIBILIDAD DE DOCUMENTOS
X - CARGOS POR PERMISOS XI - ANEJOS
NOTA: Para facilitar la revisión de estas enmiendas con la Reglamentación Federal se incluyen en el orden en que aparecen en el Codigo de Reglamentación Federal.
$$ -1- $40 CFR 260
LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES I, II y VI
Se enmienda la regla 102 para añadir la siguiente definicion:
Caldera significa un aparato cerrado que utiliza una flama controlada para la combusti6n y que tiene las siguientes caracteristicas: (1)
(i) La unidad debe tener provisiones fisicas para el recobro y exportación de la energía térmica en forma de vapor, liquidos de transferencia de calor (heated fluids) o gases de transferencias de calor (heated gases); y (ii) La cámara de combusti6n de la unidad y las secciones primarias de recobro de energía deben tener un disefo integral. Para tener un disefo integral, la cámara de combusti6n y las secciones primarias de recobro de enerGla (tales como tabiques de agua (waterwalls) y recalentadores) deben de estar fisicamente integrados en una sola unidad de manufactura o montaje. Una unidad donde la cámara de combusti6n y las secciones primarias de recobro de energía esten unidas solo por conductos o conexiones que lleven los gases producto de la combusti6n, no esta disefiada integralmente; sin embargo, el equipo secundario de recobro de energía (tales como economizadores o precalentadores de aire) no necesita estar físicamente integrado en una misma unidad como la cámara de combusti6n y la sección primaria de recobro de energía. Las siguientes unidades no estan excluidas de ser calderas solamente porque no tienen un disefio integral: calentadores de proceso (unidades que transfieren energía directamente al proceso) y unidades de combusti6n de lecho fluidificado; y (iii) Mientras esté en operacion, la unidad debe mantener una eficiencia de recobro de energía térmica de por lo menos un $60 %$, calculado en términos de la energía recobrada comparada con el valor térmico del combustible; y
(iv) La unidad debe exportar y utilizar por 10 menos un $75 %$ de la energía recobrada, calculada sobre una base anual. En este cálculo no se debe dar crédito por el calor recobrado usado internamente en la misma unidad. (Como ejemplos de uso interno están el precalentamiento de combustible o aire utilizado en el proceso de combustión y el manejo de abanicos o bombas de agua de alimentación inducidas o forzadas); 0 (2) La unidad es aquella que la Junta ha determinado, caso-a-caso, que es una caldera luego de haber considerado las normas establecidas en la Regla 610 de este reglamento.
Manifiesto: El documento originado y firmado por el generador que la Junta haya adoptado mediante Resolución para identificar la cantidad, composicion, origen, ruta y destino de todo aquel desperdicio peligroso que ha sido transportado hacia una facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos.
Número de Manifiesto: El número de identificacion de doce digitos asignado por la APA al generador además de un numero unico de cinco digitos que tiene el documento, asignado por el generador al manifiesto, para propositos informativos y de registro.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.10.
Se enmiendan las siguientes definiciones de la Regla 102 para que en lo sucesivo lean como sigue:
Facilidad Designada significa una facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de desperdicios peligrosos la cual ha recibido un permiso de la Junta o de la APA (o una facilidad con estatus interino) de acuerdo a los requisitos de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento, o que este reglamentada bajo la Regla 606 B (3)(b) o la Regla 1106 de este reglamento, y que haya sido designada por el generador en un manifiesto de acuerdo con la Regla 703 de este reglamento.
Incinerador es cualquier aparato cerrado que utilize una flama controlada de combustión y que no cumple con los criterios para clasificarlo como caldera ni tampoco esta listado como horno industrial.
Estas definiciones son equivalentes al 40 CFR Sección 260.10.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 para añadir las siguientes definiciones:
Horno industrial es cualquiera de los siguientes aparatos cerrados que son componentes integrados de los procesos de manufactura y que utilizan artefactos de flama controlada para llevar a cabo el recobro de materiales o energía: (1) Hornos de cemento (2) Calderas (Hornos de quema caliza para extraer la cal), "Lime kilns". (3) Hornos de mezclado, "Aggregate Kilns" (4) Hornos de fosfato, "Phosphate Kilns"
(5) Horno de coque (Carbón poroso, residuo de la calcinación de la hulla en la fabricacion del gas), "Coke kilns". (6) Hornos de cuba (Alto horno. Cuba es un recipiente de madera, cerrado por ambos extremos, tonel), "Blast furnaces". (7) Fundicion, hornos de fundicion y refinacion (incluyendo aparatos pirometalurgicos como cubilotes hornos donde se verifica en las fundiciones la segunda fusion del hierro colado, hornos de reverbero el que utiliza la reverberacion (calcinacion hecha en un horno de reverbero) del calor, maquina de toba piedra caliza muy ligera (o máquinas de incrustación deposito de carbonato de cal que se forma en las paredes de las calderas de vapor), asadores y hornos de fundicion). (8) Reactores de proceso de oxidacion de di6xido de cloruro de titanio. (9) Hornos de conversion de metano (10) Hornos de recuperacion de licor madre de procesos de extraccion de pulpa de madera. (11) Aparatos de combustion usados en la recuperacion de azufre del acido sulfurico usado. (12) Otros aparatos que la Junta decida, luego de notificarlo y comentarlo, y que se afiada a esta lista en base a uno o mas de los siguientes factores:
(i) El disefo y uso del aparato principalmente para lograr el recobro de productos materiales; (ii) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir la materia prima para hacer un producto material; (iii) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir los materiales secundarios como substitutos efectivos de materias primas en procesos donde se utilizan materias primas como material principal de insumo; (iv) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir materiales secundarios como ingredientes en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto material.
(v) El uso del aparato en la práctica industrial comin para producir un producto material; y (vi) Otros factores, segin apropiado.
Generador de Pequeñas Cantidades es aquel generador que genera menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.10.
Se enmienda la siguiente regla para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 208 B - Solicitudes de Revisión
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.20 .
Se enmienda la siguiente regla para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 208-G Peticiones para enmendar la Parte VI de este Reglamento para Excluir un Desperdicio S61ido Peligroso Producido en una Facilidad Particular
este inciso. Para lograrlo, el solicitante deberá demostrar a satisfacción de la Junta que el desperdicio producido por una facilidad generante particular no cumple con ninguno de los criterios bajo los cuales el desperdicio fue anotado como desperdicios peligroso y, en el caso de un desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado bajo la Regla 603 B (2), que tampoco cumple con los criterios establecidos en la Regla 603 B (3). Basado en una solicitud completa, la Junta determinará si tiene una razón justificada para creer que otros factores, además de los que causaron que el desperdicio fuera listado (incluyendo constituyentes adicionales), pueden hacer que el desperdicio sea peligroso, y por esta razón es necesario mantenerlo como tal. Un desperdicio que ha sido excluido seguirá siendo un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 2. Los procedimientos en este inciso y en el inciso B de esta regla también se utilizarán para solicitar a la Junta una enmienda al reglamento para excluir, de la Regla 102 (Definicion de desperdicio peligroso), un desperdicio que ha sido descrito en esa regla y que también es un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, contiene un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607 o es derivado de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607. Esta exclusión solo se puede emitir para una facilidad particular de generación, almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición. El peticionario debe de hacer la misma demostración segin requerida en el inciso G (1) de esta regla, excepto que cuando un desperdicio es una mezcla de desperdicio solido con uno o más desperdicios peligrosos, o es derivado de uno más desperdicios peligrosos, su demostración debe ser hecha con respecto a cada constituyente del desperdicio anotado o a la mezcla del desperdicio como tal. Un desperdicio excluido de esta forma seguirá siendo un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604.
(a) (3) cuando se consideran los factores de la Regla 261.11
(a) (3)
(i) a la (xi) bajo los cuales el desperdicio fue listado como peligroso; y b. Basado en una solicitud completa, la Junta determinars si tiene una razón justificada para creer que otros factores, además de los que causaron que el desperdicio fuera listado (incluyendo constituyentes adicionales), pueden hacer que el desperdicio sea peligroso, y por esta razón es necesario mantenerlo como tal.
c. El solicitante demostrara que el desperdicio no exhibe ninguna de las caracteristicas de la Parte VI, utilizando los métodos prescritos en ella. d. Un desperdicio excluido de esta forma aun puede ser un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604. 5. Si el desperdicio esta anotado con el codigo "H" en la Regla 607 : a. El solicitante debe demostrar que el desperdicio no cumple con ninguno de los siguientes criterios:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.22 .
Se enmienda la Parte II de este reglamento para añadir lo siguiente como la regla 208 H . H. Peticiones para añadir métodos de prueba o analf́ticos, equivalentes.
c. Resultados comparativos obtenidos al utilizar el método propuesto con aquellos obtenidos al usar los métodos relevantes o correspondientes descritos en las Partes I, VI, VIII-I u VIII-II de este reglamento. d. Una evaluacion de cualquier factor que pueda interferir con o limitar el uso del método propuesto; y e. Una descripción de los procedimientos de control de calidad necesarios para asegurar la sensitividad, exactitud y precision del método propuesto. 3. Luego de recibir la solicitud para un método equivalente, la Junta puede requerir cualquier informacion adicional del método propuesto que sea razonablemente necesaria para evaluar el mismo. 4. Si la Junta enmienda el reglamento para permitir el uso de un nuevo método de prueba, el método será incorporado en el "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods," SW-846, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Solid Waste, Washington, D.C. 20460, utilizado por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.21.
Se enmienda la Parte VI de este reglamento para añadir lo siguiente como la regla 609 A:
Regla 609A Cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido:
De acuerdo con las normas y criterios establecidos en la Regla 609 de este reglamento y los procedimientos establecidos en la Regla 611 de este reglamento, la Junta puede determinar caso-a-caso, que los siguientes materiales reciclados no son desperdicios sOlidos: (1) Materiales que son acumulados especulativamente sin que una cantidad suficiente sea reciclada (como se define en la Regla 102 de este reglamento); (2) Materiales que son reclamados y luego reusados dentro del proceso original de produccion primaria en el cual son generados; (3) Materiales que han sido reclamados pero que aun deben ser reclamados mas, antes de que los materiales sean completamente recobrados.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.30.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 609B:
Regla 609B Normas y Criterios para los cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido: (1) La Junta puede otorgar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido a aquellos materiales que son acumulados especulativamente sin que una cantidad suficiente sea reciclada, si el solicitante demuestra que una cantidad suficiente del
material sera reciclado o transferido para reciclaje en el proximo año. Si el cambio es otorgado, sera valido solo por el año siguiente pero puede ser renovado, anualmente, llenando una nueva solicitud. La decision de la Junta estara basada en las siguientes normas y criterios:
(a) La manera en la cual se espera que el material sea reciclado, cuando se espera que sea reciclado, y si esta esperada disposicion es probable que ocurra (por ejemplo por practicas pasadas, factores de mercado, la naturaleza del material o arreglos contractuales para el reciclaje);
(b) La razon por la cual el solicitante ha acumulado el material por uno o mas años sin haber reciclado el $75 %$ del volumen acumulado a principios del año;
(c) La cantidad de material acumulada y la cantidad que se espera generar y acumular antes de que el material sea reciclado;
(d) El grado de manejo del material para minimizar la perdida;
(e) Otros factores relevantes. (2) La Junta puede aprobar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificacion como desperdicio solido a aquellos materiales que son reciclados y luego reusados como alimento para ganado dentro del proceso original de produccion primaria en el cual los materiales fueron generados si la operacion de reclamacion es una parte esencial del proceso de produccion. Esta determinacion estara basada en los siguientes criterios:
(a) Cuan económicamente viable será el proceso de produccion si se utilizara material virgen en lugar de material reclamado;
(b) El predominio de la práctica a nivel industrial;
(c) El grado en que el material es manejado antes de la reclamación para minimizar la pérdida;
(d) El periodo de tiempo entre la generación del material y su reclamación, y entre la reclamación y el regreso al proceso original de produccion primaria;
(e) La ubicacion de la operacion de reclamacion en relacion al proceso de produccion;
(f) Si el material reclamado es utilizado con el proposito para el cual fue originalmente producido cuando es devuelto al proceso original, y si al ser devuelto al proceso mantiene substancialmente su forma original;
(g) Si la persona que genera el material tambien lo reclama;
(h) Otros factores relevantes. (3) La Junta puede aprobar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificación como desperdicio solido a aquellos materiales que han sido reclamados pero deben ser reclamados nuevamente antes de que el recobro sea completado, si, después de la reclamacion inicial, el material resultante es comercial (aunque no sea todavia un producto comercial y tenga que ser reclamado ulteriormente). Esta determinacion estará basada en los siguientes factores:
(a) El grado de proceso que el material ha sufrido y el grado adicional de proceso requerido;
(b) El valor del material luego de haber sido reclamado;
(c) El grado en el cual material reclamado es como un material crudo análogo;
(d) El grado en que existe la garantia de un mercado final para el material reclamado;
(e) El grado en el que el material reclamado es manejado para minimizar la pérdida;
(f) Otros factores relevantes.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.31.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 610 :
Regla 610 Cambio para clasificar como caldera.
De acuerdo a las normas y criterios establecidos en la Regla 102 (definicion de "caldera"), y los procedimientos establecidos en la Regla 611, la Junta puede determinar, caso-a-caso, que ciertos aparatos cerrados que utilicen una flama de combustion controlada, son calderas aunque de otro modo no cumplan con la definicion de caldera contenida en la Regla 102, luego de considerar los siguientes criterios: (1) El grado en el cual la unidad tiene provisiones para recobrar y exportar energia termica en forma de vapor, fluidos calientes o gases calientes; y
(2) El grado en el cual la cámara de combustión y el equipo de recobro de energía tienen un diseño integral; y (3) La eficiencia del recobro de energía, calculado en términos del recobro de energía comparado con el valor térmico del combustible; y (4) El grado en el cual la energía exportada es utilizada; y (5) El grado en el cual el aparato es de uso común y usual como una caldera, funcionando principalmente para producir vapor, fluidos calientes o gases calientes; y (6) Otros factores, segin sea apropiado
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.32.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 611 :
Regla 611 Procedimientos para cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido o para ser clasificado como caldera.
La Junta utilizara los siguientes procedimientos para evaluar las solicitudes para cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido o las solicitudes para clasificar algunos aparatos cerrados de combustión por flama como calderas:
(1) La solicitud debe seguir los criterios relevantes contenidos en las Reglas 609 o 610 de este reglamento. (2) La Junta evaluara la solicitud y emitira un borrador de notificación, por escrito, otorgando o denegando tentativamente la solicitud. La notificacion de esta decisión tentativa sera provista por un anuncio en el periódico y por transmision radial. La Junta aceptará comentarios sobre esa decisión tentativa por 30 dias, y también podrá sostener una vista pública si es solicitada o a su discreción. La Junta emitira una decisión final luego de recibir los comentarios y luego de la vista (si alguna) y esta decisión no será apelada a la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.33.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 612 :
Regla 612 Reglamentación adicional para ciertas actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios peligrosos aplicables caso-a-caso (1) La Junta puede decidir caso-a-caso, que las personas que esten acumulando o almacenando el material reciclado descrito en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) (iv) de este reglamento debe ser reglamentada bajo la Regla 606 B (2) y (3). Las bases para esta decisión es que los materiales están siendo acumulados o almacenados en una forma que no se protege la salud humana ni el ambiente porque los materiales o sus constituyentes tóxicos no están siendo contenidos adecuadamente, o porque los materiales que se estan acumulando o almacenando juntos son incompatibles. Al hacer esta decisión, la Junta considerará los siguientes factores:
(a) Los tipos de materiales acumulados o almacenados y las cantidades acumuladas o almacenadas;
(b) El método de acumulacion o almacenaje;
(c) Cuanto tiempo los materiales han sido acumulados - almacenados antes de ser reclamados;
(d) Si algán contaminante ha sido descargado hacia el ambiente, o puede ser descargado ; y
(e) Otros factores relevantes.
Los procedimientos para esta decisión están establecidos en la Regla 613 de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.40.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 613 :
Regla 613 Procedimientos para la reglamentacion caso-a-caso de actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios sôlidos peligrosos
La Junta seguirá los siguientes procedimientos para determinar cuando reglamentar las actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios peligrosos descritos en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) (iv) bajo las disposiciones de la Regla 606 B (2) y (3) en lugar de las establecidas en la Regla 1106 de este Reglamento.
(1) Si un generador esta acumulando el desperdicio, la Junta emitira una notificacion estableciendo los hechos para la decision y estableciendo que la persona debe cumplir con los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este Reglamento. La notificacion sera final dentro de los proximos 30 dias a menos que la persona notificada solicite una vista pablica para objetar la decision. Al recibir esta solicitud, la Junta celebrara una vista pablica y emitira un Aviso Pablico de la misma permitiendo la participación del público. Luego de la vista la Junta emitira una orden final estableciendo si se requiere o no cumplimiento con las Partes V y VII de este Reglamento. La orden sera efectiva treinta (30) dias luego del reemplazamiento de la misma a menos que la Junta especifique una fecha posterior o solicite una revisıon a la misma. La orden puede ser apelada a la Junta por cualquier persona que haya participado en la vista pablica. La Junta puede otorgar o denegar la apelacion. Una accion final de la Agencia ocurre cuando una orden final es emitida y los procedimientos de revisıon de la Agencia han sido agotados. (2) Si la persona esta acumulando el material reciclable como una facilidad de almacenamiento, la notificacion establecera que la persona debe obtener un permiso siguiendo los requisitos aplicables de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento. El dueño u operador de la facilidad tiene que solicitar un permiso no menos de sesenta (60) dias y no más de seis (6) meses a partir de la notificacion, segun especificado en la notificacion. Si el dueño u operador de la facilidad desea refutar la decisión de la Junta, lo puede hacer en la solicitud del permiso, en la vista pública sostenida para el
borrador del permiso, en los comentarios presentados en el borrador del permiso o en la notificacion de intencion de denegar el permiso. La hoja de datos que acompaña el permiso especificara las razones para la determinacion de la Agencia. Cualquier pregunta sobre si la decision de la Junta fue correcta quedara abierta a consideracion durante el periodo de comentarios públicos discutido bajo la Regla I-912 I de este reglamento y en cualquier vista subsiguiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.41.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.6.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.6.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.8.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.8.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.7. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.9. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.10.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.11.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1
-11- 40 CFR 261
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES I Y VI
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la definición de "desperdicios s61ido" para diferenciar lo que es un desperdicio s61ido para los propósitos de la reglamentación de desperdicio s61ido peligroso y otra para la reglamentación de desperdicios s61idos no-peligrosos. Por tal motivo se enmienda la definición de desperdicio s61ido como sigue: I. Desperdicio S61ido A. Esta definición de desperdicio s61ido aplicará a la reglamantación de desperdicios s61idos no peligrosos.
Cualquier desperdicio de comida, basura, cierno o cualquier "otro material desechado", incluyendo todo el "desperdicio s61ido peligroso", excepto lo siguiente:
II. Desperdicio S6lido A. Esta definición de desperdicio s6lido aplicará a la reglamentación de desperdicio s6lido peligroso. B. Proposito y Alcance (1) La definición de desperdicio sólido contenida en esta Parte aplica s6lo a los desperdicios que también son peligrosos para propósitos de esta reglamentacion según aparece en las Partes II, III, V, VI, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI. Por ejemplo, no es aplicable a materiales (como desechos no-peligrosos, papel, textiles o caucho) que de otro modo no son desperdicios peligrosos y que son reciclados. (2) Esta parte identifica solo algunos de los materiales que son desperdicios peligrosos y desperdicios nopeligrosos segin el Anejo C-8 y Anejo C-9. Un material que no es definido como desperdicio s6lido en esta parte o que no es un desperdicio peligroso identificado o anotado en la Regla 607 de este reglamento, es todavia un desperdicio s6lido y un desperdicio peligroso para propósitos de esta definición si:
(a) En el caso de 12 LPRA Secciones (21) y (34), la Junta tiene razones para pensar que el material puede ser un desperdicio s6lido según definido en el Anejo C-7 y un desperdicio peligroso segin definido en el Anejo C-7.
(b) En el caso de 12 LPRA 11 (19), se cumplen los elementos ahi incluidos.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.1
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (definicion de desperdicio solido) para añadir lo siguiente: (3) Para propósitos de las Reglas 102 (definicion de desperdicio s61ido II) y 606 B :
(a) "Material agotado" es cualquier material que ha sido usado $y$, como resultado de la contaminacion, no puede servir mas los propósitos para los cuales fue producido sin procesar.
(b) "Cieno" tiene el mismo significado utilizado en la Regla 102 de este reglamento;
(c) "Subproducto" es un material que no es uno de los productos primarios del proceso de produccion ni tampoco es producido, solo o separado, por el proceso de produccion. Ejemplo de esto son los residuos de proceso como la escoria o el fondo de la columna de destilacion. El termino no incluye aquel producto secundario que es producido para uso general y es utilizado ordinariamente en la forma que es producido por el proceso.
(d) "Material reclamado" es aquel material que es procesado para recobrar un producto utilizable o que es regenerado. Ejemplo de esto es el recobro del valor del plomo de las baterias agotadas y la regeneracion de solventes agotados.
(e) "Material usado o reusado" es aquel material que es:
(i) Empleado como ingrediente (incluyendo su uso como intermediario) en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto (por ejemplo, el sedimento de destilacion de un proceso utilizando como fuente de alimentacion en otro proceso). Sin embargo, un material no podra satisfacer esta condicion sin distintos componentes del material son recobrados como productos finales separados (como cuando metales son recobrados de metales que contienen materiales secundarios); 0 (ii) Empleado en una funcion o aplicacion particular como un substituto efectivo para un producto comercial (por ejemplo, licor de salmuera agotado utilizado como agente precipitante de fosforo y como acondicionador de cienos en el tratamiento de aguas de albañal).
(f) "Chatarra" significa fragmentos y piezas de partes de metal (por ejemplo, barras, virutas, varillas, planchas de metal, alambre o piezas de metal) que pueden ser unidas con tornillos o soldaduras (por ejemplo, radiadores, autom6biles desechados, furgones de ferrocarril), las cuales cuando se deterioran o se inutilizan pueden ser recicladas.
(g) "Material reciclado" es aquel material que ha sido usado, reusado o reclamado.
(h) "Material acumulado especulativamente" es aquel material que es acumulado antes de ser reciclado. Sin embargo, un material no es acumulado especulativamente si la persona que lo esta acumulando puede demostrar que el material es potencialmente capaz de
ser reciclado y tiene medios viables para ser reciclado; y que, durante el año calendario (comenzando el primero de enero, la cantidad de material que haya sido reciclado, o transferido a un lugar diferente para ser reciclado, iguale por lo menos $75 %$ por peso o volumen la cantidad de ese material acumulado al principio del periodo. Al calcular el porciento de cambio, el requisito del $75 %$ se le aplicara a cada material del mismo tipo (i.e., la escoria producto de un proceso sencillo de fundicion que es reciclada en la misma forma) esto es, de donde el material es recobrado o que es usado en la misma forma. Los materiales que son acumulados en unidades que pueden estar exentas de la reglamentacion bajo la Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido Peligroso, inciso B (10) no se incluyen al hacer este cálculo. (Los materiales que ya han sido definidos como desperdicio solido tampoco se incluyen al hacer este cálculo). De cualquier modo, los materiales, dejan de pertenecer a esta catergoria luego de no ser acumulados para reciclaje.
Este inciso es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.1
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: C. Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido (1)
(a) Desperdicio solido es cualquier material desechado que no ha sido excluido por la Definicion de desperdicio peligroso, inciso I-30 ni por una dispensa otorgada bajo las Reglas 608 y 609 de este reglamento.
(b) Material desechado es todo aquel material que ha sido:
(i) Abandonado, como se explica en el părrafo (2) de esta definicion; 0 (ii) Reciclado, como se explica en el părrafo (3) de esta definicion; 0 (iii) Considerado inherentemente como un desperdicio segin el părrafo (4) de esta definicion. (2) Desperdicio s61ido es aquel material que ha sido abandonado por ser:
(a) Dispuesto; 0
(b) Quemado o incinerado; o
(c) Acumulado, almacenado o tratado (pero no reciclado) antes de o en lugar de ser abandonado por ser dispuesto, quemado o incinerado. (3) Es desperdicio solido aquel material que ha sido reciclado, o acumulado, almacenado o tratado antes de ser reciclado, segin se especifica en los parrafos (3)
(a) al (3)
(d) de esta definicion.
(a) Usado de forma que constituya disposicion.
(i) Los materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 1 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son: (A) Aplicados en o puestos en el terreno de forma tal que constituya disposicion; 0
(B) Usados para producir productos que son puestos en o aplicados al terreno o que de otra manera esten contenidos en productos que son puestos en o aplicados al terreno (en cuyo caso el producto mismo constituye un desperdicio s61ido). (ii) Sin embargo, los productos químicos comerciales anotados en la Regla 607 D no son desperdicios s61idos si son aplicados al terreno y esta es la forma ordinaria de utilizarlos.
(b) Quemado para recobro de energía.
(i) Materiales señalados con un asterico (*) en la Columna 2 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son: (A) Quemados para recobro de energía; (B) Usados para producir combustible o que de otra manera estén contenidos en combustibles (en cuyo caso el combustible mismo constituye un desperdicio s61ido). (ii) Sin embargo, los productos químicos comerciales anotados en la Regla 607 D no son desperdicios s61idos si ellos mismos son combustibles.
(c) Reclamados. Materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 3 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son reclamados .
(d) Acumulados especulativamente. Materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 4 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son acumulados especulativamente.
Tabla 1
(4) Materiales que inherentemente se consideran como un desperdicio. Los siguientes materiales son desperdicios s6lidos cuando son reciclados de cualquier forma:
(a) "Número de desperdicio peligroso. F020, F021 (a menos que se use como ingrediente para hacer un producto en el sitio de generación). F022, F023, F026 y F028.
(b) La Junta utilizará el siguiente criterio para añadir desperdicios a esta lista: (1) (A) Los materiales son ordinariamente dispuestos, quemados o incinerados; 0 (B) Los materiales contienen constituyentes tóxicos anotados en el Anejo C-3 y estos constituyentes no se encuentran ordinariamente en materias primas o productos para los cuales los materiales sustituyen (o se encuentran en la materia prima o productos en menores concentraciones) y no son usados o reusados durante el proceso de reciclaje; y (ii) El material puede ser un peligro substancial a la salud humana y al ambiente cuando sea reciclado. (5) Materiales que no son desperdicio s6lido cuando son reciclados.
(a) Los materiales no son desperdicios s6lidos cuando pueden demostrar que son reciclados por ser: (1) Usados o reusados como ingredientes en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto, siempre que los materiales no hayan sido reclamados; o
(ii) Usados o reusados como substitutos efectivos para productos comerciales ; 0 (iii) Devueltos al proceso original del que fuera generados, sin primero ser reclamados. El material debe ser devuelto como un substituto para la fuente de alimentación de materia prima, y el proceso debe usar materias primas como la fuente principal de alimentación.
(b) Los siguientes materiales son desperdicios s6lidos, aunque el reciclaje envuelva el uso, reuso o regreso al proceso original (descrito en los parrafos (5)
(a) (i) - (iii) de esta definici6n):
(i) Materiales usados de forma que constituye disposición, o usados para producir productos que son aplicados al terreno; o (ii) Materiales quemados para el recobro de energía, usados para producir combustible o contenidos en combustibles; o (iii) Materiales acumulados especulativamente; o (iv) Materiales anotadas en el párrafo (4)
(a) de esta definici6n. (6) Documentación de reclamaciones de materiales que no son desperdicios s6lidos o que están condicionalmente exentos del reglamento.
Los demandados en acciones para cumplir con el Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S6lidos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos, que reclaman que cierto material no es un desperdicio s6lido, o que esta condicionalmente exento del
reglamento, debe demostrar que hay un conocido mercado o disposición para el material y que ellos cumplen con los términos de la exclusión o exención. Al hacer esto, deben proveer la documentación apropiada (como contratos mostrando que una segunda persona usa el material como ingrediente en un proceso de producción) para demostrar que el material no es un desperdicio o que esta exento de reglamentación. Además, los dueños u operadores de facilidades que reclaman que actualmente ellos están reciclando materiales deben demostrar que tienen el equipo necesario para hacerlo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.2.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definición de Desperdicio S61ido) para añadir lo siguiente: (7) Excepciones
Materiales que no son desperdicios s6lidos. Los siguientes materiales no son desperdicios s6lidos para propósitos de la Parte VI de este reglamento:
(a) (i) Desperdicio líquido doméstico; y (ii) Cualquier mezcla de desperdicio líquido doméstico y otros desperdicios que pasen a través de un sistema de alcantarillado hacia una planta de tratamiento propiedad del gobierno para su tratamiento. "Desperdicio liquido doméstico" significa aquellos desperdicios sanitarios no tratados que pasan a través de un sistema de alcantarillado.
(b) Descargas de aguas usadas industriales que son descargas provenientes de una fuente que están sujetas a reglamentación bajo la Sección 402 de la Ley de Agua Limpia, segEn enmendada. (COMENTARIO: Esta excepción aplica solo al punto de descarga de la fuente. No excluye las aguas usadas industriales mientras son recogidas, almacenadas o tratadas antes de ser descargados, tampoco excluye los cienos generados por el tratamiento de las aguas usadas industriales.).
(c) Aguas recuperadas de irrigacion.
(d) Fuente nuclear, material especial nuclear o sub-producto de este segEn definido por la Ley de Energia Atómica del 1954, segǴn enmendada, 42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.
(e) Materiales sujetos a las técnicas de mineria en el sitio los cuales no han sido removidos del suelo como parte del proceso de extraccion.
(f) Licores de pulpa (esto es, licor madre) que son reclamados en los hornos de recuperación de licor de pulpa y que luego son reusados en el proceso de extraccion de pulpa, a menos que sean acumulados especulativamente como se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de Desperdicio solido) de este reglamento.
(g) Acido sulfurico usado utilizado para producir acido sulfurico virgen, a menos que sea acumulado especulativamente según se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de Desperdicio S6lido) de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio Peligroso) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 102 Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido Peligroso
(a) Un desperdicio solido, como se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de desperdicio solido II), es un desperdicio peligroso si: (1) No esta excluido de reglamentacion como desperdicio peligroso, bajo el inciso
(e) de esta definicion; y (2) Cumple con cualquiera de los siguientes criterios:
(i) Posee cualquiera de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificada en la Regla 604. (ii) Esta anotado en la Regla 607 y no ha sido excluido de las listas de la Regla 607 bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento.
(iii) Es una mezcla de un desperdicio solido con un desperdicio peligroso anotado en la Regla 607 solamente porque exhibe una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificados en la Regla 604, a menos que la mezcla resultante no exhiba ninguna de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificados en la Regla 604. (iv) Es una mezcla de desperdicio solido y uno o más desperdicios peligrosos anotados en la regla 607 y no ha sido excluido de este pârafo bajo las Regla 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento; sin embargo, las siguientes mezclas de desperdicios solidos y desperdicios peligrosos anotadas en la Regla 607 no son desperdicios peligrosos (excepto cuando se aplique el párrafo
(a) (2)
(i) 6 (ii) de esta definicion) si el generador puede demostrar que la mezcla consiste de descarga de aguas usadas lo cual esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Seccion 402 o Seccion 307
(b) de la Ley de Agua Limpia (incluyendo aguas usadas en facilidades que han eliminado la descarga de aguas usadas) y; (A) Uno o más de los siguientes solventes usados anotados en la Regla 607 B tetracloruro de carbono, tetracloroetileno, tricloroetileno - provisto que el uso máximo total por semana de estos solventes (otros que la cantidad que puede demostrarse que no es decargada a las aguas usadas) dividido por el flujo promedio semanal de las aguas
usadas hacia las areas de proceso de los sistemas de tratamiento o de pre tratamientos de aguas usadas de la facilidad no excede 1 ppm; 0 (B) Uno o más de los siguientes solventes usados anotados en la Regla 607 B cloruro de metileno, 1,1,1-tricloroetano, clorobenzeno, o-diclorobenzeno, cresoles, ácido cresilico, nitrobenzeno, tolueno, metil etil centeno disulfito de carbono, isobutanol piridina, solventes usados de clorofluorocarbono - provisto que el uso máximo total por semana de estos solventes (otro que la cantidad que puede demostrarse que no es descargada a las aguas usadas) dividido por el flujo promedio semanal de las aguas usadas hacia las areas de proceso de los sistemas de tratamiento o pre tratamiento de aguas usadas de la facilidad no excede 25 ppm ; 0
(c) Uno de los siguientes desperdicios anotados en la Regla 607 C - el cieno de la limpieza del empaquetamiento del intercambiado de calor proveniente de la industria de refinación de petroleo. (APA Desperdicio Peligroso Num K050); 0
(D) Un producto químico comercial descargado, o químico intermedio anotado en la Regla 607 D, proveniente de la perdida minima de estos materiales de operaciones manufactureros en los cuales estos materiales son utilizados como materia prima o son producidos en el proceso de manufactura. Para propositos de este subparrafo, las perdidas "minimas" incluyen aquellas de operaciones normales de manejo de material (ej. derrames de la descarga - transferencia de materiales de cubos u otros envases, gotereo de los tubos, valvulas u otros aparatos utilizados para transferir materiales); derrames menores de equipo de proceso, tanques de almacenamiento o envases; derrames de los sellos y empaques de bomba de mantenimiento de pozos; evacuaciones de muestra; descargas de aparatos de relieve; descargas de duchas de seguridad, enjuague y limpieza de equipo de seguridad personal; y las aguas de lavado de los envases vacios o de los envases que quedaran vacios por ese lavado; 0 (E) El agua usada producto de las operaciones de laboratorio que contienen desperdicios toxicos (T) anotado en la Regla 607, provisto que el flujo promedio anual de agua usada de laboratorio no excede $1 %$ del flujo total de agua usada hacia las Sreas de proceso
del sistema de tratamiento o pretra- tamiento de las aguas usadas, o provisto el desperdicio, que la concentración promedio anual combinada no excede 1 ppm en las areas de proceso de la facilidad de tratamiento o pre-tratamiento de las aguas usadas de la facilidad. Los desperdicios t6xicos (T) utilizados en laboratorios que se ha demostrado que no han sido descargados en las aguas usadas no estan incluidos en este cálculo.
(b) Un desperdicio s61ido que no ha sido excluido de reglamentacion bajo el parrafo
(a) (1) de esta defi$n i c i 6 n$ es un desperdicio peligroso cuando cualquiera de los siguientes eventos ocurre; (1) En el caso de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, cuando el desperdicio cumple por primera vez con la descripcion para ser anotado en la Regla 607. (2) En el caso de una mezcla de desperdicio solido y uno o mas desperdicios peligrosos anotados, cuando un desperdicio peligroso anotado en la Regla 607 es añadido por primera vez al desperdicio solido. (3) En el caso de cualquier otro desperdicio (incluyendo una mezcla de desperdicio), cuando el desperdicio exhibe cualquiera de las caracteristicas identificadas en la Regla 604.
(c) A menos que, y hasta que cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo
(d) : (1) Un desperdicio peligroso permanecerá como desperdicio peligroso. (2)
(i) Excepto lo que se provee en el párrafo
(c) (2) (ii) de esta definición, cualquier desperdicio solido generado por el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de un desperdicio peligroso, incluyendo cieno, residuo de derrame, ceniza, control de emision de polvo, o lixiviación (pero sin incluir la escorrentia por lluvia) es un desperdicio peligroso. (Sin embargo, los materiales que son reclamados de los desperdicios solidos y que son beneficiosamente utilizados no son desperdicios solidos y, por lo tanto, no son desperdicios peligrosos bajo esta disposición a menos que el material reclamado sea quemado para recobro de energía o utilizado en una forma que constituya disposicion). (ii) Los siguientes desperdicios solidos no son peligrosos aunque hayan sido generados por el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de desperdicio peligroso, a menos que exhiban una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso: (A) Cieno del desperdicio del licor generado por la estabilización de cal del licor de salmuera usado proveniente de la industria ciderargica. (SIC Codes 331 and 332 ).
(B) Desperdicio producido por la quema de cualquiera de los materiales exentos de reglamentacion por la Regla 606 B (1)
(c) (iv), (vi), (vii) u (viii).
(d) Cualquier desperdicio solido descrito en el parrafo
(c) de esta definicion no es un desperdicio peligroso si cumple con los siguientes criterios: (1) En el caso de cualquier desperdicio solido, no exhibe ninguna de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificado en la Regla 604 . (2) En el caso de un desperdicio que esta anotado bajo la Regla 607, contiene un desperdicio anotado bajo la Regla 607 o es derivado de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, tambien ha sido excluido del parrafo
(c) bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.3.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio Peligroso Parte B) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: B. Los siguientes desperdicios solidos no son desperdicios solidos peligrosos a menos que as sea designado por la Junta: (1) Desperdicio doméstico, incluyendo aquel desperdicio doméstico que ha sido recogido, transportado, almacenado, tratado, dispuesto, recobrado (por ejemplo, combustible derivado de material desechado) o reusado. "Desperdicio doméstico"
significa cualquier material (incluyendo desperdicio de comida, basura y desperdcio sanitario en pozo septico) derivado de residencias (incluyendo residencias sencillas y m6ltiples, hoteles y moteles, "bunkhouses", estaciones de vigilancia, "crew quarters", campamentos, campos de excursion y areas de recreacion de uso diario). Una facilidad de recuperacion de recursos que maneja desperdicio solido municipal no debe ser considerada para tratar, almacenar, disponer o manejar desperdicios peligrosos para propositos de reglamentacion bajo esta regla, si esa facilidad:
(a) Solo recibe y quema: (1) Desperdicio doméstico (de residencias sencillas y m6ltiples, hoteles, moteles y otras fuentes residenciales) y (ii) Desperdicio s61ido de fuentes comerciales o industriales que no contienen desperdicio peligroso; y
(b) Esa facilidad no acepta desperdicios peligrosos y el dueto u operador de esa facilidad ha establecido requisitos contractuales u otros procedimientos apropiados de notificacion o inspeccion para asegurar que en esa facilidad no se reciben ni se queman desperdicios peligrosos. (2) Desperdicios s6lidos generados por cualquiera de las siguientes y los cuales son devueltos al suelo como fertilizantes:
(a) El cultivo y recoleccion de cosechas agrícolas.
(b) La crianza de animales incluyendo el estiercol. (3) Terreno de sobrecarga que se utiliza como relleno después de terminadas las operaciones mineras. (4) Desperdicio de ceniza volátil, desperdicio de ceniza sedimentada, escoria y el desperdicio de la chimenea de control de emision de gases generados principalmente por la combustion de carbon u otros combustibles fosiles. (5) Liquidos de perforación, aguas producidas y otros desperdicios asociados con la exploracion, desarrollo o produccion de petróleo crudo, gas natural - energía geotermica. (6)
(a) Desperdicios que no pasan la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento de Extraccion (EP Toxicity) por la presencia de cromio o porque están anotados en la Regla 607 debido a la presencia de cromio, que no fallan en la prueba de Toxicidad por el procedimiento de Extraccion para cualquier otro constituyente - que no estf anotado debido a la presencia de cualquier otro constituyente, y que no pasan la prueba para cualquier otra caracteristica, si el generador del desperdicio o los generadores del desperdicio demuestran que:
(i) El cromio en el desperdicio es exclusivamente (o casi exclusivamente) cromio trivalente; y (ii) El desperdicio es generado por un proceso industrial que usa cromio trivalente exclusivamente (o casi exclusivamente) y que el proceso no genera cromio hexavalente; y (iii) El desperdicio es frecuente y tipicamente manejado en ambientes no oxidantes.
(b) Desperdicios especificos que cumplen con las normas establecidas en los parrafos B (6)
(a) (i), (ii) y (iii) (mientras pasen la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento de Extracción y que pasen la prueba para cualquier otra caracteristica) son:
(i) Franjas de cromio (azul) generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-the-blue"; and "shearling". (ii) Virutas de cromio (azul) generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; no beamhouse", "through-the-blue"; and "shearling".
(iii) Polvo del raspado de cuero generado por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-the-blue". (iv) Filtracion de las aguas de albañal generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse", "through-theblue"; and shearling.
(v) Lodos del tratamiento de aguas usadas generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero:"hair pulp/chrome/$ an /$ retan/wet finish"; hair save/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-theblue; and "shearling". (vi) Lodos del tratamiento de aguas usadas generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; hair save/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; and "through-the-blue".
(vii) Desperdicios del cuero desechado de la industria de curtido de cuero, la industria manufacturera de zapatos y la industria manufacturera de otros productos de cuero. (viii) Lodos generados por el tratamiento de las aguas usadas de la produccion del pigmento Oxido de Titano ( $\mathrm{TiO}_{2}$ ) usando vetas de cromio por el proceso de cloruro. (7) Desperdicio solido generado por la extraccion "beneficiation" y procesamiento de minerales (incluyendo carb6n), incluyendo roca fosfatada y la sobrecarga de la mineria de uranio. (8) Polvo del horno de cemento. (9) Desperdicio solido que consiste en madera desechada o producto de madera que no pasan la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento la Extraccion (EP Toxicity) y que no es un desperdicio peligroso por cualquier otra razon si el desperdicio es generado por personas que utilizan la madera tratada con arsenico y productos de madera para el uso final de estos materiales.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(b) .
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 606 D:
Regla 606 D Desperdicios peligrosos que están exentos de cierta reglamentacion. Un desperdicio peligroso que es 'generado en un tanque de almacenamiento de un producto o material crudo, en un vehículo de transporte - embarcación de un producto o material crudo, de una tuber1a, o en una unidad de un proceso de manufactura o en otra unidad asociada de manufactura que trata desperdicios, no esta sujeto a la reglamentacion según las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX de este Reglamento a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) mientras exista la unidad en la que fue generado, a menos que la unidad sea un embalse superficial, o a menos que el desperdicio peligroso permanezca en la unidad por más de 90 dias luego de que la unidad haya cesado la operacion para la manufactura, almacenamiento o transportacion de un producto o material crudo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(c) .
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 606 E:
Regla 606 E Muestras
(a) La muestra sea transportada a un laboratorio para propositos de analisis; o
(b) La muestra sea transportada nuevamente al colector de muestras luego del analisis; o
(c) La muestra es almacenada en el colector de muestras antes de transportarla al laboratorio para analisis; o
(d) La muestra es almacenada en un laboratorio antes del analisis; o
(e) La muestra es almacenada en el laboratorio después del analisis pero antes de regresarla al colector de muestras; o
(f) La muestra es almacenada temporeramente en el laboratorio después del analisis para un proposito en especifico (por ejemplo: hasta la conclusión de un caso en corte o una acción legal donde un analisis posterior de la muestra puede ser necesario). (2) Para cualificar para la excepción de los parrafos E (1)
(a) y
(b) de esta regla, un recogedor de muestras que las envie a un laboratorio y Este se las devuelva al recogedor de muestras debe:
(a) Cumplir con el Departamento de Transportacion Federal ("DOT"), el Servicio Postal Federal ("USPS") o cualquier otro requisito aplicable de embarque; o
(b) Cumplir con los siguientes requisitos si el recogedor de muestras determina que los requisitos de DOT, USPS u otro requisito de embarque no aplica al embarque de la muestra. (1) Asegurarse que la siguiente informacion acompaña la muestra: (A) El nombre del recogedor de la muestra, direccion postal y el número de telefono; (B) El nombre del laboratorio, direccion postal y el número de telefono;
(c) Cantidad de la muestra; (D) Fecha del embarque; y (E) Una descripcion de la muestra (ii) Empacar la muestra para que no goterEe, se derrame ni se evapore de su envase. (3) Esta excepción no aplica si el laboratorio determina que el desperdicio es peligroso, pero el laboratorio no cumple con ninguna de las condiciones establecidas en el parrafo E (1) de esta regla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla 606 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 A Requisitos especiales para desperdicios peligrosos generados por generadores de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exentos.
Reglas 606 B (2) y (3) y de las Reglas 1103, 1104 y 1106 esta incluido en la determinación de cantidad de esta parte y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento. 4. Para determinar la cantidad de desperdicios peligrosos generados, un generador no necesita incluir: a. Los desperdicios peligrosos cuando estos son removidos de su lugar de almacenaje dentro de la facilidad; o b. Los desperdicios peligrosos producidos por el tratamiento en la facilidad (incluyendo reclamacion) de sus desperdicios peligrosos, siempre y cuando el desperdicio peligroso tratado fue contado en una ocasión; o c. Materiales usados que son generados, reclamados y subsiguientemente reusados en la facilidad, siempre y cuando tales materiales usados sean contados en una ocasión. 5. Si un generador genera desperdicios severamente peligrosos en un mes calendario en cantidades mayores que las establecidas más adelante, todas las cantidades de esos desperdicios severamente peligrosos están sujetas a toda la reglamentacion las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento y bajo los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8):
a. Un total de un (1) kilogramo de desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607 \mathrm{C} 6607 \mathrm{D}(5)$. b. Un total de cien (100) kilogramos de cualquier residuo o suelo contaminado, desperdicio u otros desechos contaminados que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o el agua, de cualquier desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607 \mathrm{C} 6607 \mathrm{D}(5)$. 6. Para que los desperdicios peligrosos severamente peligroso generados en cantidades iguales o menores que aquellas establecidas en los incisos (5)
(a) 6 (5)
(b) de esta regla 606 A , sean excluidos de toda la reglamentacion bajo esta regla 606 A , el generador debe de cumplir con los siguientes requisitos: a. Regla 702 B de este reglamento; b. El generador puede acumular desperdicios severamente peligrosos en su facilidad. Si acumula en cualquier momento desperdicios peligrosos severos en cantidades que rebasen aquellas establecidas en los incisos (5)
(a) - (5)
(b) de esta regla 606 A , todos esos desperdicios acumulados quedan sujetos a reglamentacion bajo las partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento y a los requisitos aplicables de notificacion
establecidos en la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). El tiempo de acumulacion permitido para desperdicios en la facilidad bajo la Regla 704 D (4) comienza cuando el desperdicio acumulado excede el nivel de exclusión aplicable; c. Un generador de pequeñas cantidades condicionalmente exento puede ya sea tratar o disponer de sus desperdicios severamente peligrosos en su facilidad, o asegurar el embarque a una facilidad de almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición fuera de su facilidad, cualquiera de estas que esté: (1) Con un permiso aprobado bajo la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; (2) En estatus interino bajo las Partes VIII-I y IX-I de este reglamento; (3) Autorizada a manejar desperdicios peligrosos por un estado que tiene un programa de desperdicios peligrosos aprobado bajo el 40 CFR Parte 271; o (4) Una facilidad que: (A) Use o reuse beneficiosamente o legitimamente recicle o reclame su desperdicio; o (B) Trate su desperdicio antes de usarlo o reusarlo beneficiosamente o legitimamente reciclarlo o reclamarlo.
c. Un generador de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exento puede ya sea tratar o disponer de sus desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad, o asegurar el embarque a una facilidad de almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición fuera de su facilidad, cualquiera de estas que este: (1) Con un permiso aprobado bajo la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; (2) En estatus interino bajo las partes VIII-I y IX-I de este reglamento; (3) Autorizado a manejar desperdicios peligrosos por un Estado con un programa de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos aprobado bajo el 40 CFR Parte 271; o (4) Una facilidad que: (A) Use o reuse benefisiosamente o legitimamente recicle o reclame su desperdicio; o (B) Trate su desperdicio antes de usarlo o reusarlo beneficiosamente o legitimamente reciclarlo o reclamarlo. 8. Desperdicio peligroso sujeto a los requisitos reducidos de esta regla 606 A podra ser mezclado con un desperdicio no-peligroso y permanecera sujeto a estos requisitos reducidos atin cuando la mezcla resultante exceda las limitaciones de cantidad identificadas en esta regla 606 A, a
menos que la mezcla cumpla con cualquiera de las caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos identificadas en la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 9. Si cualquier persona mezcla un desperdicio solido con un desperdicio peligroso que excede la cantidad del nivel de exclusi6n de esta Regla 606 A, la mezcla esta sujeta a toda la reglamentacion. 10. Si los desperdicios de un generador de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exento se mezclan con aceite usado, la mezcla esta sujeta a la Regla 1105 de este reglamento si se va a quemar para recobro de energla. Cualquier material producido de esa mezcla por medio de procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento esta tambien reglamentado si va a ser quemado para recobro de energla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.5.
Se enmienda la Regla 606 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 B Requisitos para materiales reciclables.
Regla 606 B 1. a. Desperdicios peligrosos que son reciclados estan sujetos a los requisitos para generadores, transportadores y facilidades de almacenamiento descritos en los incisos (2) y (3) de esta regla 606 B excepto para los materiales anotados en los incisos (1)
(b) y (1)
(c) de esta regla 606 B. Los desperdicios peligrosos que son reciclados se conocen como "materiales reciclables."
No. and w/ atr w/cr. | Chemokr abe/racc hc | Substance |
---|---|---|
1225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoterm |
1226 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
1126 | 81-88-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
1172 | 824-18-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
1031 | 71-30-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
1158 | 75-83-3 | 2-Butanone (LT) |
1160 | 1336-23-4 | 2-Butanone peroxide (R,T) |
1053 | 4170-30-0 | 2-Butene |
1074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (LT) |
1143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1-pyrroloin-1-yl ester, [1S-(tetraH2),7(2S, 3R), 7tetraH2,7] |
1031 | 71-36-3 | 4-Butyl alcohol (I) |
1136 | 75-80-5 | Cacodylic acid |
1032 | 13765-10-0 | Calcium chromate |
1038 | 51-78-6 | Carbonic acid, ethyl ester |
1178 | 815-53-2 | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
1067 | 78-44-7 | Carbonic chloride, dimethyl- |
1114 | 111-54-6 | Carbamodifinoic acid, 1,2-ethenediylbis-salts and esters |
1062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-5-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
1215 | 6523-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dimethylnitro (I+) salt |
1033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic diltiazem |
1156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonicontenoic acid, methyl ester (LT) |
1033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
1211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
1034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
1035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
1036 | 12769-03-6 | Chlordane |
1026 | 494-03-1 | Chlormachazine |
1037 | 106-80-7 | Chlorobenzene |
1039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
1041 | 106-85-8 | 1-Chloro-2,3-dibromopropane |
1042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chlorostilyl vinyl ether |
1044 | 67-68-3 | Chloroform |
1011 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
1047 | 81-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
1016 | 85-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
1045 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
1270 | 13765-19-0 | Chironic acid, calcium salt |
1050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
1031 | 8021-39-4 | Cresside |
1052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresols (Cresylic acid) |
1053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
1055 | 86-82-8 | Lumene (I) |
1245 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide |
1197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
1056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
1067 | 106-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
1130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro |
1058 | 90-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
1240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts and esters |
1059 | 20830-81-3 | Daucionyon |
1080 | 72-54-6 | DDD |
1061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
1062 | 2303-16-4 | Dieldrin |
1063 | 53-70-3 | Dipenz(a,h)anthracene |
1064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenz(a,l)pyrene |
1066 | 86-12-6 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
1068 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
1270 | 85-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
1071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
1072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
1073 | 81-94-1 | 2,3-Dichlorobenzidine |
1074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (LT) |
1075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodibutronanthane |
1076 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
1078 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
1025 | 111-44-1 | Dichloroethyl ether |
1081 | 120-63-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenyl |
1082 | 67-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
1240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, salts and esters |
1083 | 76-67-5 | 1,2-Dichloropropane |
1084 | 542-75-8 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
1085 | 1484-53-5 | 1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane (LT) |
1106 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethylenecxide |
1086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N-Diethylhydrazine |
1087 | 3288-56-2 | O,O-Diethyl-5-methyl-dithiophosphate |
1088 | 64-06-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
1089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbestrol |
1090 | 84-58-6 | Dihydrocarbox |
1091 | 119-80-4 | 2,3-Dimethoxybenzidine |
1092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
1093 | 80-11-7 | Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
1094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethyloxoz(a)anthracene |
1095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3-Dimethylbenzidine |
1096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
1097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
1098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
1099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
1101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylethenol |
1102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
1103 | 77-76-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
1105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
No. | Chemical | Substance |
---|---|---|
1001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
1004 | 75-07-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
1005 | 82-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
1006 | 52-98-3 | Acetamide, N-(2H-fluoren-2-yl) |
1007 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
1008 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead salt |
1009 | 563-69-6 | Acetic acid, thallium (1-1) salt |
1010 | 93-79-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) |
1011 | 87-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
1012 | 75-05-6 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
1013 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
1014 | 53-98-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
1015 | 75-38-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
1016 | 79-08-1 | Acrylamide |
1017 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (II) |
1018 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
1019 | 61-82-5 | Anisitrile |
1020 | 82-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
1021 | 492-80-8 | Acraniline |
1022 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
1023 | 50-07-7 | Azirine(2',3',5'-biphenyl)-1,2-dimethyl-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-(((aminocarbonyl)oxy)methyl)-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- |
1024 | 50-48-5 | Benz[1]tetrahydrofuran-1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
1025 | 225-51-4 | 3,4-Benzazotone |
1026 | 58-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
1027 | 23850-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-diethyl-2-propenyl)- |
1028 | 58-55-5 | Benz[a]anthracene |
1029 | 57-87-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
1030 | 82-53-3 | Benzenephene (I,T) |
1031 | 492-80-8 | Benzeneamine, 4,4-carboxymidoxibran-1,1,1,1,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- |
1032 | 5185-93-3 | Benzeneamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl- |
1033 | 80-11-7 | Benzeneamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenyleoyl)- |
1034 | 95-53-4 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl- |
1035 | 108-49-0 | Benzeneamine, 4-methyl- |
1036 | 101-14-4 | Benzeneamine, 4,4'-methylenebis(2-chloro- |
1037 | 636-21-6 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
1038 | 99-55-8 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
1039 | 71-43-2 | Benzene |
1040 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy, ethyl ester |
1041 | 101-95-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
1042 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanone, 4,4-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)- |
1043 | 108-80-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
1044 | 25376-45-6 | Benzene diamine, α-methyl- |
1045 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
1046 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
1047 | 84-68-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
1048 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
1049 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-n-octyl ester |
1050 | 98-93-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
1051 | 841-73-1 | Benzene, 1,5-dichloro- |
1052 | 108-48-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
1053 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1, 1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidenebis(4-chloro- |
1054 | 98-07-3 | Benzene, trichloromethyl)- |
1055 | 26471-82-5 | Benzene, 1,5-dibenzylnitromethyl- (R,T) |
1056 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T) |
1057 | 109-49-2 | 1,3-Benzanediol |
1058 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
1059 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
1060 | 108-89-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
1061 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
1062 | 608-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
1063 | 98-82-6 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
1064 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- (I,T) |
1065 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
1066 | 92-88-8 | Benzene, pentachloronato- |
1067 | 98-09-9 | Benzeneauflone, acid chloride (C,R) |
1068 | 98-09-9 | Benzeneauflone, acid chloride (C,R) |
1069 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
1070 | 90-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidenebis(4-chloro- |
1071 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidenebis(4-methoxy- |
1072 | 99-07-7 | Benzene, trichloromethyl)- (C,R,T) |
1073 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- (R,T) |
1074 | 93-87-6 | Benzoline |
1075 | 181-07-2 | 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3-(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide and salts |
1076 | 94-58-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(3-propenyl)- |
1077 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
1078 | 94-59-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
1079 | 189-55-9 | Benzol, 1,3-benzophenol |
1080 | 50-32-8 | Benzol, 1,3-benzophenol |
1081 | 108-51-4 | α-Benzosquinone |
1082 | 98-07-7 | Benzolinolinone (C,R,T) |
1083 | 1464-63-6 | 3,2'-dioxirane (I,T) |
1084 | 92-87-5 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine |
1085 | 91-84-1 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- |
1086 | 119-90-4 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- |
1087 | 119-93-7 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- |
1088 | 39638-32-9 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether |
1089 | 111-81-1 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ethene |
10810 | 117-81-7 | Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate |
Nazarioous Waste No | Substance |
---|---|
U150 | Methylsilan |
U151 | Mercury |
U152 | Methacrylonitrile (I,T) |
U092 | Methanamine, N-methyl- (I) |
U029 | Methane, bromo- |
U045 | Methane, chloro- (I,T) |
U046 | Methane, chloromethoxy |
U066 | Methane, dibromo- |
U080 | Methane, dichloro- |
U075 | Methane, dichloroothiuro- |
U138 | Methane, ecto- |
U119 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U211 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U121 | Methane, trichlorofluoro |
U153 | Methanethiol (I,T) |
U225 | Methane, triormo- |
U044 | Dichloro- |
U121 | (Deleted by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986) |
U123 | Methane, acid (C,T) |
U036 | 4,7-Methylcroton, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,9-octa- |
chloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro | |
U154 | Methanol (I) |
U155 | Methapyrnene |
U247 | Methoxychlor |
U154 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U029 | Methyl bromide |
U160 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U045 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U166 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U226 | Methylchloroform |
U157 | 3-Methylchloranthrene |
U158 | 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U132 | 2,2'-Methylenebis(3,4,6-trichlorophenol) |
U066 | Methylene bromide |
U080 | Methylene chloride |
U122 | Methylene oxide |
U159 | Methyl ethyl ketone (I,T) |
U180 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U158 | Methyl iodide |
U181 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U162 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U163 | N-Methyl-N-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine |
U181 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U164 | Methylthiouracil |
U010 | Miconycin C |
U059 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, (60-cis)-8-acetyl-10- |
(Cl-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyso- | |
fenobpyranoxy)oxy(1-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro- | |
6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy | |
U165 | Naphthalene |
U047 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U186 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U236 | 2,7-Naphthalenesulphonic acid, 3,3'-(3,3'-di- |
methyl-(1,1'-biphenyl)-4,4' (byl)3-bis | |
(octobis(5-amino-4-hydroxy)-,tetrasodium | |
U186 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
(U186 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, | |
1986) | |
U167 | 1-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 2-Naphthylamine |
U167 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U188 | 1-Naphthylamine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
(1-7,8,10,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,67,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,106,107,108,109,110,111 | |
U111 | 1-N-nitrosobis(2-chloroaniline) |
U111 | |
U111 | |
U111 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U172 | |
U173 | |
U174 | |
U111 | |
U176 | |
U177 | |
U177 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U177 | |
U178 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U181 | |
U182 | |
U184 | |
U184 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 |
Hazardous Waste No. | Substance |
---|---|
U239 | Benzene, dimethyl (I,T) |
U201 | 1,3-Benzimediol |
U127 | Benzene, hexachloro |
U034 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
U188 | Benzene, hydroxy |
U220 | Benzene, methyl |
U105 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro |
[U105 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U106 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro |
U203 | Benzene, 1,2-methyleneciloxy-4-eth |
U141 | Benzene, 1,2-methyeneneciloxy-4-propenyl |
U090 | Benzene, 1,2-methyeneneciloxy-4-propyl |
U055 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
U169 | Benzene, nitro (I,T) |
U183 | Benzene, pentachloro |
U185 | Benzene, pentachlorobnitro |
[U185 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U020 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U207 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro |
U023 | Benzene, (nichloromethyl)-(C,R,T) |
U234 | Benzene, 1,2,6-binitro (R,T) |
[U234 corrected and redesignated as U0234 by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U021 | Benzene |
U202 | 1,2-Benzisothiazilin-3-one, 1,1-dioxide, salts |
[U202 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U120 | Benzo[2,3]fluorene |
U022 | Benzo[2,3]pyrene |
U022 | 3,4-Benzopyrene |
U197 | p-Benzopyrene |
U023 | Benzothichloride (C,R,T) |
U050 | 1,2-Benzphenanthrene |
U085 | 2,2'-Benzene (I,T) |
U021 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine |
U072 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro |
U091 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy |
U095 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl |
U024 | Bis(2-chloroethoxy) methane |
U027 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether |
U244 | Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) disulfide |
U028 | Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate |
U246 | Bromine cyanide |
U225 | Bromotorn |
U030 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U128 | 1,2-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro |
U172 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso |
U035 | Butanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino] benzene |
[U035 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U031 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U159 | Butanone (I,T) |
U160 | 2-Butanone peroxide (R,T) |
U052 | 2-Butanol |
U074 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T) |
U031 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U138 | Cacidonic acid |
U032 | Calcium chromate |
U238 | Carbonic acid, ethyl ester |
U178 | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U178 | Carbonate, N-ethyl-N-nitroso |
U177 | Carbamole, N-methyl-N-nitroso |
U219 | Carbamide, thiol |
U087 | Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl |
U215 | Carbonic acid, dithadium(II) salt |
U158 | Carbonochloride acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U033 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U211 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U033 | Carbonyl fluoride (R,T) |
U034 | Chloral |
U035 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | Chlordane, technical |
U026 | Chromophazine |
U037 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 4-Chloro-N-cresol |
U041 | 1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane |
U042 | 2-Chlorophyll vinyl ether |
U044 | Chloroform |
U048 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U047 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U048 | α-Chlorophenol |
U049 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U035 | Chromic acid, calcium salt |
---|---|
U050 | Chrysene |
U051 | Cressone |
U052 | Cresols |
U053 | Cresoyl acid |
U055 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | Cumene (I) |
U246 | Cyanogen bromide |
U197 | 1,4-Cyclohexadienaldone |
U058 | Cytohexane (I) |
U057 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U130 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa- chloro |
U058 | Cyanohexanamide |
U240 | 2,4-D, salts and esters |
[U240 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U058 | Deunomycin |
U060 | DDD |
U061 | DDT |
U142 | Diacachloroxicamidro-1,3,4-metheno-2H-cyclobutan(c,d)-pentazin-2-one |
U062 | Diallate |
U133 | Diadiene (R,T) |
U221 | Diaminidoxime |
U063 | Dioenz[a,h]anthracene |
U063 | 1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene |
U064 | 1,2,7,8-Dibenzopyrene |
U064 | Dibenz[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U089 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U062 | 5-(2,3-Dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate |
U070 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 2,3-Dichlorobenzofen |
U074 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | Dichlorodibenzomethane |
U182 | 3,5-Dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propyryl) benzamide |
U060 | Dichloro diphenyl dichloroethane |
U061 | Dichloro diphenyl dichloroethane |
U076 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U025 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U081 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U240 | 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, salts and esters |
U083 | 1,2-Dichloropropane |
U084 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U085 | 1,2,3,4-Diepoxobutane (I,T) |
U108 | 1,4-Diethylene dioxide |
U086 | N,N-Diethylhydrazone |
U087 | O,O-Diethyl-3-methyl-dithiophosphate |
U088 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | Diethylstilbestrol |
U148 | 1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazimadione |
[U148 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U090 | Dihydrocarbo |
U091 | 2,2-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U093 | Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 7,12-Dimethyibenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 3,3-Dimethylbenzene |
U096 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydropteroxide (R) |
U097 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazone |
U099 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U101 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
U102 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U105 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 1,3-Diphenylhydrazone |
U110 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U111 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
[U111 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U001 | Ethanol (I) |
U174 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso |
U067 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo |
U076 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro |
U077 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro |
U114 | 1,2-Ethanediylbenzethamodithioic acid |
U131 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro |
U024 | Ethane, 1,1'-Unethytenebis(oxy)bis(2-chloro- |
U003 | Ethanenitrile (I, T) |
U117 | Ethane,1,1'-oxybis (I) |
U025 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2-chloro |
---|---|
U164 | Ethane, pentachloro |
U208 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U218 | Ethanethioamido |
U247 | Ethane, 1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1, |
(COMETARIO: Para la conveniencia de la comunidad reglamentada, las propiedades peligrosas primarias de estos materiales han sido indicadas por las letras T (Toxicidad), R (Reactividad), I (Inflamabilidad) y C (Corrosividad). La ausencia de una de estas letras indica que el compuesto est a anotado únicamente por toxicidad).
Estos desperdicios y sus correspondientes números de peligrosidad asignados por la APA son:
Hazardous Waste No | Substance |
---|---|
U005 | Acetamido, N-9H-fluoren-2-yi- |
U112 | Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U144 | Acetic acid, lead salt |
U214 | Acetic acid, thallium(II) salt |
U002 | Acetone (I) |
U003 | Acetonitrile (LT) |
U004 | Acetophenone |
U005 | 2-Acetylaminotluorene |
U006 | Acetyl chloride (C.R.T) |
U007 | Acrylamide |
U008 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U009 | Acrylonitrile |
U156 | Alanine, 3-(p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino) phenyl-, L- |
U248 | -(alpha-Acetoinyibenzim-4-hydroxy- guimarin and salts, when present at con- centrations of $0.3 %$ or less (U248 added by 49 FR 18923, May 10, 1984) |
U328 | 2-Amino-1-methylbenzene |
U353 | 4-Amino-1-methylbenzene |
[U328 and U353 added by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985]
$\begin{aligned} & ext { 4 } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { % } \ & ext { % } \end{aligned}$ | Chernica apes acis. No. | Supefance |
---|---|---|
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanatror. enstrale (R) |
P017 | 596-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargir alcohol |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propena |
P005 | 107-19-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Prophenirone |
P102 | 591-08-2 | 2-Propyl-1-ol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | Pyromannie |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pentadinyli-, and salta |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Pyrophosuliont, acid, tetraethyl ester |
P103 | 830-10-4 | Selenounia |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P105 | 26626-22-8 | Sodium azole |
P106 | 143-33-5 | Sodium cyanide |
P107 | 1314-96-1 | Strontium sulfite |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychindin-10-one, and salta |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychindin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychrene and salta |
P115 | 10031-59-1 | Sulfuric acid, thallium(I) salt |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetrachlorothiopyrophosphate |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl isad |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethylpyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetratereomentane (R) |
P052 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium(III) oxide |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Thallium(I) selenite |
P115 | 10031-59-1 | Thallium(I) sulfate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodentotarbonc acid, tedaethyl ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiotanot |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thiorediodicarbonic diamide |
P014 | 108-96-5 | Thioonanol |
P116 | 79-19-8 | Thiosemicarbazole |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, pheny- |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethacathor |
P119 | 7803-55-8 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium(V) oxide |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P001 | 91-81-2 | Warfarin |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide (R,T) |
⁰f. Los productos químicos comerciales, químicos intermedios de la manufactura o productos químicos comerciales que no cumplen con las especificaciones a que se refiere en los incisos
(a) al
(d) de esta regla 607 D, estin identificados como desperdicios tóxicos (T), a menos que estén designados de otra forma y estin sujetos a la exclusión de generador de pequeñas cantidades definido en la Regla 606 A (1) y (7).
⁰: - CAS Number given for parent compound only.
No. without waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
P085 | 152-16-9 | Dichosoboramide, octamethyl- |
P030 | 298-04-4 | Daufinium |
P040 | 541-53-7 | 2,4-Dithiocoumi |
P056 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endohex |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethylenedione |
P087 | 52-85-7 | Fenthin |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluorocarbamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluorocarb, acid, sodium salt |
P065 | 625-66-4 | Fathime, acid, mercatyl2 + jeali (R,T) |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexachlorobenzene |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Hydroximecarbothioamide |
P066 | 80-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P063 | 74-90-6 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-6 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P064 | 624-83-8 | Isocyanic acid, methyl ester |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isozinn |
P007 | 2783-96-4 | 3(2H)-isobenzene, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P092 | 82-38-4 | Mercury, isovaleto-Ciphenyl- |
P065 | 625-86-4 | Mercury fumarate (R,T) |
P062 | 62-75-8 | Methanone, N-methyl-N-heptaco |
P016 | 642-88-1 | Methane, oxybal, chloro- |
P112 | 609-14-6 | Methane, tetranitro (R) |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,5-benzodioxathiepen, 6,7,8,9,10,15-hexachloro- 1,2,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P059 | 76-44-6 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,9-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P067 | 76-55-8 | 2-Methoxylindine |
P068 | 80-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P064 | 624-83-8 | Methyl acetyatide |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methylsacionitide |
P071 | 295-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl, (T-4)- |
P075 | 134-11-5 | Neotene and seta |
P075 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P078 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P081 | 85-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P092 | 62-78-8 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4649-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P074 | 657-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P085 | 152-18-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Oenium oxide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Oenium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-5 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P089 | 86-38-2 | Parathion |
P034 | 131-88-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P047 | 1334-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and seta |
P020 | 86-60-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P029 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-binitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P094 | 298-00-2 | Phenol |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(2-ethylthio)ethyl ester |
P094 | 298-03-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(methylthio)ethyl ester |
P044 | 60-51-3 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S(2-(methylamino)-2-oxobthyl) ester |
P043 | 55-81-4 | Phosphorothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)- ester |
P099 | 58-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P040 | 297-87-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-(4-(dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl O,O-dimethyl ester |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbens, tetraethyl- |
P098 | 151-30-9 | Potassium cyanide |
P099 | 508-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P070 | 116-88-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methylamino)carbonyl)oxime |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propaneontine |
P027 | 642-76-7 | Propaneontine, 3-chloro- |
P089 | 75-86-5 | Propaneontine, 3-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
Hazarikian wazila No. | Substance | P106 | Sodium cyanide | P116 | Thioxemicarbozide |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
P107 | Silonium suhok | P026 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- | ||
P108 | Strychnidin-10-one, and salts | P072 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | ||
P018 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- | P053 | Thiourea, phenyl- | ||
Propane | P106 | Strychnine and salts | P123 | Toxaphene | |
P027 | Propane | P115 | Sulfuric acid, thallium(II) salt | P118 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P063 | Propane | P109 | Tetraethyl(8)thiopyrophosphate | P119 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P061 | 1,2,3-Propanediol, triethate- (R) | P110 | Tetraethyl lead | P120 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P017 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- | P111 | Tetraethylpyrophosphate | P121 | Vanadium(VI) oxide |
P102 | Propenyl alcohol | P112 | Tetranitromethane (R) | P001 | Warfarin, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P033 | 2-Propenil | P052 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester | [P001 amended by 49 FR 19923. | |
P005 | 2-Propen-1-ol | P113 | Thallic oxide | May 10, 1984] | |
P007 | 1,2-Propyrenimine | P113 | Thallium(II) oxide | P121 | Zinc cyanide |
P102 | 2-Propyri-1-ol | P114 | Thallium(II) oxide | ||
P006 | 4-Pyridoxamine | P114 | Thallium(II) selenide | P122 | |
P072 | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts | [P114 corrected by 51 FR 28297. August 6, 1988] | |||
P111 | Pyrophosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | P115 | Thallium(II) sulfate | P123 | |
P103 | Silienourea | P045 | Thiofuran | [P122 amended by 49 FR 19923. | |
P104 | Silver cyanide | P049 | Thioindodicarbonic diamide | May 10, 1984] | |
P105 | Sodium azide | P014 | Thiophenol |
[261.33(e) revised by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Hazarikian wazila No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | 591-06-2 | Acetamide, N-demnothioxymethyl- |
P057 | 645-16-7 | Acetamide, 2-fuoro- |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Azoonidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyloxy)thio-, methyl ester |
P002 | 591-06-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P004 | 208-00-2 | Aldrin |
P005 | 107-18-8 | Allyl alcohol |
P006 | 20855-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2765-90-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-epoxazole |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-alpha-Aminopyridine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium pectate (R) |
P119 | 7803-65-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P010 | 7779-39-4 | Arsenic acid |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2O3 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2O3 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl |
P036 | 696-26-6 | Aromous dichloride, phenyl- |
P054 | 151-50-4 | Acrolein |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P024 | 105-47-8 | Benzeneamine, 4-chloro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzeneamine, 4-nitro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P042 | 61-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-, (R)- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P001 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts |
P028 | 150-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium dust |
P018 | 542-68-1 | Bis(chloromethyl) ether |
P017 | 596-31-2 | Bromocarbose |
P018 | 257-57-3 | Brucine |
P021 | 592-01-6 | Calcium cyanide |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P085 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 108-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 480-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P034 | 131-69-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P036 | 690-26-6 | Dichlorophenylamine |
P037 | 80-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P038 | 892-12-2 | Diethylarsine |
P041 | 511-45-6 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | D,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P042 | 55-91-1 | Diisopropyl fluorophosphate (DEP) |
P004 | 309-05-2 | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5alpha,6alpha,7alpha,8alpha)- |
P000 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5alpha,6alpha,7alpha,8alpha)- |
P037 | 80-57-1 | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 2,4,5,6,8,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1alpha,2beta,2alpha,3beta,5beta,6alpha,7beta,7alpha)- |
P051 | 72-20-8 | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 2,3b,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,67,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,106,107,108,109,110,111,112,113,114,115,116,117,118,119,120,121,122,123,124,125,126,127,128,129,130,131,132,133,134,135,136,137,138,139,140,141,142,143,144,145,146,147,148,149,150,151,152,153,154,155,156,157,158,159,160,161,162,163,164,165,166,167,168,169,170,171,172,173,174,175,176,177,178,179,180,181,182,183,184,185,186,187,188,189,190,191,192,193,194,195,196,197,198,199,200,201,202,203,204,205,206,207,208,209,210,211,212,213,214,215,216,217,218,219,220,221,222,223,224,225,226,227,228,229,230,231,232,233,234,235,236,237,238,239,240,241,242,243,244,245,246,247,248,249,250,251,252,253,254,255,256,257,258,259,260,261,262,263,264,265,266,267,268,269,270,271,272,273,274,275,276,277,278,279,280,281,282,283,284,285,286,287,288,289,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,291,291,292,291,291,291,292,291,291,292,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291 |
(COMETANRIO: Para conveniencia de la comunidad reglamentada, las propiedades peligrosas primarias de estos materiales han sido indicadas por las letras (T) (Toxicidad) y (R) (Reactividad). La ausencia de una letra indica que el compuesto está anotado únicamente por toxicidad severa).
Estos desperdicios y sus correspondientes números de peligrosidad asignados por la APA son:
Hazardous elable No. | Substance |
---|---|
P023 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | Az |
(COMENTARIO: La frase producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga el nombre genérico anotado en..." se refiere a aquella substancia química que haya sido manufacturada o formulada para uso comercial o manufacterero que consiste en el grado comercial puro de dicho químico, cualesquiera grados técnicos de dicho químico que es producido o mercadeado, y toda formulación en la cual dicho químico sea el único ingrediente activo. La frase aludida no se refiere al material, como por ejemplo, el desperdicio de un proceso manufacturero, que contenga cualquiera de las substancias anotadas en los incisos
(e) o
(f) . Cuando el desperdicio de un proceso manufacturero se considere desperdicio peligroso porque contenga una substancia anotada en los incisos
(e) o
(f) , ese desperdicio será anotado en las Reglas 607 B o 607 C - será identificado como desperdicio peligroso por las caracteristicas establecidas en la Regla 604 de este reglamento). e. Los productos químicos comerciales, químicos intermedios de la manufactura o productos químicos comerciales que no cumplen con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas o químicos intermedios de la manufactura a que se refiere en los incisos
(a) hasta el
(d) de esta regla 607 D , son identificados como desperdicios severamente peligrosos (H) y están sujetos a ser la exclusi6n de pequeñas cantidades definida en la Regla 606 A (5);
c. Cualquier receptáculo o membrana interior removida de un receptáculo que ha sido utilizado para contener cualquier producto químico comerciál o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga su nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) de esta regla 607 D , o cualquier receptáculo o membrana interior removida de un receptáculo que haya sido utilizado para contener cualquier producto quimico que no cumpla con las especificaciones y químico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, tendrá su nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) de esta regla 607 D , a menos que el receptáculo este vacio segin la Regla 606 A (3). d. Cualquier residuo o contaminacion de suelo, agua u otros desechos que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o agua, de cualquier producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D , o cualquier residuo o contaminacion de suelo, agua u otros desechos que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o agua, de cualquier producto químico que no cumple con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas y químico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, puede tener el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D.
D. Productos Quimicos Comerciales Desechados, Productos que no Cumplen con las Especificaciones de Calidad Establecidas, Residuos de recipientes y Residuos de derrames.
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D. b. Cualquier producto quimico comercial que no cumpla con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas o quimico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, deberá tener el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste |
---|---|
Inorganic chemicals | |
K071 | Brine purification made from the mercury cell process in chlorine production where separately preplanted brine is not used. |
K073 | Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite smokes in chlorine production. |
K106 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production. |
Pesticides | |
K031 | By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid. |
K032 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane. |
K033 | Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. |
K034 | Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. |
K097 | Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane. |
K035 | Wastewater treatment sludge generated in the production of creosote. |
K036 | Soil bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton. |
K037 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of disulfoton. |
K038 | Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production. |
K039 | Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate. |
K040 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate. |
K041 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of tokyosene. |
K042 | Untreated process wastewater from the production of tokyosene. |
K043 | Wastewater and other residues from the distribution of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of tokyosene. |
K044 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-Dichlorophenol. |
K045 | Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-Dichlorophenol. |
Exfoliates | |
K046 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the manufacturing and processing of explosives. |
K047 | Soam carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives. |
K048 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of explosives. |
K049 | Pork rye waste from TNT operations. |
Permeant refining | |
K049 | Drainage and filtration of petroleum refining. |
K042 | Silt or amylator solids from the petroleum refining industry. |
K050 | Heat exchanger sludge cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry. |
K051 | API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry. |
K052 | Tank bottoms (loaded) from the petroleum refining industry. |
Iron and steel | |
K061 | Emission control dust sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces. |
K062 | Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of teplines within the iron or steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332). |
Secondary lead | |
K065 | Emission control dust sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
K100 | Waste leaching solution from lead leaching of emission control dust sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
Veterinary pharmaceuticals | |
K064 | Wastewater treatment sludge generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
K101 | Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
K102 | Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
Ink formulation K066 | Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, olives, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead. |
Coking | |
K060 | Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations. |
K067 | Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations. |
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 C es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.32.
45
C. Desperdicios Peligrosos de Fuentes Específicas
Los siguientes desperdicios sólidos están anotados como desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes específicas a menos que sean excluídos bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G y anotadas en el Anejo C-4:
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
---|---|---|
Wood preservation, K001 | Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use prebiotic and/or peritachlorobrimal | (T) |
Inorganic pigments | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments | (T) |
K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments | (T) |
K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments | (T) |
K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments | (T) |
K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (antiyorous and hydrated) | (T) |
K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments | (T) |
K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments | (T) |
Organic chemicals | Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K010 | Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K011 | Bottom stream from the wastewater stopper in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K013 | Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K014 | Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile | (T) |
K015 | Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride | (T) |
K016 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride | (T) |
K017 | Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin | (T) |
K018 | Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production | (T) |
K019 | Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production | (T) |
K020 | Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production | (T) |
K021 | Aqueduct spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production | (T) |
K022 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phenol/acetone from cumene | (T) |
K023 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K024 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K093 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K094 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K025 | Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the oxidation of benzene | (T) |
K026 | Shipping still tails from the production of methyl ethyl pyridine | (T) |
K027 | Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production | (R, T) |
K028 | Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K029 | Waste from the product steam stopper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K095 | Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K096 | Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K030 | Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene | (T) |
K083 | Distillation bottoms from aniline production | (T) |
K103 | Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline | (T) |
K104 | Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production | (T) |
K085 | Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K105 | Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
[K111 through K116 added by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985] | ||
K111 | Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene | (C, T) |
K112 | Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K113 | Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K114 | Viscosity from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K115 | Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K116 | Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine | (T) |
K117 | Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromine via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K118 | Upset adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K136 | Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
[K117, 118 and 136 added by 51 FR 5330, February 13, 1986] |
44
B. Desperdicios Peligrosos de Fuentes No-Específicas.
Los siguientes desperdicios sólidos están anotados como desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes no-específicas a menos que hayan sido excluidos bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G y anotadas en el Anejo C-4.
INQUIRY AND EPIF. | PALÍTICOS WASTE |
---|---|
HAZARDOUS WASTE INC |
Generic | |
---|---|
F001 | The following agent halogenated solvents used in degreasing tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methanol, chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethene, carbon tetrachloride and chlorinated hydrocarbons: at agent solvent mixtures/blends used in degreasing containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F004 and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F002 | The following agent halogenated solvents: tetrachloroethylene, methanol, chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, orthochlorobenzene, trichlorobenzene, and 1,1,2-trichloroethane: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those listed in F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F003 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: ethene, acetone, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl alcohol, ketone, butyl alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F004 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: oresols and oresyls; acid, and nitrobenzene: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F005 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutene, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethane, and 2-nitropropane: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F006 | Wastewater treatment sluoges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum, (2) air plating on carbon steel, (3) and plating (segregated bleas) on carbon steel, (4) aluminum or anti-aluminum plating on carbon steel, (5) cleaning/stripping associated with oil, and (6) aluminum plating on carbon steel, and (7) chemical etching and mixing of aluminum. |
F015 | Wastewater treatment sluoges from the chemical conversion method of aluminum. |
F001 | Soem Cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations. |
F002 | Plating sluoges from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F003 | Soem stopping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F011 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F011 | Soem cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat treating operations. |
F012 | Quenching wastewater treatment sluoges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F021 | Wastes, including, but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor cleaning wastes from the production of chlorinated aromatic hydrocarbons, having carbon content from one to five, utilizing free radical-detergent processes. (This listing does not include light ends, spent messes, wastewater, wastewater treatment sluoges, spent, cokelets, and wastes listed in §261.32). |
F022 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- or tetrachlorophenols, or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes from the production of Hexachlorophenol from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenols.) |
F023 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of pentachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives. |
F024 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions. |
F025 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include wastes from equipment used only for the production of use of Hexachlorophenol from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenols.) |
F026 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorophenol under alkaline conditions. |
F027 | Decorates unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or pentachlorophenol or decorated unused formulation containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not include formulations containing Hexachlorophenol synthesized from pre-purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.) |
F028 | Residuals resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027. |
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 B es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.31.
Desperdicio Inflamable ..... (I) Desperdicio Corrosivo ..... (C) Desperdicio Reactivo ..... (R) Desperdicio T6xico por el Procedimiento de Extracción (EP Toxic Waste) ..... (E) Desperdicio Severamente Peligroso ..... (H) Desperdicio T6xico ..... (T) E1 Anejo B-14 identifica los constituyentes causantes de que el desperdicio fuera anotado como un Desperdicio t6xico por el procedimiento de Extracción (EP Toxic Waste) (E) o un Desperdicio T6xico (T) en los incisos B y C de esta regla. 3. Cada desperdicio peligroso anotado en esta regla tiene asignado por la APA un número de peligrosidad que precede el nombre del desperdicio. Este numero debe ser usado al cumplir con los requisitos de notificación de la Sección 3010 de la LCRR (Anejo C-8) y con las disposiciones generales relacionadas con el mantenimiento de registros e informes bajo las las partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento. 4. Los siguientes desperdicios peligrosos anotados en los incisos B o C de esta regla estan sujetos a los limites de exclusi6n para los desperdicios severamente peligrosos establecidos en la Regla 606 A: Número de Peligrosidad asignado por la APA F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027.
Esta Regla 607 A es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.30.
(2) El receptáculo o su revestimiento interno ha sido limpiado por otro método que haya sido demostrado en la literatura cientifica, o por pruebas conducidas por el generador, o por otro método determinado por las junta para alcanzar la remoción equivalente; o (3) En el caso de un receptáculo, el revestimiento interno que evito el contacto del producto químico comercial o el producto químico intermedio de la manufactura con el receptáculo, ha sido removido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.7.
Se enmienda la Regla 607 para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 607 Listado de Desperdicios Peligrosos A. General
(3) (A) No más de 3 porciento por peso de la capacidad total del receptáculo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno si el receptáculo es menor o igual a 110 galones en tamano, o (B) No más de 0.3 porciento por peso de la capacidad total del receptáculo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno si el receptáculo es mayor de 110 galones en tamano. b. Un receptáculo que ha contenido algán desperdicio peligroso que es un gas comprimido se considerara vacio cuando la presión dentro del receptáculo se acerca a la presión atmosférica. c. Un receptáculo o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que ha contenido algádesperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas 607 B, 607. C 6607 D (5) esta vacio si: (1) El receptáculo o su revestimiento interno ha sido enjuagado tres (3) veces usando un solvente capaz de remover el producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura;
esta regla 606 C , no esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Partes V a la IX-I de este reglamento o a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). b. Cualquier desperdicio peligroso ya sea en un receptáculo que no esta vacio o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que no esta vacio, segun se define en el parrafo (2) de esta regla 606 C , esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Partes V a la IX-I de este reglamento y a los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). 2. a. Un receptáculo o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que ha contenido cualquier desperdicio peligroso, excepto un desperdicio que sea un gas comprimido o que ha sido identificado como un desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607$ C 6607 D (5) de este reglamento, esta vacio si: (1) Todo el desperdicio ha sido removido, aquel que puede ser removido utilizando las practicas comanmente empleadas para remover materiales de ese tipo de receptáculo, ejemplo, verter, bombear, aspirar, y (2) No mas de 2.5 centimetros (una (1) pulgada) del residuo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno, o
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.6.
Se enmienda la Regla 606 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 C Residuos de desperdicios peligrosos en recetáculos vacios.
despues del punto donde los contaminantes son removidos, siempre y cuando el combustible cumpla con las especificaciones de combustible de aceite usado bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de este reglamento; y (C) Aceite reclamado de los desperdicios peligrosos que contienen aceite mediante las practicas de refinación, producción y transportacion, donde el aceite reclamado es quemado como combustible sin su reincorporacion al proceso de refinacion, siempre y cuando el aceite reclamado cumpla con las especificaciones para combustible de aceite usado bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de este reglamento; y 9. Coque de petróleo producido por la refinacion de petroleo de desperdicios peligrosos conteniendo aceite en la misma facilidad donde tal desperdicio es generado, a menos que el producto resultante de coque excede una o más de las caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos bajo la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 2. Generadores y transportadores de materiales reciclables están sujetos a los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este reglamento y a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) excepto lo que se provee en el inciso (1) de esta regla 606 B.
(7) Coque y adquisicion de hulla producto de la industria de hierro y acero que contienen desperdicios peligrosos del proceso de produccion de hierro y acero; (8) (A) Combustible de desperdicio peligroso producido de desperdicio peligroso que contengan aceite mediante las practicas de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de aceite, o producido del aceite reclamado de tales desperdicios peligrosos, cuando tales desperdicios peligrosos son reincorporados a un proceso que no usa destilacion o que no produce productos de aceite crudo, mientras tanto el combustible resultante cumple las especificaciones para aceites usados bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de Este reglamento y siempre y cuando ningan otro desperdicio peligroso es utilizado para producir el combustible de desperdicio peligroso; (B) Combustible de desperdicio peligroso producido de desperdicios peligrosos que contengan aceite mediante la refinacion de petroleo y las practicas de transportacion donde esos desperdicios peligrosos son reincorporados al proceso de refinacion
c. Los siguientes materiales reciclables no están sujetos a la reglamentacion bajo las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento, y no estan sujetos a los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8): (1) Alcohol etilico industrial reclamado; (2) Baterias usadas (o celdas de bateria usadas) devueltas a un manufacturero de baterias para la regeneracion; (3) Aceite usado que presente una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso pero que es reciclado en otras formas en lugar de ser quemado para el recobro de energia; (4) Chatarras; (5) Combustible que se produce por la refinacion de desperdicios peligrosos que contengan aceite en una facilidad de refinacion de petr6leo si ese desperdicios resulta de practicas normales de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de petr6leo; (6) El aceite reclamado de desperdicios peligrosos resultantes de las practicas normales de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de petr6leo, donde el aceite serf refinado solo con flujo del proceso normal en una facilidad de refinacion de petr6leo.
b. Los siguientes materiales reciclables no están sujetos a los requisitos de esta regla 606 B pero si estan regulados bajo las Reglas 1103 a la 1107 de este reglamento y por todas las disposiciones aplicables de la parte IX-I de este reglamento. (1) Materiales reciclables utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion (Regla 1103); (2) Desperdicios peligrosos quemados para el recobro de energía en calderas y hornos industriales que no estfin reglamentados bajo las Reglas I-814 y II-815 de este reglamento (Regla 1104); (3) Aceite usado que tenga una o más caracterisiticas de desperdicios peligrosos y que es quemado para el recobro de enerGla en calderas y hornos industriales que no están reglamentados bajo las Reglas I-814 y II-815 de este reglamento (Regla 1105); (4) Materiales reciclables de los cuales se reclaman metales preciosos (Regla 1106); (5) Baterias agotadas con acido mezclado con plomo que han sido reclamadas (Regla 1107);
50(e) | |||
---|---|---|---|
50(f) | |||
50(g) | |||
50(h) | |||
50(i) | |||
50(j) | |||
50(k) | |||
50(l) | |||
50(m) | |||
50(n) | |||
50(o) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | |
1121 | Chemical | Substance | |
---|---|---|---|
arcich | |||
w.c. | |||
11182 | 23950-58-5 | Propanoids | |
U124 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (1,2) | |
U111 | 821-84-7 | 1-Propanamine N-nitroso-N-propyl | |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine N-propox (1) | |
U066 | 96-12-6 | Propane, 1,2-dioxomo-3-chloro- | |
U143 | 109-77-3 | Propenedi-ene | |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-non- (1,T) | |
U027 | 39636-32-9 | Propane, 2,2-pyrido[2-chloro- | |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propanol sufore | |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dioxomo-, phosphate (3,1) | |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (1,T) | |
U002 | 87-84-1 | 2-Propanone (1) | |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propanol, 1,3-dichloro- | |
U152 | 126-86-7 | 2-Propanenone, 2-methyl- (1,T) | |
U001 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide | |
U243 | 1688-71-7 | 1-Propanol, hexachloro- | |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenicite | |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (1) | |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (1) | |
U119 | 87-83-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | |
U162 | 80-86-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (1,T) | |
U233 | 83-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | |
U194 | 107-10-8 | N-Propylamine (1,T) | |
U083 | 79-87-6 | Propylene dichloride | |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- | |
U196 | 110-96-1 | Pyridine | |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | |
U237 | 86-75-1 | 2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 6-(3(6(2-chloroethyl)amino)- | |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4-(1H)-Pyrimidines, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- | |
U190 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrindine, 1-nitroso- | |
U200 | 50-56-5 | Reserome | |
U201 | 109-46-3 | Resorcinol | |
U202 | 81-07-2 | Saccharin and salts | |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Saffrole | |
U204 | 7783-00-6 | Selenious acid | |
U204 | 7783-00-6 | Selenium dioxide | |
U205 | 7446-34-6 | Selenium sulfate (R,T) | |
U015 | 115-02-8 | L-Serine, disassociate (ester) | |
U233 | 93-72-1 | Silver | |
U206 | 15553-66-4 | Streptozotocin | |
U133 | 77-79-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | |
U199 | 1313-80-3 | Sulfur phosphate (R) | |
U232 | 93-78-5 | 2,4,5-T | |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene | |
U212 | 58-30-2 | 2,2,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (1) | |
U214 | 15643-14-8 | Thallium(II) acetate | |
U215 | 8533-73-8 | Thallium(II) carbonate | |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium chloride | |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(II) nitrate | |
U218 | 82-56-5 | Thioacetamide | |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (1,T) | |
U244 | 137-26-6 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetramethyl- | |
U219 | 82-56-6 | Thiourea | |
U244 | 137-26-6 | Thiurom | |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene | |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine | |
U223 | 26471-82-5 | Toluene disocyanate (R,T) | |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine | |
U352 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine | |
U222 | 836-21-0 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride | |
U011 | 81-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | |
U226 | 71-50-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane | |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane | |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene | |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane | |
U230 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | |
U251 | 86-08-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | |
U234 | 89-39-4 | sym-Trichlorobenzene (R,T) | |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Triozene, 2,4,6-dimethyl- | |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris (2,3-dioxomopropyl) phosphate | |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypsin base | |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard | |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | |
U177 | 684-93-6 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride | |
U248 | 81-81-2 | Warfarin, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less | |
U238 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (1) | |
U200 | 60-56-5 | Yohimbine 16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy], methyl ester | |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphate, when present at concentrations of 10% or less |
1 CAS Number given for parent compound only.
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 D es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.33.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
-111- 40 CFR 262
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES V Y VII
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla 702 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 702 B. Determinación de Desperdicio Peligroso
NOTA: Aán cuando el desperdicio este anotado, el generador todavia tiene la oportunidad, bajo la Regla 208 G , de demostrarle a la Junta que el desperdicio de su facilidad en particular u operacion, no es un desperdicio peligroso. c. Si el desperdicio no aparece anotado como desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 607, se debe determinar si el desperdicio ha sido identificado en la Regla 604 ya sea: (1) Analizando el desperdicio de acuerdo con los métodos establecidos en la Regla 604, o de acuerdo con algán método equivalente aprobado por la Junta bajo la Regla 208 H ; o
(2) Aplicando el conocimiento que se tenga sobre la caracteristica de peligrosidad del desperdicio a la luz de los materiales o los procesos utilizados.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.11 .
Se enmienda la Regla 702 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 702 C. Números de Identificaci6n
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.12 .
Se enmienda la Regla 703 para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 703 G:
Regla 703 G. Los requisitos de esta regla no aplican a los desperdicios peligrosos producidos por generadores de más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ en un mes calendario donde:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.20
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla 704 D para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 704 D Tiempo de Almacenamiento
facilidad por un periodo de noventa (90) dias o menos, sin permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que: a. El desperdicio se coloque en receptáculos y el generador cumple con la Regla I-812, o que el desperdicio se coloque en tanques y el generador cumple con la Regla I-813 excepto la Regla I-813 C; b. La fecha en que comienza cada periodo de acumulacion esta claramente marcada y visible para inspeccion en cada receptáculo; c. Mientras sea acumulado en su facilidad, cada receptáculo y tanque esta rotulado o marcado claramente con la palabra, "Desperdicio Peligroso" ("Hazardous Waste"); y d. El generador cumple con los requisitos para dueños u operadores en las Reglas I-803, I-810 y 207 y con la Regla I-808 C. 2. El generador que acumula desperdicios peligrosos por más de noventa (90) dias es un operador de una facilidad de almacenamiento y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II y a los requisitos de permiso de la Parte IX-I, a menos que se le haya otorgado una extension al periodo de noventa (90) dias. Esa extension puede ser otorgada por la Junta si los desperdicios peligrosos van a permanecer en su facilidad por más de noventa (90) dias debido a
circunstancias imprevistas, temporeras e incontrolables. Una extension de hasta treinta (30) dias puede ser otorgada a discreción de la Junta en una determinación caso-a-caso. 3. a. Un generador puede acumular tanto como 55 galones de desperdicio peligroso o un cuarto de galon de desperdicio peligroso severo anotado en las Reglas 607 D (5) en receptáculo en o cerca de cualquier punto de generacion donde los desperdicios inicialmente se acumulan, el cual esta bajo el control del operador del proceso que genera el desperdicio, sin un permiso o status interino y sin cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta regla 704 D siempre y cuando:
(i) Cumpla con las Reglas I-812 B, I-812 C y I-812 D (2) de este reglamento; y (ii) Rotule sus receptáculos ya sea con las palabras "Desperdicio Peligroso" ("Hazardous Waste") o con otras palabras que identifiquen el contenido de los receptáculos. b. Un generador que acumula ya sea desperdicio peligroso o desperdicio peligroso severo anotado en la Regla 607 D (5) en exceso de las cantidades anotadas en el párrafo (3)
(a) de esta Regla 704 D, en o cerca de cualquier punto de generacion debe, con respecto a la cantidad de desperdicio en exceso, cumplir dentro de tres (3) dias con el párrafo (1) de esta Regla 704 D o con otras disposiciones aplicables de este reglamento. Durante
el periodo de tres (3) dias el generador continuara cumpliendo con los parrafos (3)
(a) (i) y (ii) de esta Regla 704 D. El generador debe rotular el receptáculo que contiene la acumulación del exceso de desperdicio peligroso, con la fecha que la cantidad en exceso comenzo a ser acumulada. 4. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario puede acumular desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por 180 dias o menos sin tener un permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que: a. La cantidad de desperdicio acumulado en su facilidad nunca excede $6,000 \mathrm{~kg}$; b. El generador cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo (1)
(a) excepto la Regla I-812 B (5); c. El generador cumpla con los requisitos de los párrafos (1)
(b) y (1)
(c) de esta Regla 704 D y con los requisitos de la Regla I-810. d. El generador cumpla con los siguientes requisitos:
(i) En todo momento debe haber por lo menos un empleado ya sea en las premisas o en comunicacion (por ejemplo, debe estar disponible para responder a una emergencia llegando a la facilidad en un
periodo corto de tiempo) con la responsabilidad de coordinar todas las medidas de respuesta a emergencias especificadas en el părrafo (4)
(c) (iv) de esta Regla 704 D. Este empleado es el coordinador de emergencia. (ii) El generador debe colocar la siguiente información cerca del telefono: (A) El nombre y el número telefónico del coordinador de emergencias; (B) Localización de los extinguidores de fuegos y el material de control de derrames $y$, si esta presente, la alarma contra fuegos; y
(c) El número telefónico del Departamento de Bomberos, a menos que la facilidad tenga una alarma directa. (iii) El generador debe asegurarse de que todos los empleados estan completamente familiarizados con los procedimientos de emergencia y para el manejo de desperdicios, relevantes a sus responsabilidades durante las operaciones y emergencias. (iv) El coordinador de emergencias o su representante debe responder a cualquier emergencia que surja. Las respuestas aplicables son las siguientes:
(A) En caso de fuego, llamar al Departamento de Bomberos o tratar de extinguir el mismo utilizando un extinguidor de fuego; (B) En caso de derrame, contener el flujo de desperdicios peligrosos lo más posible, y tan pronto como sea práctico, limpiar el desperdicio peligroso y cualquier material o suelo contaminado; (C) En caso de fuego, explosión u otro escape que pueda amenazar la salud humana fuera de la facilidad o cuando el generador tenga conocimiento que un derrame ha llegado al agua superficial, el generador debe inmediatamente notificar al Centro de Respuesta Nacional (utilizando el siguiente número de tel6fono de 24 -horas sin cargo: 800/424-8802). El informe debe incluir la siguiente informacion: (1) El nombre, direccion y número de identificacion del generador; (2) Fecha, hora y tipo de incidente (por ejemplo, derrame o fuego); (3) Cantidad y tipo de desperdicio peligroso envuelto en el incidente;
(4) Magnitud de los daños, si alguno; y (5) Cantidad estimada y disposicion del material recobrado, si alguno. 5. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero, menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicio peligroso en un mes calendario y que debe transportar su desperdicio, u ofrecer su desperdicio para la transportacion, sobre una distancia de 200 millas o más para su tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion fuera de su facilidad puede acumular desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por un periodo de 270 dias o menos sin permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo (4) de esta Regla 704 D. 6. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicio peligroso en un mes calendario y que acumula desperdicio peligroso en cantidades que exceden los $6,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ o que acumula desperdicio peligroso por más de 180 dias (o por más de 270 dias si va a transportar su desperdicio, o va a ofrecer su desperdicio para la transportacion sobre una distancia de 200 millas o más) es un operador de una facilidad de almacenmiento y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II y a los requisitos de permiso de la Parte IX-I a menos que se le haya otorgado una extension al periodo del 180 dias (o de 270 dias si es aplicable). Dicha extension debe ser otorgada por la Junta si los desperdicios peligrosos permanecen en su
facilidad por más de 180 dias (o 270 dias si es aplicable) por circunstancias imprevistas, temporeras e incontrolables. Una extension de hasta 30 dias puede ser otorgada a discresion de la Junta en una determinación caso-a-caso.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.34.
Se enmienda la Regla 504 A (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 A 1. El generador debe mantener una copia de cada manifiesto firmado de acuerdo con la Regla 703 E por un periodo de tres (3) años o hasta que reciba una copia firmada por la facilidad designada que recibio el desperdicio. Esta copia firmada debe ser retenida como registro por lo menos durante tres años a partir de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.40
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 504 A (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 A 2: El generador debe mantener una copia de cada Informe Bienal y del Informe de Excepcion por un periodo de por los menos tres años a partir de la fecha que el informe ha vencido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.40
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 502 A (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 502 A 1. El generador mantendrá todos los resultados de las pruebas, los anâlisis de desperdicio u otras determinaciones hechas de acuerdo con la Regla 702 B al menos por tres años a partir de la fecha que el desperdicio fue enviado dentro o fuera de la facilidad para el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.40
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 505 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 505 C Los periodos de retención mencionados bajo esta Parte serán extendidos automáticamente durante el curso de cualquier litigio que no haya sido resuelto en relación con la actividad regulada o según sea requerido por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.40
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 503 A Informe Bienal
generador llevadas a cabo durante el año calendario anterior, y además se incluirá la siguiente informacion: a. El número de identificacion asignado por la APA, nombre y direccion del generador; b. El año calendario cubierto por el informe; c. El número de idenficacion asignado por la APA, nombre y direccion de cada facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion fuera de su facilidad a la cual el desperdicio fue enviado durante ese año; para cada embarque exportado, el informe debe incluir el nombre y direccion de la facilidad extranjera. d. El nombre y número de identificacion asignado por la APA de cada transportador utilizado durante el año correspondiente al informe. e. Una descripcion, el número asignado por la Junta de cada desperdicio peligroso (según las Reglas 604 y 607), la clase de peligrosidad asignada por el Departamento de Transportacion Federal (DOT) y la cantidad de cada desperdicio peligroso llevado fuera de su facilidad. Esta informacion debe ser anotada por el número de identificacion asignado por la APA de cada facilidad a la cual el desperdicio fue enviado fuera de su facilidad.
f. Una descripcion de los esfuerzos realizados durante ese año para reducir el volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio generado. g. Una descripcion de los cambios en volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio, que realmente se han logrado durante el año, en comparación con años anteriores en la medida en que esa infomación este disponible para años anteriores a 1984 . h. La certificacion firmada por el generador o su representante autorizado. 2. Cualquier generador que trata, almacena o dispone desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad debe someter un informe bienal cubriendo esos desperdicios de acuerdo con las disposiciones establecidas en las Partes VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.41.
Se enmienda la Regla 705 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 705 A Embarques Internacionales
c. Cumplir con los requisitos establecidos en la Regla 703 para el manifiesto, excepto que: (1) En lugar del nombre, direccion y numero de identificacion de la facilidad designada se utilizara el nombre y direccion del consignatario extranjero; (2) El generador identificara el punto de partida de Puerto Rico a traves del cual el desperdicio deberá viajar antes de entrar al pais extranjero. d. Siempre se utilizara la forma de Manifiesto provista por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental. 3. El generador debe hacer un Informe de Excepcion si: a. Dentro de los 45 dias despues de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial, el generador no ha recibido una copia del manifiesto firmado por el transportador señalando la fecha y el lugar de partida de Puerto Rico; o b. Dentro de los 90 dias despues de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial, el generador no ha recibido una confirmacion escrita del consignatario extranjero indicando que el desperdicio peligroso ha sido recibido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.50.
-IV-
40 CFR 263
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES V Y VII
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla II-805 D (2) para añadir un inciso
(i) que leera:
(i) Una certificación por el solicitante, al menos anualmente, especificando que posee un programa vigente para reducir el volumen y toxicidad de los desperdicios peligrosos que genera, el cual éste considera económicamente practico. El propuesto método de tratamiento, almacenamiento, y disposición será uno práctico, generalmente disponible para el solicitante y el cual reducirs al mínimo la amenaza presente y futura a la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.73
(b) (9).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 A (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-806 A Aplicabilidad. (1)
(a) Excepto según se dispone en el párrafo (2) de esta Regla, estas disposiciones aplican a dueños y operadores de facilidades que tratan, almacenan o disponen de desperdicios peligrosos. El dueño u operador deberá satisfacer los requisitos identificados en el párrafo (1)
(b) de esta Regla para todo desperdicio (o constituyente del mismo) contenido en cualquier unidad de manejo de desperdicio solido en la facilidad, independientemente de la fecha en la cual los desperdicios fueron colocados en dichas unidades.
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 H para añadirle un inciso (3) que lee como sigue: (3) Formaciones en cipulas de sal o yacimientos de sal, minas subterráneas y cuevas. Estf prohibido colocar cualquier desperdicio liquido peligroso a granel, no envasado, en cualquier formacion de cipulas o yacimientos de sal, minas subterráneas o cuevas.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.18
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-805 A para que en lo sucesivo lea de la siguiente manera:
Sistema de Manifiesto, Mantenimiento de Registro y de Informes
Regla II-805 A Aplicabilidad.
La reglamentacion contenida en esta Regla aplica a dueños y operadores de facilidades que disponen en y fuera de su facilidad, excepto cuando se disponga lo contrario en la Regla II-801. Las Reglas II-805 B, II-805 C y II-805 G no aplican a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen desperdicios en su facilidad y no reciben desperdicios peligrosos de lugares fuera de la misma. La Regla II-805 D (2) aplica únicamente a solicitantes que tratan, almacenan o disponen en su facilidad de desperdicios peligrosos originados en la misma.
Esta Regla corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.70.
El duefio u operador debe conducir estas inspecciones tan frecuentemente como sea necesario para poder identificar problemas a tiempo y corregirlos antes de que puedan causar daño a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.15
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 E en su inciso 2
(d) , G1tima oración que leera:
2
(d) Por lo menos, el itinerario de inspección debe incluir los términos y las frecuencias que son requeridas en las Reglas II-809 E, II-810 D, II-811 D, II-812 D, II-812 E, II-814 D y II-815 G, cuando sean aplicables.
Esta oración corresponde a la G1tima oración del 40 CFR Sección 264.15
(b) (4).
La Regla II-802 F (2) sera enmendada y leera como sigue: (2) El personal de la facilidad debe aprobar el programa requerido en el párrafo (1) de esta Regla dentro de uno de los siguientes plazos: dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion; dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de empleo, nombramiento en otra facilidad o que se le asigne a una nueva posición en una facilidad, el plazo que resultase mayor. Aquella persona empleada despue̊ de la vigencia de esta reglamentacion no puede trabajar en posiciones no supervisadas hasta tanto no haya aprobado el programa de entrenamiento requerido por el párrafo (1) de esta Regla.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.16
(b) .
La Regla II-801 F
(b) sera enmendada y sustituida por el siguiente texto:
(b) El dueño u operador de una facilidad que maneja materiales recirculados mencionados en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) y
(c) de este reglamento (con excepción de los requisitos de esta Parte que se refieren a la Regla 1103, 1104, 1106, 1107 de la Parte XI de este reglamento).
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.1
(g) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 D (1)
(b) para que en lo sucesivo lea:
(b) El desorden o alteración del desperdicio o equipo, por la entrada no autorizada o inadvertida de personas o ganado dentro de la parte activa de la facilidad, no violará los requisitos de esta parte.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.14
(a) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 E en su inciso (1) que en lo sucesivo leerá: (1) El dueño u operador debe inspeccionar su facilidad para detectar desperfectos en el funcionamiento, deterioro, errores de los operadores y descargas que pudiesen estar causando, o que puedan conducir a que ocurra uno de los siguientes:
(a) El escape de constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos hacia el medio ambiente o
(b) Una amenaza a la salud humana.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
$$ -V- $40 CFR 264
LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES VIII - II
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3
Se enmienda la Regla 707 E para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 E Un transportador deberá limpiar cualquier descarga de desperdicio peligroso que ocurra durante la transportacion o deberá tomar aquella accion que sea requerida o aprobada por la Junta para que la descarga de desperdicio peligroso no presente más un peligro a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.31.
Se enmienda la Regla 707 B (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 B 2. En el caso de una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos durante la transportacion, el transportador debe tomar la accion inmediata apropiada para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente (Ejemplo: notificar las autoridades locales, represar el área de la descarga o utilizar equipo de combatir incendios).
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.30
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 707 B (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 B 1. Un transportador por aire, carretera o agua que tenga una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos debe: a. Inmediatamente comunicarse por telefono con la oficina de la Policia Local, la Defensa Civil, la Junta de Calidad Ambiental y el Centro Nacional de Reaccion (utilizando su numero de telefono de 24 horas libres de cargo - 800-424-8802 6 202-426-2675) y proveerá la siguiente informacion:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.30
(c) . Los incisos
(a) hasta el
(i) de esta Regla 707 B (1) serán los incisos
(i) hasta el (ix).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 D (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 D 3. Si el desperdicio peligroso no puede ser entregado de acuerdo al párrafo (2) de esta Regla 706 D, el transportador deberá comunicarse con el generador para recibir nuevas instrucciones y deberá revisar el manifiesto de acuerdo con las instrucciones del generador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.21
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 504 C (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 C 2. Para embarques enviados a la facilidad designada por agua (embarque a granel), cada transportador por agua (embarque a granel) deberá retener una copia del documento de embarque conteniendo toda la información requerida en la Regla 706 E (2) por un periodo de tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que el desperdicio peligroso fue aceptado por el transportador inicial.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.22
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 505 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 505 C Los periodos de retención a que se refiere en esta parte serán extendidos automáticamente durante el curso de cualquier acción de litigio que no haya sido resuelta relacionada con la actividad reglamentada o según sea requerido por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.22
(e) .
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.20
(h) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 D (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 D 2. El transportador deberá entregarle la cantidad completa de desperdicios peligrosos que ha aceptado del generador o transportador a: a. La facilidad designada anotada en el manifiesto; o b. La facilidad alterna designada, si el desperdicio peligroso no puede ser entregado a la facilidad designada porque una emergencia impida la entrega; o c. El proximo transportador designado; o d. El lugar fuera de Puerto Rico designado por el generador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.21
(a) .
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFK Sección 263.20
(g) (1), (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 706 G:
Regla 706 G Un transportador que transporte desperdicios peligrosos de un generador que genera mas de 100 kg . pero menos de 1000 kg . de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario no necesita cumplir con los requisitos de esta regla o de la Regla 504 C , siempre y cuando:
Se enmienda la Regla 706 C (1)
(b) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 C 1. b. El transportador que almacene embarques de desperdicios peligrosos con manifiesto, en receptáculos que cumplan con los requisitos de la Regla 704 A , en una facilidad de transferencia por un periodo de 10 dias o menos no estâ sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las partes VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento relacionadas con el almacenamiento de esos desperdicios.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.12.
Se enmienda la Regla 706 E (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 E 5. Una copia del documento de embarque o del manifiesto es retenida por cada transportador por agua de acuerdo con la Regla 504 C.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.20
(e) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 F (1), (2) y (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 F 1. Indicar en el manifiesto la fecha en que el desperdicio peligroso salió de Puerto Rico; y 2. Firmar el manifiesto y retener una copia de acuerdo con la Regla 504 C; y
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 3. Un transportador de desperdicios peligrosos tambien debe cumplir con las Partes V y VII, Normas Aplicables a Generadores de Desperdicios Peligrosos, si: a. Transporta desperdicios peligrosos hacia Puerto Rico desde el extranjero; o b. Mezcla desperdicios peligrosos de diferentes descripciones de embarque, segin el Departamento de Transportación Federal, colocandolos en un solo receptáculo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 5. a. Un transportador no puede transportar desperdicios peligrosos sin haber recibido un numero de identificacion de la APA. b. Un transportador que no haya recibido un numero de identificacion de la APA puede obtenerlo solicitandolo a la APA mediante la Forma Federal 8700-12. Luego de recibir la solicitud, la APA le asignara un numero de identificacion al transportador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.11.
reglamentación del "DOT" es aplicable completamente a sus actividades y son exigidas y ejecutadas por "DOT". Esta regulacion esta codificada en el Titulo 49, Código de Reglamentos Federales, Subcapitulo C. La JCA y "DOT" trabajan juntos para desarrollar normas para los transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos para evitar requisitos conflictivos. Excepto para los transportadores de embarques a granel de desperdicios peligrosos por agua, un transportador que cumpla con todos los requisitos aplicables del 49 CFR Partes 171 hasta la 179 y los requisitos de las Reglas 706 A y 707 E estara en cumplimiento con esta parte. Independientemente de la accion de "DOT", la JCA mantiene su autoridad para ejecutar esta reglamentacion.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(a) (Nota).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 2. Estos requisitos no aplican a la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por generadores o por dueños u operadores de facilidades de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos con permiso.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A Nota: Los requisitos establecidos en las Partes V y VII establecen las responsabilidades de los generadores y transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos en el manejo y transportacion de ese desperdicio. En este reglamento, la Junta de Calidad Ambiental ha adoptado la reglamentacion del Departamento de Transportacion Federal "DOT" que regula la transportacion de materiales peligrosos. Esta reglamentacion regula, entre otras cosas, rotulos, marcas, utilizacion de envases apropiados y el informar descargas. La Junta de Calidad Ambiental ha adoptado esta reglamentacion para cumplir su obligacion de promulgar reglamentacion que proteja la salud humana y el ambiente en la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos. La adopcion por la Junta de esta reglamentacion del "DOT" asegura la consistencia con los requisitos de esa agencia y evita la duplicidad y posibles conflictos con respecto a esta materia. Esta reglamentacion aplica tanto a la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos interestatal como a la transportacion en la isla. "DOT" ha revisado su reglamentacion sobre la transportacion de materiales peligrosos para cubrir la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos y para reglamentar la transportacion intra e interestatal de desperdicios peligrosos. Los transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos estan advertidos de que la
(b) Todas las unidades de manejo de desperdicios solidos deberán cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-806 L. Los embalses superficiales, montículos para desperdicios, unidades de tratamiento en el terreno o relleno de desperdicios peligrosos que hayan recibido desperdicios peligrosos después de julio 26 del 1982 (en 10 sucesivo "unidad reglamentada") deberán satisfacer los requisitos de la Regla II-806 B (1) - Regla II-806 K, en vez de la Regla II-806 L para propósitos de detectar, caracterizar y responder a las descargas al acuifero superior. Los requisitos de responsabilidad financiera de la Regla II-806 L aplican a las unidades reglamentadas.
Esta Regla II 806-A (1) corresponde al 40 CFR Sección 264.90
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 A (2) incisos
(a) y
(b) para que lea como sigue: (2) La
(s) unidad o unidades reglamentadas del dueño u operador no están sujetas a reglamentacion por las descargas al acuifero superior bajo esta Regla si:
(a) El dueño u operador queda exento segfin la Regla II-801; u
(b) Opera una unidad donde la Junta encuentra:
(i) Que se trata de una estructura de ingenieria, (ii) Que no recibe o contiene desperdicios liquidos - desperdicios conteniendo liquidos libres,
(iii) Está disenada y funciona para excluir liquidos, precipitacion y otras escorrentias a la facilidad y de la facilidad, (iv) Posee ambas capas de contencion, interna y externa, encerrando el desperdicio,
(v) Posee un sistema de deteccion de escapes construido en cada una de las capas de contencion, (vi) El duento u operador proveera funcionamiento continuo y mantenimiento a estos sistemas de deteccion de escapes durante la vida activa de la unidad y durante los periodos de cierre y de cuidado de cierre posterior, y (vii) A un margen adecuado de certeza, no permitirá constituyentes peligrosos migrar más allá de la capa exterior de contencion antes de que termine el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior.
Esta Regla II 806-A (2)
(a) y
(b) es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 264.90
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 (A) (2) para añadirle un inciso
(e) que lee como sigue:
(e) El disefia y opera un montículo cumpliendo con la Regla II-812 A (3).
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.90
(b) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 J en su inciso (5) que en lo sucesivo leera: (5) Por lo menos anualmente, el duefio u operador determinara el flujo del agua subterranea y la direccion en la cual fluye dentro del acutfero superior.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.99
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 para añadirle un inciso L que lee como sigue:
Regla II-806 L Accion Correctiva para las Unidades de Manejo de Desperdicios S6lidos. (1) El duefio u operador de una facilidad solicitando un permiso para el tratamiento, almacenaje y disposición de desperdicios peligrosos deberá establecer aquella acción correctiva necesaria para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente de toda descarga de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes provenientes de cualquier unidad de manejo de desperdicio s6lido en la facilidad, independientemente del tiempo en que el desperdicio fue colocado en dicha unidad. (2) El permiso debera especificar la acción correctiva. El permiso debera incluir además un plan de cumplimiento para dicha acción correctiva (cuando tal acción correctiva no pueda ser completada antes de expedir el permiso) y asegurar la responsabilidad financiera de completar la acción correctiva.
Este nuevo inciso corresponde con el 40 CFR Seccion 264.101.
Se enmienda la Regla II-809 F para substituir su inciso (3) y añadir un nuevo inciso (4). Estos leerán como sigue: (3) Areas de almacenamiento de receptículos que solamente contienen desperdicios sin liquidos libres no necesitan un sistema de contención según definido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla, excepto como se provee en el párrafo (4) de esta regla o que se provea que:
(a) El área de almacenamiento tenga un declive o esté diseñada y operada de manera que drene y remueva el liquido que resulte de la precipitación, o
(b) Los receptáculos estén elevados o de otra manera protegidos del contacto con liquidos acumulados. (4) Areas de almacenamiento de receptáculos que contienen desperdicios descritos o listados abajo y que no contienen liquidos libres necesitaran un sistema de contención según definido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla:
(a) F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 Y F027.
(b) (Reservado)
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Sección 264.175
(c) y
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-810 D (3) para añadir un segundo párrafo que lee como sigue: (3)
En el caso de desperdicios peligrosos clasificados con los siguientes números de la APA, F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027, el plan de contingencia debe tambien
Incluir los procedimientos para responder a derrames o filtraciones de estos desperdicios de los tanques al sistema de contención. Como parte de este procedimiento se debe incluir medidas para la remoción inmediata del desperdicio del sistema y reemplazo o reparación del tanque que esté filtrando.
El párrafo añadido equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.194
(c) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-810 para añadirle un nuevo inciso H que lee como sigue:
Regla II-810 H Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Además de los requisitos de la Regla II-810, los siguientes requisitos aplican a los tanques para el tratamiento o almacenamiento de desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027.
(a) Los tanques deberán tener unos sistemas diseñados y operados para detectar y contener adecuadamente derrames o filtraciones. El diseño y funcionamiento de cualquier sistema de contención deberá tomar en consideración todos los factores relevantes incluyendo: (1) Capacidad del tanque; (ii) El volumen y características de los desperdicios almacenados y tratados en el tanque;
(iii) Metodo de recoleccion de derrames o filtraciones; (iv) Diseño y materiales de que est£ hecho el tanque y el sistema de contencion; y
(v) La necesidad de prevenir precipitacion y escorrentias de entrar en el sistema.
(b) Como parte del plan de contingencia requerido por la Regla II-804, el dueño u operador deberá especificar los procedimientos para responder a los derrames o filtraciones del tanque al sistema de contencion, necesarios para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. Estos procedimientos deberán incluir medidas para la remoción inmediata de los desperdicios del sistema, y reemplazos o reparacion del tanque que est6 filtrando.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.200
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda el párrafo introductorio de la Regla II-811 B (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-811 B Requisitos de Diseño y Operacion (1) Cualquier embalse superficial que no est£ cubierto bajo las disposiciones de la Regla II-811 B (3) o la Regla I-817 B, necesitaré un revestimiento para todas las porciones del embalse (excepto para las porciones ya existentes de dicho embalse). El revestimiento deberá ser disefiado, construido e instalado para evitar la migracion de algán desperdicio fuera del embalse hacia el subsuelo adyacente, o hacia el agua subterránea o superficial, en
cualquier momento durante la vida activa del embalse (incluyendo el periodo de cierre). El revestimiento, estarå construido de materiales que permitan que los desperdicios migren hacia dentro del mismo (pero no hacia el subsuelo adyacente al embalse, ni hacia el agua subterranea o superficial) durante la vida activa de la facilidad, siempre y cuando que el embalse vaya a ser cerrado de conformidad con la Regla II-811 F (1)
(a) . En cuanto a embalses que seran cerrados de acuerdo con la Regla II-811 F (1)
(b) , el revestimiento sera construido de materiales que eviten que los desperdicios migren hacia dentro del mismo durante la vida activa de la facilidad. El revestimiento sera:
Este nuevo pårrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 264.221
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (3) para que lea como sigue: (3) El dueño u operador de cada embalse superficial nuevo, de cada unidad de embalse superficial nueva en una facilidad existente, de cada reemplazo de una unidad de embalse superficial existente y de cada una de las expansiones laterales de alguna unidad de embalse superficial existente, deberá instalar dos o más revestimientos y un sistema de recolección de lixiviacion entre dichos revestimientos. Los revestimientos y el sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion deberán proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. Este requisito aplicara a todo desperdicio recibido despues de otorgado el permiso. El requisito para la instalacion de dos o mas revestimientos sera satisfecho por la instalacion de un revestimiento superior diseñado, operado y construido de materiales que eviten la migracion de cualquier constituyente hacia dentro de tal revestimiento durante el periodo en que dicha facilidad se mantenga en operacion (incluyendo.
cualquier periodo de monitoria de cierre posterior) y un revestimiento inferior diseñado, operado y construido para evitar la migracion de cualquier constituyente hacia dicho revestimiento durante tal periodo. Para propósitos de esta Regla, el revestimiento inferior tendrá que estar construido de una capa de arcilla recompactada de un espesor de por lo menos 3 pies u otro material natural con una permeabilidad de no más de $1 imes 10^{-7}$ centimetros por segundo.
Este nuevo inciso (3) equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (4) para que lea como sigue: (4) El părrafo (3) de esta Regla no aplicara si el dueño u operador le demuestra a la Junta y ésta encuentra que para dicho embalse superficial, las practicas alternas de operacion y de disefo junto con las caracteristicas de la localizacion, evitarian la migracion de cualquier constituyente peligroso hacia el agua subterranea o superficial al menos tan efectivamente como lo harIan los revestimientos y los sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea: (5) La Junta podra otorgar una dispensa del requisito de doble revestimiento establecido en el inciso (3) de esta Regla para cualquier facilidad que es un relleno de un solo desperdicio peligroso o "monofill", si:
(a) El "monofill" contiene solo desperdicios peligrosos provenientes de controles de emision de hornos de fundicion o fundicion de metales en arenal y dichos desperdicios no contienen constituyentes que conviertan los desperdicios en peligrosos por otras razones que no sean las caracteristicas de toxicidad por el procedimiento de extraccion (EP toxicity) dispuestas en la Regla 604 D; y
(b) (i) (A) El "monofill" posee por lo menos un revestimiento del cual no existe evidencia de que este filtrando. Para propositos de esta Regla, el término "revestimiento" significa revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos pasen hacia el revestimiento en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad, o un revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos migren más allá del revestimiento al terreno superficial adyacente, o al agua subterránea o superficial, en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. En caso de que cualquier embalse superficial este exento de los requisitos del inciso (3) de esta Regla, a base de un revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos migren más alla del revestimiento, al cierre de dicho embalse, el dueño u operador deberá remover o descontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y terreno contaminado hasta donde sea factible. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o descontaminado, el dueño u operador de dicho embalse deberá cumplir
con los requisitos apropiados de cierre posterior, incluyendo pero no limitado a monitorta de agua subterranea y acción correctiva; (B) El "monofill" estå localizado a más de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterránea de agua potable; y (C) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitorla de agua subterranea para facilidades con permisos bajo esta parte y la Seccion 3005
(c) de RCRA; o (ii) El dueño u operador demuestre que el "monofill" ests localizado, disefiado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra migracion de algin constituyente peligroso hacia el agua subterranea o superficial en algin momento futuro.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B para añadirle los incisos (6), (7) y (8) que leerin como sigue: (6) El embalse superficial ser& diseñado, construido, mantenido y operado para evitar el desbordamiento resultante de operaciones normales o anormales; sobreabastecimiento; acción del viento y de oleajes; lluvia; escorrentias hacia la facilidad; desperfectos en el funcionamiento del equipo para controlar el nivel del contenido del embalse, las alarmas y otro equipo; y el error humano.
(7) El embalse superficial tendrá diques diseñados, construidos y mantenidos con la suficiente integridad estructural para evitar una falla masiva de los diques. Para asegurar la integridad estructural, no se presumirá que el sistema de revestimiento funcionara sin derrames durante la vida activa de la unidad. (8) La Junta especificara en el permiso todas las practicas de diseño y operacion necesarias para asegurar que se cumpla con los requisitos de esta Regla.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(f) -(h), anteriormente
(c) -
(e) .
La Regla II-811 C se elimina y permanecera reservada en 10 sucesivo.
II-811 C - Reservada.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.222.
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 D (2) incisos
(a) ,
(b) y
(c) . Se elimina el inciso
(d) . Estos leerán como sigue:
D (2)
(a) Deterioro, desperfectos, u operacion indebida o impropia de los sistemas de control contra el desbordamiento;
(b) Una baja subita en el nivel del contenido del embalse; y
(c) Erosion severa o cualquier otra señal de deterioro de los diques u otros aparatos de contencion.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.226
(b) (1)-(3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 F (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) . Los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se reasignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y también el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Efectuar el mantenimiento y cotejar el sistema de monitoria del agua subterranea y cumplir con todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla II-806; y
(c) Evitar la erosion de la cubierta final o cualquier otro daño a Esta resultante de "escorrentia" desde o hacia dicha cubierta.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.228
(b) (2) $y(3)$.
La Regla II-811 F (4) se elimina.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.228
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 para añadirle un inciso I que lee como sigue:
Regla II-811 I- Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 (1) Los desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en un embalse superficial a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicho embalse de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para dichos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
a) El volumen, y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen para migrar a través del terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmósfera;
b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, diseño o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 en embalses superficiales, de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para asi proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso I corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.231.
La Regla II-812 C se elimina y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
II-812 C - Reservada.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.252.
La Regla II-812 D se elimina y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
II-812 D - Reservada
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.253.
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 E (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) , los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se reasignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y tambien el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Funcionamiento adecuado del sistema de control de dispersión a causa del viento, donde el mismo este presente, y
(c) Cuando exista un sistema de recolección y remoción de lixiviacion, se inspeccionara para la presencia de lixiviacion y el funcionamiento adecuado del mismo.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.254
(b) (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 G para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-812 G - Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Incompatibles. (1) Desperdicios incompatibles o desperdicios y materiales incompatibles, (Véase el Apéndice V de esta parte para ejemplos) no podrán colocarse en el mismo montículo a menos que se haya cumplido con la Regla II-812 G (2).
(2) Un montículo de desperdicios peligrosos que es incompatible con cualquier desperdicio u otro material que estuviera almacenado en lugar cercano en receptáculos, en otro montículo, tanques abiertos, o embalses superficiales deberá estar separado de otros materiales o protegidos de éstos por medio de algín dique, lisera, muralla u otro mecanismo. (3) No podrán colocarse desperdicios peligrosos sobre la misma base en la cual previamente se habia almacenado desperdicios o materiales incompatibles, a menos que la base haya sido suficientemente descontaminada como para asegurar que se cumpla con la Regla II-802 G (2).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.257.
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 para añadir un nuevo inciso I que lee como sigue:
Regla II-812 I - Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Los desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no serán colocados en montículos de desperdicios no cubiertos (seglin descritos en la Regla II-812 A (3)) a menos que el dueño u operador, opere dicho montículo de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para estos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme las normas establecidas en esta Regla y en armonía con cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen, y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen los mismos para migrar a traves del terreno, o ser volátiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos en conjunto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, disefo o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y de monitoria para los montículos que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterránea o superficial o al aire, para asI proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso I equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.259.
Se enmienda la Regla II-813 para afadir un nuevo inciso $K$ que leerá como sigue:
Regla II-813 K Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en una unidad de tratamiento en el terreno a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicha facilidad segun el plan de manejo para
estos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta de acuerdo a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y en armonia con cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios incluyendo el potencial que poseen los mismos para migrar a traves del terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilización de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, diseno o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para las facilidades de tratamiento en el terreno que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso K equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.283.
Se enmienda el parrafo introductorio de la Regla II-814 B (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-814 B Requisitos de Diseño y Operacion (1) Cualquier relleno sanitario no cubierto bajo las disposiciones del inciso (3) de esta Regla o la Regla I 816 (B), deberá tener un sistema de revestimiento para todas las porciones del relleno sanitario (excepto para aquellas porciones ya existentes de dicho relleno sanitario). El sistema de revestimiento deberá tener:
Esta Regla II-814 B (1) es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 264.301
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla II 814 B para sustituir el lenguaje de sus incisos (3), (4) y (5) que en lo sucesivo leerán: (3) El dueño u operador de cada nuevo relleno sanitario, de cada nueva unidad de relleno sanitario en una facilidad ya existente, de cada reemplazo y de cada expansion lateral de una unidad de relleno sanitario existente, deberá instalar dos o más revestimientos y un sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion sobre y entre los revestimientos. Los revestimientos y los sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion deberán proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. El requisito de un relleno sanitario con dos o más revestimientos se cumplirá con la instalación de un revestimiento superior diseñado, operado y construido de materiales que eviten la migracion de constituyentes a dicho revestimiento durante el periodo que dicha facilidad se mantenga en operaciones (incluyendo cualquier periodo de monitoria de cierre posterior), y un revestimiento inferior diseñado, operado y construido para evitar la migracion de constituyentes a través de
dicho revestimiento durante tal periodo. Para propósitos de esta Regla, un revestimiento inferior se considerara que satisface dicho requisito si esta construido de una capa de arcilla recompactada de por 10 menos 3 pies de espesor u otro material natural con una permeabilidad de no más de $1 imes 10^{-7}$ centimetros por segundo. (4) El inciso (3) de esta Regla no sera de aplicación si el dueño u operador le demuestra a la Junta y Esta, a su vez encuentra para dicho relleno sanitario, que diseños y practicas de operacion alternas, junto con las caracteristicas de localizacion evitarian la migracion de constituyentes peligrosos hacia el agua subterranea o superficial por lo menos tan efectivamente como 10 harían dichos revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion. (5) La Junta podrá otorgar una dispensa del requisito de doble revestimiento establecido en el inciso (3) de esta Regla para cualquier facilidad que es un relleno de un solo desperdicio peligroso o "monofill", si:
(a) El "monofill" contiene s6lo desperdicios peligrosos provenientes de controles de emision de hornos de fundicion o fundicion de metales en arenal y dichos desperdicios no contienen constituyentes que suministren desperdicios peligrosos por otras razones que las caracteristicas de toxicidad por el procedimiento de extraccion (EP Toxicity); y
(b) (i) (A) El "monofill" posee por lo menos un revestimiento del cual no hay evidencia de que se encuentre filtrando; (B) El "monofill" est£ localizado a más de un cuarto de milla de una fuente subterranea de agua potable; y
(c) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permisos bajo esta parte y la Seccion 3005
(c) de RCRA; o (ii) El duefio u operador demuestre que el "monofill" est£ localizado, diseflado y es operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra migraclon de constituyentes peligrosos hacia el agua subterranea y superficial en algin momento futuro.
Estos nuevos incisos (3), (4) y (5) equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.301 incisos
(c) ,
(d) y
(e) respectivamente.
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 B, sus anteriores incisos (3), (4), (5), (6) y (7) se re-asignan como incisos (6), (7), (8), (9) y (10) respectivamente. Estos leerán como sigue: (6) El duefio u operador deberá disefiar, construir, operar y mantener un sistema de control de escorrentias hacia el relleno sanitario capaz de evitar su flujo hacia la parte activa del relleno sanitario, durante el periodo de máxima descarga producida por lo menos por una tormenta de frecuencia de 25 años.
(7) El duefio u operador deberá disefiar, construir, operar y mantener un sistema de manejo de escorrentias provenientes desde el Srea del relleno sanitario, para recoger y controlar por lo menos el volumen de agua producida por lluvia de 24 horas por una tormenta con una frecuencia de 25 años. (8) Facilidades de recoleccion y retencion (ejemplo: tanques o represas) asociadas con el sistema de control de escorrentias desde y hacia la facilidad serf̂n vaciadas o de otra manera manejadas prontamente después de cualquier tormenta para mantener la capacidad de disefo del sistema. (9) Si el relleno sanitario contiene cualquier materia particulada, que pueda estar sujeta a la dispersión por el viento, el duefio u operador deberá cubrir la misma, o de otra manera, manejara el relleno sanitario para controlar la dispersión por el viento. (10) La Junta especificarf en el permiso toda las prfcticas de disefo y operacion necesarias para asegurar el cumplimiento con los requisitos de esta Regla.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.301
(f) -(j).
Se elimina la Regla II-814 C y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
Regla II-814 C Reservada.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.302.
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 D (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) . Los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se re-asignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y se omite el inciso
(d) . Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Buen funcionamiento de los sistemas de control de dispersión por el viento, donde los hubiera; y
(c) La presencia de lixiviacion dentro del sistema y el buen funcionamiento de los sistemas de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación, donde los hubiera.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.303
(b) (2) y
(b) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 F (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) ; los anteriores incisos
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) se reasignan como los incisos
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) y
(e) respectivamente y el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Continuar operando el sistema de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación hasta que ésta ya no sea detectada;
(c) Continuar el mantenimiento y cotejo del sistema de monitoria de agua subterránea y cumplir todos los requisitos aplicables de la Regla II-806;
(d) Evitar las escorrentias hacia y desde la facilidad para que no causen erosion u otros daños a la cubierta final; y
c. Nombre, número de identificacion y direccion de cada generador del cual se ha recibido desperdicio solido peligroso; d. Una descripcion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso por su numero de identificacion y con un estimado de la cantidad enviada a cada facilidad designada; e. Nombre, numero de identificacion y direccion de las facilidades para desperdicios solidos peligrosos a las cuales cada uno de esos desperdicios ha sido entregado; f. Una explicacion de todas las ocasiones en que el desperdicio solido peligroso ha sido recibido por el transportador, pero no ha sido entregado a la facilidad designada para desperdicio solido peligroso o ha sido devuelto al generador; y g. Certificacion de acuerdo a los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el duento u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. El duento u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio solido peligroso para tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion debe preparar y someter a la Junta un informe cada dos años, no más tarde del $1^{ ext {ro }}$ de marzo de cada año terminado en numero par. El informe debe incluir todo el desperdicio solido peligroso almacenado, tratado o dispuesto durante el año calendario anterior y debe incluir la siguiente informacion:
(3) Una descripcion del metodo de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion usado para cada uno de tales desperdicios sOlidos peligrosos;" j. Una descripcion de los esfuerzos realizados durante el año para reducir el volumen y la toxicidad del desperdicio generado. k. Una descripcion de los cambios reales logrados en el año en cuanto al volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio comparado con años anteriores en la medida en que la informacion este disponible para años anteriores a 1984.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 262.41.
Se enmienda el primer parrafo de la Regla 503 A (2) para que lea como sigue: 2. Los transportadores deberfin preparar y someter a la Junta un informe cada dos años, no más tarde del $1^{ ext {ro }}$ de marzo de cada año terminado en numero par. El informe debe incluir todo el desperdicio solido peligroso transportado durante el año calendario anterior y debe incluir la siguiente informacion: a. Nombre del transportador, numero de identificacion y la direccion o localizacion; b. El nombre y numero de telefono de la persona a quien pueda referirse con relacion a la informacion sometida;
e. El nombre y numero de identificacion de cada transportador cuyos servicios fueron utilizados para transportar tal desperdicio a la facilidad designada durante el año que se esta informando. f. Una descripcion del desperdicio de acuerdo al numero de identificacion de desperdicios peligrosos de la APA, clase de peligrosidad bajo DOT y la cantidad de cada embarque de desperdicio solido peligroso enviado fuera de la facilidad. Esta informacion sera listada por numero de identificacion de la APA para cada facilidad fuera de su localizacion a la cual se envio desperdicio. g. Cualquier otra informacion requerida en los informes de cada dos años de los dueños u operadores de las facilidades para desperdicios solidos peligrosos; y h. Una certificacion a tenor con los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el dueño u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla 503 INFORME DE LA FACILIDAD U OPERACIONES DE LA ACTIVIDAD
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.73.
todas las facilidades, esta informacion tiene que incluir referencias de corroboracion de los números de los documentos del manifiesto especifico, si el desperdicio estaba acompañado de un manifiesto. c. Registros y resultados de analisis de desperdicio y pruebas realizadas segin especificadas en las Reglas I-807 I, I-813 C, I-817 C, I-818 C, I-819 C, I-816 F, I-814 B, I-815 E y I-820 B; d. Un resumen de los informes y detalles de cada incidente que requiera la implementacion del plan de contingencia segin especificado en la Regla I-803 E (11)
(k) ; e. Registros y resultados de todas las inspecciones segin requerido en la Regla I-803 F (4) (excepto que esta informacion sea necesario conservarla por s6lo 3 años); f. Monitorfa, pruebas o data analftica cuando sea requerido en las Reglas I-804 A, 503 B, I-819 E, I-819 G, I-819 I (4)
(a) , I-814 C y I-815 F. (COMENTARIO: Segín lo requerido por la Regla 503 B la data sobre monitorfa en las facilidades de disposicion se mantendrá a través del periodo de cierre posterior). g. Todos los estimados de costo del cierre segin la Regla I-806 C, y para las facilidades de disposicion, todos los estimados de costo del cierre posterior segin la Regla I-806 E.
Parte VI, la descripcion debera incluir el proceso que lo produjo (por ejemplo: cieno seco filtrado procedente de $\qquad$ , numero de Desperdicio Peligroso $\qquad$ (COMENTARIO: Cada desperdicio solido peligroso anotado en la Parte VI y cada caracteristica sobre desperdicio solido peligroso definida en la Parte VI, tiene asignado un numero de desperdicio solido peligroso de cuatro (4) digitos. Este numero tiene que ser utilizado para propositos de mantenimiento de registros e informes. Cuando un desperdicio solido peligroso es una mezcla de varios desperdicios peligrosos anotados en la Parte VI, o cuando mas de una caracteristica de desperdicio solido peligroso aplica al desperdicio, la descripcion del desperdicio tiene que incluir todos los numeros de desperdicios solidos peligrosos aplicables). (ii) El peso estimado o informado en el manifiesto, o el volumen y la densidad, donde apliquen, en unidades apropiadas de medida. (iii) El metodo(s) y fecha(s) de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion. b. La ubicacion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso dentro de la facilidad y la cantidad en cada ubicacion. Para facilidades de disposicion, la ubicacion y cantidad de cada desperdicio peligroso tiene que estar indicada en un mapa o diagrama de cada compartimiento o área de disposicion. Para
Se enmienda la Regla 502 C para que en lo sucesivo como sigue:
$\cdot$
-VI-
40 CFR 265
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE VIII - I
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
(e) Variaciones permisibles en el disefo del sistema de incineración o en procedimientos de operacion; y
(f) Otros requisitos de operacion necesarios para asegurar el cumplimiento de las normas de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D.
Este inciso corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.345
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 H para añadirle un comentario. Este leera como sigue: (COMENTARIO: Al momento del cierre, as como durante el periodo de operacion, a menos que el duefio u operador pueda demostrar, de acuerdo con la Regla 102 que el residuo removido del incinerador no es un desperdicio peligroso, se convertirá en un generador de desperdicio peligroso y deberá manejar el mismo de acuerdo con los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VII hasta VIII-I y II de esta reglamentacion).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.351.
el permiso de la facilidad, los requisitos de operacion deberán ser aquellos que a juicio de la Junta y basados en juicios de ingenieria, puedan asegurar el cumplimiento con las normas de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.344
(c) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 F (2) para que lea en lo sucesivo: (2) Los requisitos de operacion especificarán la composicion del desperdicio a ser incinerado (incluyendo variaciones aceptables en las propiedades físicas y quimicas del desperdicio a incinerarse que no afecten el cumplimiento con los requisitos de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D) a los cuales aplican los requisitos de operacion. Para cada desperdicio a ser incinerado, el permiso especificar los limites operacionales aceptables incluyendo las siguientes condiciones:
(a) Nivel de mon6xido de carbono (CO) en el gas que escapa de la chimenea;
(b) Estimado de alimentacion de desperdicio;
(c) Temperatura de combust16n;
(d) Un indicador apropiado de la velocidad del gas de combustion;
y dibenzofuranos. La EDR se determinara para cada PCOP usando la ecuacion en el inciso (1)
(a) de esta Regla. Además, el duefio u operador del incinerador tiene que notificar a la Junta su intencion de incinerar desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 6 F027.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.343
(a) (1) y
(a) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 D para añadirle un nuevo inciso (4) que en lo sucesivo leera: (4) Se entenderá como cumplimiento con los requisitos de esta regla, el cumplimiento con los requisitos de operacion especificados en el permiso (bajo la Regla II-815 F). Sin embargo, informacion de que aGn cumpliendo con las condiciones del permiso no es suficiente para asegurar el cumplimiento con las normas de funcionamiento de esta regla, sera evidencia suficiente que justifique la modificacion, remoción o re-emision del permiso segun la Regla I-912 D.
Este nuevo inciso corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.343
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 E (3)
(c) para que lea como sigue: (3)
(c) Para el periodo inmediatamente posterior a la finalizacion de la prueba de quemado, y solo por un periodo minimo suficiente para permitir el analisis de muestras, computar datos, y someter los resultados de prueba de quemado por el solicitante, ser revisados los mismos por la Junta y Esta modificar
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 D (1) para que lea como sigue: (1)
(a) A excepción de lo provisto en el párrafo (1)
(b) , un incinerador que queme desperdicios peligrosos deberá alcanzar una eficiencia de destruccion y remoción (EDR) de un $99.99 %$ para cada principal constituyente orgánico peligroso (PCOP) designado (segun la Regla II-815 C) en su permiso para cada tipo de desperdicio a ser incinerado. La EDR es determinada para cada PCOP siguiendo la siguiente ecuacion:
$$ \begin{gathered} E D R=\frac{(W ext { in }-W ext { out })}{W ext { in }} imes 100 % \ ext { Donde: } \ ext { W in - es el estimado de alimentacion en masa de } \ ext { un PCOP en el flujo de alimentacion de } \ ext { desperdicio al incinerador } \ ext { y } \ ext { W out - es el estimado de emision en masa del mismo } \ ext { PCOP presente en las emisiones de escape } \ ext { antes de descargarse a la atmosfera. } \end{gathered} $$
(b) Un incinerador que queme desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 6 F027 deberá adquirir una eficiencia de destruccion y remoción (EDR) de $99.9999 %$ para cada principal constituyente orgánico peligroso (PCOP) designado (según la Regla II-815 C), en su permiso. Este cumplimiento deberá demostrarse en PCOP que son más difíciles de incinerar que tetra-, penta-, y hexaclorodibenzo - para-dioxinas
(3) Si el desperdicio a ser quemado es uno de aquellos descritos por los parrafos 2
(a) (i), 2
(a) (ii), 2
(a) (iii) 62
(a) (iv) de esta Regla y contiene concentraciones insignificantes de constituyentes peligrosos incluidos en el Anejo C-3 de este Reglamento, entonces la Junta podra, al establecer las condiciones del permiso, eximir al solicitante de todo requisito de esta regla, excepto la Regla II-815 B (Análisis de Desperdicio) y la Regla II-815 H (Cierre) después de considerar el anälisis del desperdicio incluido con la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso, a menos que la Junta encuentre que el desperdicio va a constituir una amenaza a la salud humana y al ambiente si es quemado en un incinerador. (4) El dueño u operador de un incinerador podra conducir pruebas de quemado sujeto solo a los requisitos del Anejo C 6.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.340.
Se corrige la Regla II-815 B para que lea inciso (2) en lugar de inciso
(b) .
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.341.
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 C (2)
(a) tercera oración para que lea Apéndice C-3 de este Reglamento en lugar de Apéndice VIII del 40 CFR Parte 261.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.342.
(a) Si la Junta encuentra que el desperdicio a ser quemado .está:
(i) Anotado como un desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por ser inflamable (Codigo de Pel1gro I), corrosivo (Codigo de Pel1gro C), o ambos; o (ii) Anotado como un desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por razon de ser reactivo (Codigo de Peligros R) por otras caracteristicas que las mencionadas en la Regla 604 C (3) y (4), y no serfn quemados cuando esten presentes en la zona de combustion otros desperdicios peligrosos; o (iii) Es un desperdicio peligroso Gnicamente porque posee la caracteristica de inflamable, corrosivo o ambas, segin determinado por la prueba para caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos inclufda en la Parte VI de este Reglamento; o (iv) Es un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque posee alguna de las caracteristicas de reactividad descritas por la Regla 604 C (1), (2), (5), (6), (7) y (8) de este reglamento y no sera quemado cuando esten presentes en la zona de combustion otros desperdicios peligrosos; y
(b) Si el anélisis del desperdicio demuestra que el desperdicio no contiene alguno de los constituyentes peligrosos incluidos en el Anejo C 3 de este Reglamento, los cuales podrían estar presentes en dicho desperdicio.
se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para asf proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este inciso L corresponde al 40 CFR Sección 264.317.
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-815 A Aplicabilidad (1) Las normas establecidas en esta regla aplican a duetos u operadores de facilidades que tratan desperdicios peligrosos en incineradores, a excepción de lo dispuesto por la Regla II-801 A. Los siguientes duetos u operadores de facilidades se considera que incineran desperdicios peligrosos:
a) Dueños u operadores de incineradores de desperdicios peligrosos; y b) Dueños u operadores que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas de vapor o en hornos industriales de manera que se destruyan los mismos, o quienes queman desperdicios peligrosos con proposito de reciclar los mismos y eligen ser reglamentados bajo esta Regla. (2) Luego de considerar el analisis del desperdicio incluido en la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso, la Junta al establecer las condiciones del permiso eximir al solicitante de todos los requisitos de esta Regla, excepto la Regla II-815 B (Analisis de desperdicio) y la Regla II-815 H (Cierre),
Se enmienda la regla II-814 para añadirle un nuevo inciso L que lee como sigue:
Regla II-814 L Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Los deperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en un relleno sanitario a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicho relleno sanitario de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para dichos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y conforme con todo otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen para migrar hacia el terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, disefio o requisitos de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinará si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para los rellenos sanitarios que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027, de manera que
(c) El receptáculo estâ diseñado para contener los liquidos libres para otro uso que no sea el almacenamiento, tal como una baterfa o condensador; o
(d) El receptáculo es un paquete de laboratorio segun se define y dispone del mismo de acuerdo a la Regla II-814 K. (5) Efectivo al 8 de noviembre de 1985, se prohibe colocar cualquier liquido que no sea desperdicio peligroso en un relleno sanitario a menos que el dueño u operador de dicho relleno sanitario le demuestre a la Junta o Esta determine que:
(a) La única alternativa razonablemente disponible para la colocación del liquido es en dicho relleno sanitario o en un embalse superficial sin revestimiento, que contenga o razonablemente se anticipe que contenga desperdicios peligrosos, aunque no tenga permiso u esté operando bajo status interino; y
(b) La colocación en el relleno sanitario de dicho dueño u operador no constituye un riesgo de contaminación de alguna fuente subterránea de agua potable.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.314.
(b) Antes de su disposici6n, el desperdicio liquido o desperdicio que contenga liquidos libres sea tratado o estabilizado fisica o quimicamente de manera que los liquidos libres ya no esten presentes (Ejemplos: mezclándolo con algin s61ido absorbente). (2) Efectivo al 8 de mayo de 1985, se prohibe colocar desperdicios liquidos peligrosos a granel o sin envasar o desperdicios peligrosos que contengan liquidos libres (se hayan añadido o no absorbentes) en cualquier relleno sanitario. (3) El siguiente examen: Metodo 9095 (Examen de filtracion de pintura liquida), descrito en la publicacion de la APA "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" se utilizara para demostrar la ausencia o presencia de liquidos libres ya sea en desperdicios en receptículos o a granel. (4) Receptículos conteniendo liquidos libres no podrán colocarse en un relleno sanitario a menos que:
(a) Todo liquido libre o "free standing"
(i) Haya sido removido por decantacion u otro metodo; (ii) Haya sido mezclado con un absorbente o solidificado para que los liquidos libres ya no se encuentren; o (iii) Haya sido eliminado de otro modo; o
(b) El receptáculo sea muy pequeño, tal como una ampolleta; o
(e) Proteger y mantener los puntos de colindancias fijadas por mensura, utilizados para cumplir con la Regla II 814 E.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.310
(b) (2) -
(b) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 F (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea: (3) Durante el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior, si algin liquido se filtra al sistema de detección contra derrames, el dueño u operador notificara por escrito a la Junta del derrame en o antes de siete' (7) dias a partir de la detección del mismo. La Junta modificara el permiso para requerir el cumplimiento con los requisitos de la Regla II-806.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.310
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 I para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-814 I Requisitos Especiales para Liquidos a Granel y en Receptáculos. (1) Desperdicios liquidos a granel, desperdicios liquidos sin envasar o desperdicios que contengan líquidos libres podrán colocarse en un relleno sanitario antes del 8 de mayo de 1985, s6lo si:
(a) El relleno sanitario tiene un revestimiento y un sistema de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación, que cumple con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 B (1); 0
a. Número de identificacion, nombre y direccion de la facilidad para desperdicio solido peligroso; b. El año calendario cubierto por el informe; c. Para facilidades fuera de localizacion, el numero de identificacion de cada generador de desperdicio solido peligroso del cual la facilidad recibio el desperdicio solido peligroso durante el año; y para desperdicio importado, el informe incluira el nombre y la direccion del generador extranjero; d. Descripcion y cantidad de cada desperdicio solido peligroso recibido en la facilidad durante el año. Para los que disponen fuera de la facilidad, esta informacion debe estar ordenada por el numero de identificacion de cada generador y del desperdicio solido peligroso; e. El método de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso; f. Data sobre monitoria segon la Regla 503 B (2)
(b) y
(c) , 503 B (3)
(b) (2), cuando sean requeridos. g. Los estimados más recientes de los costos de cierre segGn la Regla I-806 C y para las facilidades de disposicion, los estimados más recientes de los costos de cierre posterior segGn la Regla I-806 E; y
h. Certificacion de acuerdo con los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el duefio u operador de la facilidad o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.75.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 B para que lea como sigue:
Regla 503 B Mantenimiento de Registros e Informes Relativos a Muestreo de Agua Subterranea.
A menos que el agua subterranea sea muestreada satisfaciendo los requisitos de la Regla I-804 D(4)(d) el duefio u operador debera:
(a) para cada pozo de muestreo de agua subterranea, los mismos serán informados dentro de quince (15) dias despues de haber completado el analisis trimestral requerido. El dueño u operador identificara por separado para cada pozo de
muestreo cualquier parâmetro cuyas concentraciones o valores hayan sido encontrados excediendo el nivel de contaminante máximo anotado en la Regla I-804 (C) (2)
(a) . b. Después del primer año y de ahi en adelante, anualmente se informara lo siguiente:
Las concentraciones o valores de los parâmetros anotados en la Regla I-804 (C) (2)
(c) . Esos valores serán sometidos para cada pozo de muestreo de agua subterránea, y los mismos serán sometidos junto con las evaluaciones de esos parâmetros requeridos bajo la Regla I-804 (D) (2). El dueño u operador debe identificar por separado cualquier diferencia significativa de la informacion básica inicial encontrada en los pozos gradiente arriba, de acuerdo con la Regla I-804 (D) (3). Durante la vida activa de la facilidad, esa informacion sera sometida no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario. c. Los resultados de la evaluacion de las elevaciones superficiales del agua subterranea requerida bajo la Regla I-804 (D) (5) y una descripcion de la respuesta requerida a esa evaluacion donde aplique, no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario.
(d) , el duefio u operador debe: a. Mantener informes de los analisis y evaluaciones , especificadas en el plan de evaluacion requerido por la Regla I-804 (D) (4)
(c) , a traves de la vida activa de la facilidad, y para facilidades de disposicion en el terreno, a traves del periodo de cierre posterior;y b. Someter anualmente a la Junta, hasta el cierre final de la facilidad, un informe que contenga los resultados del programa de evaluacion de la calidad de agua subterranea; incluyendo, pero sin limitarse a la tasa de migracion calculada (o medida) de desperdicios solidos peligrosos o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos en el agua subterranea durante el periodo de informe. Esta informacion deberá someterse no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.94.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 C para que en lo sucesivo lea: C. Otros Informes
Además de someter el informe cada dos años y el informe sobre desperdicios sin manifiestos descritos en la Regla 503 A (3) y 504 D (6), el duefio u operador informara a la Junta lo siguiente:
(1) escapes, fuegos, explosiones segin lo especificado en la Regla I-803 E (11) (K); (2) la contaminacion de agua subterranea y datos sobre monitoria segin especificado en la Regla I-804 D y 503 B; (3) alteracion del proceso de operacion autorizado; y (4) el cierre de la facilidad segin especificado en la Regla I-805 A (7).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.77.
Se enmienda la Regla 504 D para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue D. Requisitos para Mantenimiento de Registros e Informes de Manifiesto a los Duefios u Operadores de Facilidades
La reglamentacion de esta parte aplicara a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen dentro y fuera de la facilidad excepto que la Regla I-801 provea de otra forma. Las Reglas 504 D (1) a (6) no aplicarán a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen en su facilidad, que no reciban desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes fuera de su facilidad.
b. Anotar en cada copia del manifiesto cualquier discrepancia significativa (segun definido en el Parrafo 4 de esta regla); c. Segun se requiere en la Regla 703 E entregar al transportador, por lo menos, una (1) copia del manifiesto firmado; d. Dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, enviar la copia original del manifiesto al generador, y al final de cada mes o periodo mayor de tiempo que pueda ser aprobado por la Junta, enviar una (1) copia del manifiesto firmado y completo a la Junta; y e. Segun lo establecido en la Regla 505 A, retener en la facilidad una (1) copia de cada manifiesto por lo menos por tres (3) años desde la fecha de entrega. 2. El dueño u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio solido peligroso de un transportador por barco (embarque a granel) que, segun se establece en la Regla 706 E, ests acompañado por un documento de embarque conteniendo toda la informacion requerida en el manifiesto (excluyendo el numero de identificacion de la APA, certificacion del generador y firmas) debe: a. Firmar y escribir la fecha en cada copia del manifiesto o documento de embarque (si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido) para certificar que el desperdicio solido peligroso cubierto por estos fue recibido;
b. Anotar cualquier discrepancia significativa en cada copia del documento de embarque o manifiesto (seglin se define en el Parrafo 4 de esta regla). c. Entregar inmediatamente al transportador por barco (embarque a granel) por lo menos una (1) copia del manifiesto o de los documentos de embarque o manifiesto (si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido); d. Dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, enviar una (1) copia de manifiesto firmado y fechado al generador, sin embargo, si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, el dueño u operador deberá enviar una copia del documento de embarque firmado y fechado al generador; y (Comentario: La Regla 703 E (4) requiere al generador enviar tres copias del manifiesto a la facilidad cuando se envian desperdicios peligrosos por barco (embarque a granel).) e. Segín se establece en la Regla 505 A, retener en la facilidad una (1) copia de cada documento de embarque o manifiesto por lo menos por tres (3) años desde la fecha de la entrega.
Todas las copias de los manifiestos o documentos de embarque firmados y completos serán enviados a la Junta a:
Area Control Contaminación de Terrenos Junta de Calidad Ambiental
e. Metodo de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion usado para cada desperdicio solido peligroso; f. Una certificacion a tenor con los requerimientos de la Junta, firmada por el dueto u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado; y g. Explicación del porque el desperdicio no fue manifestado, si se conoce. (Comentario: Pequeñas cantidades de desperdicio peligroso están excluidas de esta reglamentación y no requieren manifiesto alguno. La Agencia sugiere que el duerio u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio peligroso sin manifiesto obtenga de cada generador una certificacion de que dicho desperdicio cualifica para la exclusión. De otro modo, la Agencia sugiere que el duerio u operador someta un informe para el movimiento del desperdicio peligroso no manifestado.)
Esta Regla 504 D equivale al 40 CFR Secciones $265.71,265.72$ y 265.76 .
Se enmienda la Regla I-801 para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Parte VIII - SUBPARTE I DISPOSICIONES ESPECIALES PARA FACILIDADES PARA EL TRATAMIENTO, ALMACENAMIENTO Y DISPOSICION DE DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS.
Regla I-801 Propósito, Alcance y Aplicabilidad
Esta parte establece requisitos adicionales aplicables a facilidades para el tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios s6lidos peligrosos. Estos requisitos suplementan las disposiciones generales de la Parte II y
las prohibiciones generales de la Parte III. Las mismas no son aplicables a facilidades que no manejan desperdicios s6lidos peligrosos. Se establecen normas minimas que definan el manejo aceptable de desperdicios peligrosos durante el periodo de status interino y hasta que se expida la certificacion de cierre final o, si la facilidad esta sujeta a los requisitos de cierre posterior hasta tanto se completen dichas responsabilidades. A. Los requisitos de esta parte aplican a los dueños u operadores de facilidades que tratan, almacenan o disponen desperdicios peligrosos que han cumplido en su totalidad con los requisitos de status interino bajo la Seccion 3005
(e) de la Ley Federal de Conservacion y Recuperacion de Recursos, que haya sometido una solicitud de permiso (Parte A) antes del 19 de noviembre de 1980 y que hayan cumplido con las Reglas I-902 y I-903, 6 proceda a hacerlo asi dentro de los proximos 6 meses de entrar en vigencia este reglamento. Estos requisitos tambien aplican a dueños u operadores de facilidades de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos que existian para el 19 de noviembre de 1980 y que no han sometido una solicitud de permiso bajo RCRA y/o este reglamento excepto lo que de otra forma se provea en la Parte VI de este reglamento. (COMENTARIO: Luego de la fecha de vigencia de la reglamentacion, bajo la (Parte IX-I), el tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos est£ prohibida excepto cuando se haga de acuerdo con un permiso. Tambien se povee para el funcionamiento continuo de una facilidad existente que reuna ciertas condiciones, hasta que se disponga final y administrativamente la solicitud de permiso hecha por el duefio u operador).
B. Los requisitos de esta Parte no aplican a:
(b) y
(c) de este reglamento (excepto en la medida que los requisitos de esta Parte se refieran a las Reglas 1103, 1104, 110661107 de este reglamento). 6) Un generador que acumule desperdicios en la facilidad en cumplimiento con la Regla 704 D de este reglamento, si los mismos son aplicables. 7) Un agricultor disponiendo desperdicios de plaguicidas de su propio uso en cumplimiento con la Regla 705 C de este reglamento; o
(a) Excepto lo provisto en el párrafo (B) (10)
(b) de esta regla, una persona envuelta en la actividad de tratamiento o contencion durante una respuesta inmediata a una de las siguientes situaciones:
(i) Una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos; (ii) Una amenaza inminente y substancial de una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos;
(iii) Una descarga de un material que al ser descargado se convierta en desperdicio peligroso.
(b) El dueño u operador de una facilidad que de otra forma hubiese sido reglamentada por esta parte, debe cumplir con los requisitos aplicables del Plan de Contingencia y el de Prevención, Control y Contramedidas de Derrames.
(c) Una persona que está cubierta por el párrafo B (10)
(a) de esta regla y que continúa o inicia las actividades de tratamiento o contención de desperdicios peligrosos despues que una respuesta inmediata ha finalizado, esta sujeta a todos los requisitos aplicables de esta parte y la reglamentacion aplicable de permisos bajo el Sistema Nacional para la Eliminacion de Descargas Contaminantes ("National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System"). 11) Un transportador almacenando embarques de receptáculos de desperdicios peligrosos que fueron manifestados cumpliendo con los requisitos de la Regla 704 A en una facilidad de transferencia por un período de diez dias o menos.
(a) El cieno del tratamiento de aguas usadas es generado en un embalse superficial como parte del sistema de tratamiento de una planta de aguas usadas;
(b) El desperdicio es almacenado en tanques o receptáculos;
(c) El desperdicio es almacenado o tratado en montículos de desperdicios que reunen los requisitos de la Regla II-812 A (3) como todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla I-818;
(d) El desperdicio es quemado en incineradores certificados segin las normas y procedimientos de la Regla I-814-G; o
(e) El desperdicio es quemado en facilidades que tratan los desperdicios de forma térmica en otro aparato que no sea un incinerador y que est£ certificado según las normas y procedimientos de la Regla I-815 K.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.1.
Se enmienda la Regla I-803 (C) para añadir un inciso (4) que leera como sigue: 4. Estâ prohibido colocar cualquier desperdicio peligroso en formaciones de cipulas o yacimientos de sal, minas subterraneas o cuevas.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.18. Se enmienda la Regla I-803 E para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-803 E - Plan de Contingencia y Procedimientos de Emergencia en el Plan de operaciones.
(b) -
(k) en respuesta a fuegos, explosiones o cualquier escape repentino no planificado o escape no repentino de desperdicio peligroso o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos al aire, el terreno o al agua superficial en la facilidad. 4. Si el dueño ha preparado ya un Plan de Prevencion, Control y Contramedidas de Derrames (PCCD) de acuerdo con el Anejo C-10 de este Reglamento o algán otro plan de emergencia o contingencia, necesitará solamente enmendar ese plan para incorporar las disposiciones para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos que sean suficientes para cumplir con los requisitos de esta Parte. 5. El plan deberá describir los convenios acordados con el Departamento de Policia, Departamento de Bomberos, hospitales, contratistas y equipos locales y estatales de reaccion a emergencias para coordinar los servicios de emergencia segán la Regla I-810 G. 6. El plan deberá expresar los nombres, direcciones, y números telefonicos (tanto de la oficina como del hogar) de todas las personas calificadas para actuar como coordinadores de emergencia (Regla I-803 E (11)
(a) ) y dicha lista se mantendrá actualizada. Cuando se nombren más de una persona, una de las deberá ser nombrada como principal coordinador de emergencias y los otros deberán ser nombrados en el orden en que asumirán responsabilidades como coordinadores alternos.
a) La reglamentación aplicable sea revisada;
b) Cuando el plan falle durante una emergencia;
c) Ocurran cambios en el disefo, construccion, operacion, mantenimiento u otras circunstancias de la facilidad de manera que materialmente aumente el potencial para fuegos, explosiones o escapes de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos, o cambie la respuesta necesaria en una emergencia;
d) Ocurran cambios en la lista de coordinadores de emergencias; u e) Ocurran cambios en la lista de equipos de emergencias. 11. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio s61ido peligroso deberá desarrollar y someter por escrito para la aprobacion de la Junta los procedimientos de emergencia como parte del Plan de Operaciones de la Facilidad. Estos procedimientos de emergencias deberán satisfacer los requisitos de la Regla 207 y en adicion deberán proveer lo siguiente:
a) Al menos un empleado debe estar en todo momento en la facilidad o disponible por teléfono (que pueda responder a una emergencia en la facilidad en un corto periodo de tiempo) con la responsabilidad de coordinar todas las medidas de emergencia. Este Coordinador de Emergencias debe estar familiarizado con todos los aspectos del Plan de Contingencia de la facilidad, toda la operacion o actividad de la facilidad, la localizacion y caracteristicas del desperdicio manejado, la
localización de todos los registros dentro de la facilidad y un croquis de las estructuras que componen la facilidad. Además, esta persona debe tener la autoridad para comprometer los recursos necesarios para cumplir con el plan de contingencia. (COMENTARIO: La responsabilidad del Coordinador de Emergencias est& detallada en la Regla I-803 E (II)
(b) . Las responsabilidades aplicables pueden variar dependiendo de factores tales como: el tipo y variedad del desperdicio manejado en la facilidad, y el tipo y la complejidad de la facilidad). b) Cuando existe una situación de emergencia presente o inminente, el Coordinador de Emergencia (o la persona designada por Este cuando se trata de conseguir al Coordinador de Emergencia por te18fono) inmediatamente deber&: (1) Activar las alarmas internas de la facilidad o el sistema de comunicaciones, cuando sea aplicable, para notificar a todo el personal de la facilidad; y (2) Notificar a las agencias pertinentes designadas para proporcionar la ayuda necesaria en estos casos. c) Cuando existe un escape, fuego o explosión, el Coordinador de Emergencia identificara inmediatamente la naturaleza, la fuente exacta, la cantidad y la verdadera extensión del escape. Podra lograr estos objetivos observando o revisando los registros o manifiestos de la facilidad y si fuera necesario mediante análisis químicos.
d) Al mismo tiempo, el Coordinador de Emergencias determinara los posibles peligros para la salud y el ambiente que puedan resultar como consecuencia del escape, fuego o explosión. Esta determinacion considerara los efectos directos e indirectos del escape, fuego o explosión. (Por ejemplo: los efectos de gases tóxicos irritantes o asfixiantes que puedan ser generados, o los efectos de cualquier escorrentia de desperdicio peligroso en el agua superficial, del agua o agentes químicos que se utilicen para controlar el fuego y explosiones inducidas por el calor). e) Si el Coordinador de Emergencias determina que la facilidad ha tenido un escape, explosión o fuego que puede poner en peligro la salud o el ambiente fuera de la facilidad, deberá informar sus hallazgos de la siguiente manera: (1) Si su determinacion indica que sera aconsejable evacuar el área adyacente, deberá notificar inmediatamente a las autoridades apropiadas. Debera estar disponible para ayudar los oficiales correspondientes a decidir si debe ser evacuado o no el área adyacente; y (2) Debera notificar inmediatamente al oficial Gubernamental designado como Coordinador en la escena del accidente para esa área geográfica, o al Centro de Reacción de Emergencias (al telefono libre de cargos (800) 424-8802 en operacion 24 horas). Este informe incluir&:
(1) Nombre y número de teléfono de la persona que informa; (ii) Nombre y dirección de la facilidad; (iii) Hora y tipo de incidente (escape o fuego); (iv) El nombre y cantidad de los desperdicios envueltos si se conoce la extension de los mismos;
(v) La extension de los heridos, si alguno; y (vi) Los posibles riesgos a la salud humana o al ambiente fuera de la facilidad. f) Durante una emergencia el Coordinador de Emergencia deberá tomar todas las medidas necesarias para garantizar que los fuegos, explosiones o escapes no ocurrirán, recurrirán o se esparcirán hacia otros desperdicios peligrosos en la facilidad. Estas medidas incluirán, cuando sea aplicable, detener procesos y operaciones, recoger y contener el desperdicio liberado y remover o aislar los receptáculos. g) Si la facilidad detiene sus operaciones en respuesta a un fuego, explosión o escape, el Coordinador de Emergencias deberá rastrear las posibles filtraciones, el desarrollo de presión, la generacion de gases o rotura de valvulas, tuberias y cualquier otro equipo cuando sea apropiado.
h) Inmediatamente despues de una emergencia, el Coordinador de Emergencias proveer& para el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposici6n de los desperdicios recuperados, los terrenos o agua superficial contaminada, o cualquier otro material que resulte de un escape, fuego o explosión en la facilidad. (COMENTARIO: A menos que el duefio u operador pueda demostrar (de acuerdo a la definición de la Regla 102), que el material recuperado no es desperdicio peligroso, el dueño u operador se convertir& en un generador de desperdicios peligrosos y deber& manejar el mismo de acuerdo con todos los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VII y VIII-I). i) El Coordinador de Emergencias garantizar& que en las areas afectadas de la facilidad: (1) Ningún desperdicio que pueda ser incompatible con el material del escape sera tratado, almacenado o dispuesto hasta que se termine con los procedimientos de limpieza; y (2) Todo el equipo de emergencia registrado en el plan de contingencia est& limpio y adecuado para el uso designado antes de reanudar las operaciones.
j) El duefio u operador notificara a la Junta y a las autoridades locales correspondientes, que la facilidad se encuentra en cumplimiento con el parrafo
(i) de esta regla antes de reanudar las operaciones en el Srea afectada. k) El duefio u operador anotara en el registro de operacion la hora, dia y detalles de cualquier incidente que requiera la implantacion del plan de contingencia. Dentro de quince dias despues del incidente, someter a la Junta un informe escrito. Este informe incluir&: (1) Nombre, direccion y numero de telefono del duelo u operador; (2) Nombre, direccion y numero de telefono de la facilidad; (3) Dia, hora y tipo de incidente (fuego, explosion); (4) Nombre y cantidad de los desperdicios envueltos; (5) La extencion de los daños, si alguno; (6) Un estimado del peligro existente o potencial a la salud o al ambiente cuando sea aplicable; $y$ (7) La cantidad estimada, y disposicion del material recuperado en el incidente."
Esta Regla I-803 E equivale al 40 CFR Parte 265. Subparte D.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 Monitoria del Agua Subterranea A. Programa para la Monitoria del Agua Subterranea.
(1) Las caracteristicas de la zona saturada (ej., materiales geologicos, propiedades fisicas, y la tasa o proporcion del flujo del agua subterránea); y (ii) La proximidad de la facilidad a los abastos de agua o al agua superficial. 4. Si el duefio u operador asume (o sabe) que la monitoria de los parámetros indicadores en el agua subterránea segfin establecidos en los subpárrafos (B) y (C) de esta regla, puede exhibir aumentos estadisticamente significativos (o reduccion en el caso de pH ), cuando sea evaluado segin la Regla I-804 D (2), podrá elegir, instalar, operar y mantener un sistmea alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea (otro que el descrito en los subpárrafos (B) y (C) de esta regla). Si el duefio u operador decide utilizar el sistema alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea, debera: a. Dentro de un (1) año despues de la fecha de vigencia de este reglamento, someter a la Junta un plan especifico, certificado por un ge6logo o ingeniero cualificado en suelos que satisfaga los requisitos del subpárrafo (D) (4)
(c) , para un sistema alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea; b. No más tarde un (1) año despues de la fecha de vigencia este reglamento, iniciarf las determinaciones especificadas en el subparrafo (D) (4)
(d) de esta regla;
c. Dentro de quince (15) días después de haber efectuado las determinaciones preparara y someterá a la Junta un informe escrito de acuerdo con la Regla I-804 D (4)
(e) . d. Continuara efectuando esas determinaciones en una base trimestral hasta el cierre final de la facilidad; y e. Cumplira con los requisitos de mantenimiento de registros e informes relativos a muestreo de agua subterranea. 5. Los requisitos de monitoria de agua subterranea de esta Regla pueden ser obviados en relación a cualquier embalse superficial que: a. Es utilizado para neutralizar desperdicios que son peligrosos Gnicamente porque exhiben la caracteristica de corrosivo bajo la Regla 604 B o están clasificados como desperdicios peligrosos en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por esta razon; y b. No contiene otro desperdicio peligroso, si el duefio u operador demuestra que no hay potencial de migracion de desperdicio peligroso desde el embalse. Esta demostracion establecerá, basado en la consideración de la característica del desperdicio y del embalse, que los desperdicios corrosivos serán neutralizados en forma tal que no cumplirán con la
caracterlstica de corrosividad antes de que puedan emigrar fuera del embalse. La demostración sera por escrito y certificada por un profesional cualificado.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.90.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 B para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 B Sistema de Monitorla del Agua Subterranea.
(i) Representativas de la calidad de trasfondo del agua subterranea en el acuifero más elevado cerca de la facilidad; y (ii) No afectadas por la facilidad y b. Se instalarán hidráulicamente gradiente abajo por lo menos tres (3) pozos de monitoria (ej., en la direccion en que disminuye el "static head") en el limite del área de manejo de desperdicio. Su numero, localización y profundidad garantizarán
que los mismos detectaran inmediatamente cualquier cantidad estadisticamente significativa de desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes que migren desde el Srea de manejo del desperdicio hacia el acuifero más elevado. 2. No se requeriran sistemas separados de monitoria para cada componente de manejo de desperdicio de una facilidad, siempre que el muestreo de la calidad del agua gradiente arriba o gradiente abajo puede detectar cualquier descarga desde el área de manejo de desperdicios. a. Para una facilidad consistente de solo un embalse superficial, relleno o facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno, el área de disposición de desperdicio estara comprendida por el perimetro del limite del embalse, relleno o área de tratamiento. b. Para una facilidad consistente de más de un embalse superficial, relleno, el área de manejo de desperdicio estará comprendida por el área imaginaria que circunscribe los varios componentes de manejo del desperdicio. 3. Cada pozo de monitoria estará revestido en tal forma que mantenga la integridad de la capa del pozo de monitoria. La tuberla de revestimiento estará perforada o rellenada con gravilla o arena hasta donde sea necesario, que permita la toma de muestras o profundidades donde existen las zonas de flujo apropiado del acuifero. El espacio anular (ej., el
espacio entre la capa y la tuber1a de revestimiento del pozo) sobre la profundidad de muestreo deberá estar sellado con un material adecuado (ej., lechada de cemento o pasta de bentonita) para evitar la contaminacion de las muestras y del agua subterranea.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.91.
Se enmienda el incios (1) de la Regla I-804 C para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 C Plan de Muestreo y Análisis del Agua Subterránea
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.92.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (1) incisos
(a) ,
(b) y
(c) para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 D
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.93
(a) (1), (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. Si las comparaciones con los pozos gradiente arriba demuestran aumentos significativos (o reduccion del pH ), el dueño u operador deberá someter dicha informacion a la Junta. Si la comparacion de los pozos gradiente abajo demuestran un aumento significativo (o reduccion, del pH ), el dueño u operador entonces deberá inmediatamente obtener muestras adicionales del agua subterranea de los pozos gradiente abajo donde se detecto la diferencia significativa, dividir las muestras en dos (2) y obtener analisis independiente de las muestras adicionales para determinar si la diferencia significativa se debio a un error de laboratorio.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(c) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (4) en sus sub-incisos
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) . Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Dentro de quince (15) dias luego del aviso inicial bajo el inciso 4
(a) anterior, el dueño u operador desarrollara y someter a la Junta un plan especifico basado en el bosquejo más comprensivo de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterránea requerido bajo el párrafo (1) de esta regla y lo someterá con una certificación de un geólogo cualificado o de un ingeniero cualificado en suelos, para un programa de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterránea en la facilidad.
(c) El plan a ser sometido bajo la Regla I-804 A (4)(a) o el
(b) anterior. (1) El número, localización y profundidad de los pozos; (2) Los métodos de muestreo y análisis para el desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyente en la facilidad; y (3) Los procedimientos de evaluación incluyendo cualquier uso de informacion sobre la calidad del agua subterranea obtenida previamente; y (4) Un itinerario de implementacion.
(d) El dueño u operador debera implementar el plan de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterranea, y como minimo determinara:
(1) La tasa y el grado de migracion del desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes en el agua subterranea; y (2) Las concentraciones del desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes en el agua subterranea.
(e) El dueño u operador hará su primera determinación de Estas materias tan pronto como técnicamente le sea posible, y dentro de quince (15) dias luego de la determinacion, someterá a la Junta un informe escrito conteniendo una evaluacion de la calidad del agua subterranea.
(f) Si el dueño u operador determina, basado en los resultados de la primera determinacion segun la Regla I-804 D (4)
(d) que ningan desperdicio peligroso o constituyente de desperdicio peligroso de la facilidad ha penetrado en el agua subterranea, entonces reinstalara el programa de evaluacion de indicadores descritos en la Regla I-804 C y en el párrafo D (2) de esta Regla y dentro de quince (15) dias sometera un informe escrito a la Junta.
(g) Si el dueño u operador concluye, basado en la primera determinacion requerida anteriormente en el subparrafo
(e) de este prarrafo que el desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes han penetrado desde la facilidad al agua subterranea, debera continuar con la determinacion de la taza de y el grado de migracion y de las concentraciones de desperdicio solido peligroso de o sus .....
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(d) (2) al (7).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (5) para que lea como sigue: 5. Al menos que la monitoria de agua subterranea se haga bajo la Regla I-804 D (4)
(d) , por lo menos anualmente, el duefio u operador debera evaluar la informacion sobre la elevacion superficial del agua subterranea obtenida en el parrafo (C) (5) de esta regla para determinar si los requisitos de ubicacion de los pozos de monitoria se continua satisfaciendo. Si no, el duerio u operador, inmediatamente modificara el numero, localizacion o profundidad de los pozos de monitoria para traer a cumplimiento al sistema de monitoria del agua subterranea.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(f) .
Regla I-805 Cierre y Cierre Posterior A. Cierre
a. En tal forma que: (1) Reduzca la necesidad de mantenimiento ulterior; $\dot{y}$ (2) Se controle, reduzca o elimine hasta el grado máximo posible, la emision posterior del desperdicio solido peligroso, los constituyentes del desperdicio solido peligroso, las escorrentias de aguas contaminadas, la lixiviación, o de los productos de la descomposición del desperdicio al agua subterránea, a las aguas superficiales, o a la atmósfera. b. El dueño u operador deberá proveer los sistemas y artefactos necesarios para proteger el agua subterranea y aguas superficiales y para el control de emisiones a la atmósfera. c. En el caso de facilidades de disposición en el terreno, el dueño u operador deberá cubrir los desperdicios con por lo menos dos (2) pies de material de relleno. d. El dueño u operador deberá aplicar al área suficiente material de relleno vegetativo y sembrar vegetación para evitar la erosion.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (2)
(g) y se sustituye por el siguiente texto: g. El dueño u operador de cualquier facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso debera someter un plan de cierre a la Junta para su aprobación previo a que le sea otorgado un permiso para operar. Se mantendrá
una copia de dicho plan y de toda enmienda al mismo en la facilidad hasta que el cierre se haya completado y asi se certifique segfin la Regla I-805 A (7). El plan de cierre deberá indicar los pasos necesarios para cerrar parcial o completamente la , facilidad en cualquier etapa de su vida útil y para cerrar completamente la facilidad al final de su vida operacional. El plan de cierre debera por los menos, incluir: (1) Una descripcion de como y cuándo la facilidad será cerrada parcialmente, si aplica, y como y cuando será cerrada finalmente. La descripcion deberá identificar al máximo grado la operacion de la facilidad y como se cumplirs con los requisitos de las Reglas I-805 A (2), I-805 A (5), I-805 A (6) y I-805 A (7) y los requisitos de cierre aplicables de las Reglas I-813 E, I-814 F, I-815 J, I-816 C, I-817 F, I-819 I y la Regla $\mathrm{I}-820 \mathrm{C}$. (2) Un estimado del inventario máximo de los desperdicios que estarán en almacenamiento y en tratamiento en cualquier momento durante la vida atil de la facilidad; (3) Una descripcion de los pasos necesarios para la descontaminacion de la facilidad y de su equipo durante el cierre; y (4) Un estimado del año en que se espera el cierre la facilidad y el itinerario para el cierre final de la misma. El itinerario deberá incluir, como minimo, el tiempo total que se requiere para el cierre de la facilidad y el tiempo que requiere la intervencion con las
actividades de cierre que permitan el seguimiento progresivo del cierre, (ej., en el caso de rellenos sanitarios, el tiempo estimado que se requiere para tratar y disponer de todo desperdicio inventariado y tambien debera incluirse el tiempo que requiere la colocacion de una cubierta final)."
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.112
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. Los planes deberán ser sometidos y enmendados como sigue: a. El dueño u operador someterf su plan de cierre a la Junta por lo menos 180 dias antes de la fecha que espera comenzar con el cierre. El dueño u operador someterf su plan de cierre a la Junta no más de 15 días después de:
(i) La finalizacion del status interino (excepto cuando se emite un permiso a la facilidad simultáneamente con la finalizacion del status interino); o (ii) La emision de un decreto judicial u orden de cumplimiento bajo la Seccion 3008 de la Ley Federal de Conservacion y Recuperacion de Recursos o la Ley de Politica Pablica Ambiental, Ley 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, para cesar de recibir desperdicios o cerrar; o
(11i) La emision de una orden administrativa emitida por la Junta a estos efectos. (COMENTARIO: La fecha para el comienzo del cierre debera ser despues de los 30 dias en que se espera recibir el altimo volumen de desperdicios). b. La Junta proveera al dueño u operador y al pab1ico, a traves de un aviso pab1ico en el periodico, la oportunidad para someter comentarios por escrito sobre el plan y solicitar modificaciones al mismo dentro de 30 dias de la fecha del aviso. Se podra celebrar una vista publica a discreacion de la Junta o la solicitud de parte, cuando la misma puede clarificar uno o más puntos de importancia concernintes al plan de cierre. La Junta dara un aviso pablico de la vista al menos 30 dias antes de su celebracion (el anuncio pablico sobre la vista podra ser simultáneamente con el aviso sobre los comentarios por escrito y se podran combinar en uno solo). La Junta aprobará, modificara o desaprobara el plan dentro de 90 dias desde que fue recibido. De no aprobar el mismo, el dueño u operador deberá modificar el plan o someter uno nuevo para la aprobacion dentro de 30 dias. La Junta aprobará o modificara este plan dentro de 60 dias por escrito. De ser modificado por la Junta, este plan modificado se convertira en el plan de cierre aprobado. La Junta se asegurara que el plan de cierre aprobado es consistente con
las Reglas I-805 A (2)
(a) (1) y (2), I-805 A (5), (6), (7) de la subparte I y los requisitos aplicables de las Reglas 813 E, 817 F, 819 I, 816 C, I-814 F, I-815 J y 820 C de la subparte I. Una copia del plan modificado sera enviada por correo al duetto u operador. c. El duetto u operador podra enmendar su plan de cierre en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. (La vida activa de la facilidad es aquel periodo durante el cual los desperdicios se reciben periodicamente). El duetto u operador debera enmendar su plan de cierre cada vez que hayan cambios en el plan de operaciones o en el disefo de la facilidad que afecte el plan de cierre, o cuando haya un cambio en el año en que se esperaba el cierre de la facilidad. El plan de cierre debera ser enmendado dentro de los sesenta (60) dias de ocurrir algin cambio.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.112
(c) ,
(d) y
(b) , respectivamente.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (7) para que lea como sigue: 7. Al completarse el cierre, debera someterse a la Junta una certificacion de cierre por el duetto u operador y por un ingeniero licenciado para ejercer la profesion en Puerto Rico y confirmando que la facilidad ha sido cerrada de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.115.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 B (1)
(f) para que lea como sigue: f. El dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion deberá proveer para el mantenimiento de cierre-posterior de acuerdo con el plan de cierre-posterior (descrito más adelante) por lo menos por un periodo de treinta (30) años después del cierre. De todas formas, este periodo de 30 días podrá ser descontinuado o alterado si el dueño u operador puede demostrar a satisfaccion de la Junta que la facilidad de disposicion no representa una amenaza a la salud humana o al ambiente. El finalizar el periodo de tiempo especificado, la Junta determinará si se continúa o se termina la custodia y el mantenimiento de cierre-posterior en la facilidad.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR 265.117
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 B (2)
(a) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 2. El dueño u operador deberá someter tambien el plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta de acuerdo con los siguientes requisitos: a. Seis (6) meses después de la fecha de vigencia de este reglamento, el dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion de desperdicio solido peligroso deberá tener un plan escrito de cierre-posterior. Deberá tenerlo en la facilidad hasta que comienze el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior. Este plan debe identificar las actividades que se llevarán a cabo después del cierre final y
las frecuencias de esas actividades y deberá hacerlo con suficiente detalle para demostrar a la Junta que serán satisfechos todos los requisitos de cierre-posterior. El plan de cierre-posterior deberá incluir por lo menos:
(i) Una descripción de las actividades planificadas para el muestreo del agua subterránea y de las frecuencias en que éstas se efectuarán (segun especificado en la Regla 804 de este reglamento) durante el cierre-posterior; y (ii) Una descripcion de las actividades de mantenimiento planificadas y las frecuencias con que las mismas serán efectuadas para asegurar que:
(a) La integridad de la capa y cubierta final u otra estructura de contención segin se especifica en las Reglas 817 (B), 817 (F), 816 (C) y 819 (I), donde aplique, y
(b) El funcionamiento del equipo de muestreo de la facilidad segin se especifica en la Regla 804. b. El dueño u operador podrá enmendar el plan de cierre-posterior cada vez que cambios en los planes de operacion o el diseno de las facilidades afecten el plan de cierre-posterior.
c. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de disposicion de desperdicio solido peligroso debera someter su plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta a tenor con todos los procedimientos para conceder un permiso para operar establecidos en la Parte IX-I de este reglamento. d. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso deberá someter su plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta, por lo menos ciento ochenta (180) dias antes de la fecha que espera comenzar el cierre. La Junta podra modificar, aprobar o desaprobar el plan dentro de noventa (90) dias a partir del recibo y luego de conceder al duefio u operador y al público en los peribdicos) la oportunidad de someter comentarios por escrito. Cualquier enmienda al plan que ocurra despues del cierre deberá tambien ser aprobada por la Junta. e. El plan de cierre-posterior (o periodo) puede ser modificado durante el periodo de cierre-posterior - al final del periodo de cierre-posterior de una de las siguientes maneras: (1) El duefio u operador o cualquier miembro del público podra solicitar a la Junta que extienda, reduzca o altere los requisitos del periodo de cierre-posterior basado en justa causa. (1) La peticion deberá incluir evidencia demostrando de que:
(A) La naturaleza segura de la facilidad hace innecesario los requisitos del cierre posterior o sostiene una reduccion en el periodo de cuidado de cierre-posterior especificado en el plan de cierre posterior corriente (Ejemplo: lixiviacion o resultados del muestreo de agua subterranea, caracteristicas del desperdicio, la aplicacion de tecnologia avanzada, métodos alternos de disposicion, tratamiento, o técnicas de reutilizacion, indican que la facilidad es segura); o......
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 D (4) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 4. El duefio u operador deberá someter a la Junta de Planificacion y a la Junta de Calidad Ambiental un registro de tipo, ubicacion y cantidad del desperdicio solido peligroso dispuesto dentro de cada celda o Srea de la facilidad. El duefio u operador deberá identificar el tipo, ubicacion y cantidad de desperdicios peligrosos dispuestos dentro de cada celda o Srea de la facilidad. Con relacion a los desperdicios dispuestos antes de que estos reglamentos fueran promulgados, el duefio u operador deberá identificar el tipo, ubicacion y cantidad de tal desperdicio de acuerdo con lo mejor de su conocimiento y de acuerdo con cualquier registro que haya mantenido.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.119.
Se enmienda la Regla I-807 I para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-807 I - Análisis Fisico y Químico
(a) Todo dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sOlido peligroso deberá obtener un análisis físico y químico detallado y completo de una muestra representativa de todo desperdicio que sea manejado en la facilidad antes de iniciar el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de cualquier desperdicio solido peligroso. Como minimo, este análisis deberá incluir toda la informacion necesaria para tratar, almacenar o disponer del desperdicio de acuerdo con esta reglamentacion.
(b) El análisis podrá incluir datos desarrollados de acuerdo con la Parte VI de esta reglamentacion y la informacion existente publicada o documentada sobre desperdicios peligrosos o desperdicios generados de procesos similares. (COMENTARIO: Por ejemplo, los registros de analisis de la facilidad realizados sobre el desperdicio antes de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion, o los estudios realizados sobre el desperdicio peligroso generado de procesos similares a aquellos que generan el desperdicio a ser manejado en la facilidad, podrán ser incluidas en la informacion base requerida para cumplir con el párrafo 1
(a) de esta Regla. El dueño u operador de una facilidad fuera de su localizacion podrá llegar a un acuerdo con el generador del desperdicio solido peligroso para que le supla parte o toda la informacion requerida en el
parrafo 1
(a) de esta Regla. Si el generador no suple la informacion, y el duefio u operador escoge aceptar el desperdicio peligroso, el duefio u operador es responsable de obtener la informacion requerida para cumplir con esta Regla.)
(c) El anâlisis detallado del desperdicio deberá ser efectuado como minimo anualmente o repetido tantas veces como sea necesario para asegurarse de que es correcto y que se mantiene al dia. Como minimo, el anâlisis deberá ser repetido: (1) Cuando el duefio u operador es notificado, o tiene razones para creer que el proceso o la operacion que genera el desperdicio peligroso ha cambiado; y (ii) Para las facilidades fuera de su localizacion, cuando los resultados de la inspeccion requerida en el parrafo (1)
(d) de esta Regla indiquen que el desperdicio solido peligroso recibido en la facilidad no concuerda con el desperdicio designado en el manifiesto o en los papeles de embarque que los acompañan.
(d) El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso fuera de su localizacion deberá inspeccionar y si es necesario muestrear cada cargamento de camiones, embarque, o lote de desperdicio solido peligroso designado para almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposicion en la facilidad para determinar si la identidad de éste concuerda con el desperdicio especificado en el manifiesto, o en los papeles de embarque que los acompañan.
(a) Los parámetros para los cuales cada desperdicio peligroso deberá ser analizado y la razón para la selección de estos parámetros. (También demostrar como el analisis para estos parâmetros proporcionara suficiente informacion sobre las propiedades del desperdicio para cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta Regla);
(b) El método a utilizarse para probar estos parâmetros;
(c) El método de toma de muestras que será utilizado para obtener una muestra representativa del desperdicio a ser analizado. Una muestra representativa puede ser obtenida utilizando uno de los siguientes métodos:
(i) Uno de los métodos de muestreo descritos en el Anejo B-2 este reglamento; o (ii) Un método de muestreo equivalente según aprobado por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental.
(d) La frecuencia con que el análisis original del desperdicio debe ser revisado o repetido para garantizar que el mismo es correcto y se encuentra al dia;
(e) Para las facilidades fuera de su localizacion el analisis del desperdicio que los generadores de desperdicios peligrosos han acordado suplir; y
(f) Cuando apliquen, los métodos a utilizarse para cumplir los requisitos adicionales de analisis de desperdicio para métodos específicos de manejo de desperdicios según las Reglas I-813 C, I-817 C, I-818 C, I-819 C, I-816 F, I-814 D, I-815 E, y I-820 B de este Reglamento. 3. Para facilidades fuera de su localización, el plan de analisis de desperdicio requerido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla debe especificar tambien los procedimientos que serán utilizados para inspeccionar y si es necesario, analizar todo movimiento de desperdicio peligroso recibido en la facilidad para garantizar que es exacto al desperdicio designado en el manifiesto que los acompaña o los papeles de embarque. Como minimo, este plan debe describir:
(a) Los procedimientos que serán utilizados para determinar la identidad de todo movimiento de desperdicio manejado en la facilidad; y
(b) Los métodos de anâlisis que serán utilizados para obtener una muestra representativa del desperdicio a ser identificado, si el método de identificación incluye muestreo. 4. Ningún duento u operador deberá aceptar cualquier desperdicio solido peligroso a menos que el receptáculo en el que se transporta el desperdicio tenga fijado un rótulo de identificacion incluyendo lo siguiente:
a. Nombre del generador, b. Tipo de desperdicio, c. Nombre genérico del componente predominente del desperdicio peligroso, d. Fecha de envasado, y e. Número del manifiesto. 5. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sOlido peligroso no deberá tratar o disponer de desperdicio inflamable, corrosivo, toxico, reactivos, volatiles o incompatibles en un relleno, embalse superficial, o facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno, a menos que el dueño u operador pueda demostrar a la Junta, en el momento de solicitar un permiso de operación que tal facilidad de tratamiento o de disposicion no habrá de: a. Afectar la integridad estructural de la facilidad de tratamiento, embalse superficial, o relleno, o b. Afectar la capacidad de atenuación de la facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno a traves de la generación de calor, fuegos o reacciones explosivas.
Esta Regla I-807 I equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.13.
Se enmienda la Regla I-808 C que en lo sucesivo leerá:
Regla I-808 C - Adiestramiento del Personal
(a) El personal de la facilidad, deberá completar satisfactoriamente un programa de instruccion o adiestramiento en el trabajo que los capacite para efectuar sus labores en forma tal que asegure el cumplimiento de la facilidad con los requisitos de este reglamento. El dueño u operador, deberá asegurarse que dicho programa incluya todos los elementos descritos en el documento requerido bajo el párrafo 4(c) de esta Regla.
(b) Este programa deberá ser dirigido por una persona adiestrada en los procedimientos de manejo de desperdicio peligroso y deberá incluir lecciones que enseñen al personal de la facilidad los procedimientos para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos (incluyendo la implementacion del plan de contingencia) que son relevantes a las posiciones en las cuales ellos est in empleados.
(c) Como mínimo, el programa de adiestramiento deberá ser diseñado para garantizar que el personal de la facilidad pueda responder efectivamente a las emergencias, familiarizándolos con los procedimientos equipo y sistemas de emergencia, incluyendo donde sea aplicable: (1) Procedimientos para utilizar, inspeccionar, reparar y reponer el equipo de emergencia y monitoria de la facilidad.
(ii) Controles claves para el cierre automático de los alimentadores del desperdicio. (iii) Los sistemas de comunicacion o alarmas. (iv) Procedimientos de reaccion a fuegos o explosiones;
(v) Procedimientos de reaccion a incidentes de contaminacion del agua subterranea. (vi) Procedimientos para el cese de operaciones. 2. El personal de la facilidad debera completar satisfactoriamente el programa de instruccion requerido anteriormente en el Parrafo 1 dentro de seis (6) meses despues de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion o dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de empleo o nombramiento a una facilidad, o que se le asigne a una nueva posición en la facilidad, el plazo que resultase mayor. Aquellos empleados reclutados despues de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion no podrán trabajar en posiciones no supervisadas hasta tanto hayan completado los requisitos de adiestramiento del Parrafo 1 de esta Regla. 3. El personal de la facilidad debera tomar un repaso anual del adiestramiento inicial requerido en el Parrafo l(a) de esta Regla. 4. El duefio u operador mantendrá los siguientes documentos y registros en la facilidad:
(a) El titulo del puesto para cada posición en la facilidad relacionada con el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos y el nombre del empleado ocupando cada puesto.
(b) Una descripcion escrita del puesto para cada posición mencionada en el parrafo 4(a) de esta Regla. Esta descripcion debera ser consistente en su especificidad con las descripciones de otras posiciones similares en la misma compan1a, pero deberá incluir los requisitos de destrezas, educacion u otras calificaciones y deberes del personal de la facilidad asignado a cada posiC16n;
(c) Una descripcion escrita del tipo y cantidad de los adiestramientos introductorios y continuos que seran ofrecidos a cada persona ocupando una posición de las mencionadas en el parrafo 4(a) de esta Regla.
(d) Registros que comprueben que los adiestramientos - experiencia de trabajo requerido según parrafos (1), (2) y (3) de esta Regla han sido ofrecidos y completados por el personal de la facilidad. 5. Los registros de adiestramiento del personal activo deberán mantenerse hasta el cierre de la facilidad. Los registros de adiestramiento de personal anterior deben mantenerse al menos por un periodo de tiempo de tres (3) años contados a partir de la fecha en que el empleado trabajo por altima vez en la facilidad. Los
registros de adiestramiento de personal pueden estar acompañados por los de personal transferido dentro de la misma compania.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.16.
Se enmienda la Regla I-814 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-814 Incineradores A. Aplicabilidad
a) Duettos u operadores de incineradores de desperdicios peligrosos segun definido en la Parte I. b) Duettos u operadores que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas de vapor o en hornos industriales de manera que se destruyan los mismos, o que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas u hornos industriales para propósitos de reciclaje y eligen ser regulados por esta regla.
a) Est clasificado como desperdicio peligroso en la Parte VI de este Reglamento, unicamente porque es inflamable (Código de Peligro I), corrosivo (Código de Peligro C), o ambos; o b) Est clasificado como desperdicio peligroso en la Parte VI de este Reglamento, unicamente porque es reactivo (Código de Peligro R) por otras caracteristicas que las mencionadas en la Regla 604 C (3) y (4), y no ser in quemados cuando esten presentes en la zona de combust1on otros desperdicios peligrosos; o c) Es un desperdicio peligroso finicamente porque posee la caracteristica de inflamable, corrosivo, o ambas, segin determinado por la prueba para caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos incluidas en la Parte VI de este Reglamento; o
d) Es un desperdicio peligroso únicamente porque posee la caracteristica de reactividad descrita por la Regla 604 C (1), (2), (3), (6), (7) u (8) de este Reglamento, y no sera quemado cuando esten presentes en la zona de combust16n otros desperdicios peligrosos.
Esta regla corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 265.340.
Se enmienda la Regla I-814 para añadirle un nuevo inciso G que leera como sigue: G. Status Interino para Incineradores quemando Desperdicios Peligrosos Particulares.
a) El dueño u operador someterá una solicitud a la Junta conteniendo la informacion aplicable de las Reglas I-903 F y I-906, demostrativa de que el incinerador puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento cuando quemen estos desperdicios.
b) La Junta emitira una decision tentativa de si el incinerador puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento. La decision tentativa se notificara mediante un aviso público en un periodico y por radio en la jurisdiccion donde se encuntra localizado el incinerador. La Junta aceptara comentarios sobre la decisión tentativa por un periodo 60 dias y podra a su discreción o a petición de parte interesada celebrar una vista pública al respecto. c. Luego de finalizar el periodo para que el público comente la Junta emitira su decisión de certificar o no al incinerador.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.352.
Se enmienda la Regla I-815 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-815 Tratamiento Termal A. Aplicabilidad
Esta regla corresponde con el 40 CFR Sección 265.370.
Se enmienda la Regla I-815 para añadirle un nuevo inciso $K$ que lee como sigue: K. Status Interino para Artefactos de Tratamiento Termal Quemando Desperdicios Peligrosos Particulares.
a) El dueño u operador someterá una solicitud a la Junta conteniendo la informacion aplicable de las Regla I-903 F y I-906, demostrativa de que la unidad de tratamiento termal puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento cuando quemen estos desperdicios. b) La Junta emitira una decision tentativa de si la unidad de tratamiento termal puede satisfacer las normas de cumpliento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento. La decision tentativa se notificara mediante un aviso público en un periodico y por radio en la jurisdiccion donde se encuentra localizada la unidad de tratamiento termal. La Junta aceptara comentarios
sobre la decisión tentativa por un periodo de 60 dias y podra a su discreción o a petición de parte interesada celebrar una vista pública al respecto. c) Luego de finalizar el periodo para el público comente la Junta emitira su decisión de certificar o no a la unidad de tratamiento termal.
Este nuevo Inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.383.
Regla I-816 B
(i) (A) El "monofill" posee al menos un revestimiento del cual no hay evidencia de que este filtrando. Para propositos de esta regla, cuando hablamos de revestimiento nos referimos al revestimiento disefiado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que desperdicios peligrosos pasen dentro del mismo en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad o para evitar que
desperdicios peligrosos migren mas alla del revestimiento hacia el subsuelo adyacente, agua subterranea o superficial en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. En caso de que cualquier embalse superficial exento de los requisitos de la Regla I-817 B (1) a base de un revestimiento disenado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos pasen mas alla del revestimiento, al cierre de dicho embalse el duefio u operador debera, al grado que sea práctico, remover o decontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y todo terreno contaminado. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o decontaminado, el duefio u operador de dicho embalse debera cumplir con los requisitos apropiados del periodo de cierre posterior incluyendo pero no limitado a monitoria de agua subterranea y accion correctiva. (B) El "monofill" esta localizado a mas de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterranea de agua potable; y (C) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permiso bajo esta parte y la sección 3005
(c) de RCRA.
(ii) El duefio u operador demostrará que el "monofill" esta localizado, disefiado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra constituyente peligroso que migre hacia el agua subterránea o superficial en el futuro. 5. En caso de que alguna unidad en donde se haya instalado un revestimiento y sistema de recolección de lixiviacion segin requisitos del inciso (1) de esta regla y que cumpla de buena fe con dicho inciso y con los documentos y guias que regulan los revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion bajo el inciso (1) de esta regla, ningfin revestimiento o sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion que sea diferente de aquel que fue instalado segin el inciso (1) de esta regla se requerira por la Junta para dicha unidad al expedir el primer permiso a esa facilidad, excepto que la Junta no excluirá el requerir la instalacion de un nuevo revestimiento cuando tenga razones para creer que algin revestimiento instalado de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla esta filtrando.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 C (4) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: (4) 1. Al cierre final del relleno o cualquier celda, el duefio u operador colocara una cubierta final sobre los mismos, diseñada y construida para: a. Proveer por largo término la reduccion al minimo de la migracion de liquidos hacia el relleno cerrado; b. Funcionar con el mantenimiento minimo;
c. Promover el drenaje y reducir al minimo la erosic6n y abrasion de la cubierta; d. Ajustar los hundimientos y desplomes de modo que se mantenga la integridad de la cubierta; y e. Tener una permeabilidad menor o igual a la permeabilidad de cualquier sistema inferior de revestimiento o subsuelo natural presente. 2. Después del cierre final, el duefio u operador deberá cumplir con todos los requisitos de cierre posterior contenidos en las Reglas I-805 B (1)
(f) a I-805 C, incluyendo mantenimiento y monitorla durante todo el periodo de cierre posterior. El duefio u operador deberá: a. Mantener la integridad y efectividad de la cubierta final, incluyendo el hacer reparaciones a la cubierta que sean necesarias para corregir los efectos de hundimiento, desplome, erosión u otros eventos; b. Mantener y supervisar el sistema de monitorla de agua subterránea y cumplir con todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla I-804; c. Evitar que las escorrentias hacia y desde la facilidad puedan corroer o de otra manera dañar la cubierta final; y
d. Proteger y mantener las marcas fijadas establecidas por levantamiento topográfico usadas en el cumplimiento con la Regla I-816 B (6).
Este inciso corresponde con el 40 CFR Seccion 265.310.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 D para añadir un inciso
(b) que leerá como sigue:
Desperdicios inflamables en receptáculos podrán ser dispuestos en rellenos sin reunir los requisitos del primer párrafo de esta Regla si son dispuestos de manera tal que sean protegidos de cualquier material o condiciones que pudieran causar que los mismos se incendien. Como minimo, los desperdicios inflamables deberán ser dispuestos en receptáculos que no tengan escapes, manejados y colocados cuidadosamente para evitar el calor, chispas, roturas, u otra condicion que pudiera causar el incendio de los desperdicios, deberán estar cubiertos diariamente con tierra u otro material no combustible para minimizar el potencial de incendio de los desperdicios y no deberán ser dispuestos en celdas que contengan o puedan contener otros desperdicios que pudieran generar suficiente calor como para causar el incendio del desperdicio.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.312.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 F para que lea como sigue: 2. Receptáculo conteniendo liquidos libres no podrán colocarse en un relleno, a menos que: a. Todo liquido libre sostenido que haya sido removido por decantación u otro método que haya sido mezclado con un absorbente o solidificado a fin de que el liquido libre no se observe, o sea de otra manera eliminado; o b. El receptáculo sea muy pequeño, tal como una ampolleta; o c. El receptáculo esta diseñado para contener los liquidos libres para otro uso que no sea el almacenamiento, tal como una baterfa o condensador; 0 d. El receptáculo es un receptáculo sobre forrado ("paquetes de laboratorio") segfin se define y se dispone del mismo en la Regla I-816 H. 3. Para demostrar la ausencia o presencia de liquidos libres a un desperdicio en un receptáculo a granel se utilizara la prueba: Metodo 9095 segin decrito en Metodo de Análisis para evaluar desperdicios solidos métodos físicos y químicos (Publicacion de la APA No. SW-846). 4. La fecha para cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta regla es el 19 de noviembre de 1981. La fecha para cumplir con el párrafo (3) de esta regla es el 22 de marzo de 1982 .
a) La única alternativa razonablemente disponible para la colocación del liquido es en dicho relleno o en un embalse superficial sin revestimiento, que contenga o razonablemente se anticipe que contenga desperdicios peligrosos, aunque no tenga permiso u este operando bajo status interino; y b) La colocacion en el relleno de dicho dueño u operador no representaria un riesgo de contaminacion a alguna fuente subterranea de agua potable.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.314.
Se enmienda el lenguaje de la Regla I-816 G, que en lo sucesivo leera: G. Requisitos Especiales para la Disposicion de Receptáculos.
A menos que los receptáculos sean muy pequeños tal como una ampolleta; deberin:
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.315.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: B. Requisitos de Diseño
práctico, remover o decontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y todo terreno contaminado. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o decontaminado, el dueño u operador de dicho embalse deberá cumplir con los requisitos apropiados del periodo de cierre posterior incluyendo pero no limitado a monitoria de agua subterranea y acción correctiva. (B) El "monofill" esta localizado a mas de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterranea de agua potable; y
(c) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permiso bajo esta parte y la Sección 3005
(c) de RCRA. (ii) El dueño u operador demostrará que el "monofill" esta localizado, diseñado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habrá constituyente peligroso que migre hacia el agua subterranea o superficial en el futuro. 5. En caso de que alguna unidad en donde se haya instalado un revestimiento y sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion según requisitos del inciso (1) de esta regla y que cumpla de buena fe con dicho inciso y con los documentos y guias que regulan los revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion bajo el inciso (1) de esta regla, ningGn revestimiento o sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion que sea diferente de aquel que fue instalado segin el inciso (1) de esta regla se requerira por la Junta para dicha unidad al expedir el
primer permiso a esa facilidad, excepto que la Junta no excluirá el requerir la instalación de un nuevo revestimiento cuando tenga razones para creer que algún revestimiento instalado de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla esta filtrando.
Esta Regla I-817 B es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 265.221.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 B (17) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 17. Un embalse superficial debe mantener suficiente espacio libre para prevenir cualquier desbordamiento del dique causado por haberse llevado en exceso, acción de las olas o una tormenta. El espacio libre debe ser de al menos 60 centimetros (dos pies).
Esta enmienda es mas restrictiva que el 40 CFR Seccion 265.222.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 G en su segundo inciso para sustituir el lenguaje del mismo y añadir a su vez un nuevo inciso (3) los que leerán como sigue: 2.
(a) El desperdicio sea manejado de manera tal que se encuentre protegido de cualquier material o condicion que pueda causar que Este reaccione o se incendie; y
(b) El duefio u operador obtendr8 una certificacion de un químico cualificado o ingeniero licenciado para practicar la profesion en Puerto Rico que, a su mejor entender y opinion, certifique que el disefo estructural y el plan de operaciones de la facilidad evitarian que este reaccione o se inflame; y 3. El embalse superficial se utilice exclusivamente para emergencias.
Ambos incisos de la Regla I-817 G equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.229
(b) (1), (2) y
(c) .
Se enmienda la Reg19 207 y se sustituye por el guiente texto:
Regla 207 - Plan de Operacion
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. One of the key principles in quantum mechanics is the wave-particle duality, which states that particles can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The primary objective of this research is to explore the interaction between light and matter at the quantum level. Specifically, we aim to:
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. The findings of this research are particularly relevant for the study of quantum systems.
The concept of wave-particle duality is central to understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
The principle of superposition is fundamental to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This is mathematically represented by a wave function, denoted as $$|\psi angle$$. This function is defined as:
$$ |\psi angle = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} e^{-in \psi n} $$
where $$|\psi angle$$ is the wave function, and $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{-in \psi n}$$ is the entanglement. Entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle is in a consistent state.
The principle of uncertainty principle is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. It is expressed as:
$$ \Delta x \cdot \Delta y \geq \frac{\hbar}{2} $$
where $$\Delta x$$ is the uncertainty in position, $$\Delta y$$ is the uncertainty in position, and $$\hbar$$ is the reduced Planck constant.
The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental conditions were as follows:
Data was collected over a period of three months. The data was analyzed using statistical methods and machine learning algorithms. The data was analyzed using statistical software to ensure accuracy.
The experimental results revealed that the light can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The experimental results showed that the light can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The study of quantum mechanics has transformed our understanding of the microscopic world. The findings of this research are consistent with the theoretical predictions and practical applications of quantum mechanics.
-VII-
40 CFR 266
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE XI
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. One of the key principles in quantum mechanics is the wave-particle duality, which states that particles can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The primary objective of this research is to explore the interaction between light and matter at the quantum level. Specifically, we aim to:
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. The findings of this research are particularly relevant for the study of quantum systems.
The concept of wave-particle duality is central to understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
The principle of superposition is fundamental to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics, with quantum entanglement and entanglement key. Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle instantly affects the state of the other, regardless of the distance between them. Entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of the other is not correlated.
The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles.
The observations from the experimental setup revealed that the interference patterns observed in the laser source were consistent with the observed patterns. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The analysis of the experimental data revealed that the interference patterns observed in the laser source were consistent with the observed patterns. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The study of quantum mechanics has transformed our understanding of the microscopic world. The results support the theoretical framework of quantum mechanics and provide a framework for describing the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level. The findings of this research are consistent with the theoretical framework of quantum mechanics and provide a framework for understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
Se enmienda el Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S6lidos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos para añadir lo siguiente como Parte XI:
Parte XI Normas para el Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos Espec1ficos y Tipos Espec1ficos de Facilidades para el Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos.
Regla 1101-1102 (Reservada)
Regla 1103 Materiales Reciclables Utilizados en una Forma que Constituya Disposición. A. Aplicabilidad
(s) ; 0 b. Después de mezclarlos con cualquier otra substancia
(s) , a menos que el material reciclable sufra una reaccion química de forma que se vuelve inseparable de la otra substancia
(s) por medios físicos; 0 c. Después de combinarlos con cualquier otra substancia
(s) si el material combinado resultante no es producido para uso público general. Estos materiales se mencionaran a traves de esta Regla como "materiales utilizados en una forma que constituye disposicion."
Generadores y transportadores de materiales que son utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion están sujetos a los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este reglamento, y a los requisitos de notificación bajo la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). C. Normas aplicables a almacenadores de materiales que van a ser utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion y que no son los últimos usuarios.
Los dueños u operadores de facilidades que almacenan materiales reciclables que serán utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion, pero que no son los altimos usuarios de los materiales, están reglamentados bajo todas las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas II-801 a II-812, I-801 a
I-818, 502 a 505, de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento y de los requisitos de notificación bajo la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). D. Normas aplicables a usuarios de materiales que son utilizados en una forma que constituye disposicion.
Regla 1104 Desperdicio Peligroso Quemado para el Recobro de Energia. A. Aplicabilidad
Reglas I-814 6 II-815 de este reglamento, excepto lo que se provee en el inciso A (2) de esta regla. Estos desperdicios peligrosos quemados para el recobro de energía serán denominados como "combustible de desperdicio peligroso". El combustible producido de los desperdicios peligrosos por medio del procesamiento, mezclado de desperdicio peligroso o de cualquier otro tratamiento es tambien combustible de desperdicio peligroso. (Esta regla no aplica, sin embargo, al gas recobrado de actividades de manejo de desperdicio peligroso cuando ese gas es quemado para el recobro de energía). 2. Los siguientes desperdicios peligrosos no están sujetos a reglamentación bajo esta regla: a. Aceite usado quemado para el recobro de energía que es tambien un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque exhibe una caracteristica de desperdicio peligroso identificado en la Regla 604 de este reglamento. Dicho aceite usado esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo la Regla 1105 y no bajo esta regla; y b. Desperdicios peligrosos que están exentos de reglamentacion bajo las exclusiones de materiales que no son desperdicio solido y la Regla 606 B (1)
(c) (5)-(9) de este reglamento, y desperdicios peligrosos que están sujetos a los requisitos especiales para generadores de pequeñas cantidades bajo la Regla 606 A de este reglamento.
B. Prohibiciones
(2) Calderas de Servicio utilizadas para producir energia eléctrica, vapor, o aire caliente o frio u otros gases o fluidos para la venta. 3. Ningún combustible que contenga cualquier desperdicio peligroso puede ser quemado en ningGn horno de cemento que estE localizado dentro de los limites de cualquier municipalidad con una población mayor de 500,000 (basada en el mas reciente censo estadistico) a menos que ese horno cumpla completamente con la reglamentacion aplicable a incineradores. C. Normas aplicables a generadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
D. Normas aplicables a transportadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Transportadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso (y desperdicio peligroso utilizado para producir combustible) están sujetos a las Reglas $504,505,706$ y 707 de este reglamento. E. Normas aplicables a mercaderes de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Aquellas personas que mercadean combustible de desperdicio peligroso serán denominadas como "mercaderes", y están sujetos a los siguientes requisitos. Entre los mercaderes se incluyen generadores que mercadean combustible de desperdicio peligroso directamente a un quemador, personas que reciben desperdicio peligroso de generadores y producen, procesan o mezclan combustible de desperdicio peligroso de estos desperdicios peligrosos y personas que distribuyen pero no procesan o mezclan combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
peligrosos y haya obtenido un Número de Identificacion de la APA, debe volver a notificar para identificar sus actividades con combustible de desperdicio peligroso; 3. Almacenaje. Las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas 704 D, II-801 a II-812, I-801 a I-818 y la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; 4. Embarque fuera de la facilidad. Las normas para generadores establecidas en las Reglas 503 a 505 y 702 a 705 de este reglamento cuando un mercader inicia un envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso; 5. Notificaciones requeridas. a. Antes de que un mercader inicie el primer envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso a un quemador o a otro mercader, debe obtener una notificacion escrita y firmada del quemador o mercader certificando que: (1) El quemador o mercader ha notificado a la APA bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) (enviando copia a la Junta) y ha identificado sus actividades de quema de desperdicio como combustible; y
(2) Si el recipiente es un quemador, el quemador deberá quemar el combustible de desperdicio peligroso solo en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en la Regla 607 B de este reglamento. b. Después que un mercader acepta el primer envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso de otro mercader, debe proveerle al otro mercader una certificacion escrita y firmada de que 61 ha notificado a la APA bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8), con copia a la Junta, y que ha identificado sus actividades de combustible de desperdicio peligroso; y 6. Mantenimiento de Registros. Ademas de los requisitos aplicables de mantenimiento de registros de las Reglas 503 a 505 y las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II de este reglamento, el mercader debe retener y conservar una copia de cada certificacion que reciba o envie por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha de su altima transaccion de mercadeo del combustible de desperdicio peligroso con la persona que envia o recibe la certificacion. F. Normas aplicables a quemadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Los duemos y operadores de hornos industriales y calderas identificadas en el inciso B (2) de esta regla que queman combustible peligroso son "quemadores" y esten sujetos a los siguientes requisitos:
Regla 1105 Aceite Usado que es Quemado para el Recobro de Energia. A. Aplicabilidad
"combustible de aceite usado". El combustible de aceite usado incluye cualquier combustible producido del aceite usado mediante el procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento. 2. "Aceite usado" significa cualquier aceite que ha sido refinado de aceite crudo, usado y, como resultado de dicho uso, esta contaminado por impurezas fisicas o quimicas. 3. Excepto lo que se provee en el inciso A (4) de esta regla, el aceite usado que es mezclado con desperdicio peligroso y quemado para el recobro de energia esta sujeto a reglamentacion como combustible de desperdicio peligroso bajo la Regla 1104 de este reglamento. El aceite usado que contenga mas de $1,000 \mathrm{ppm}$ de halogeno total se presume un desperdicio peligroso porque ha sido mezclado con desperdicio peligroso halogeno anotado en la Regla 607 de este reglamento. Las personas pueden refutar esta presuncion demostrando que el aceite usado no contiene desperdicio peligroso (por ejemplo, demostrando que el aceite usado no contiene concentraciones significativas de constituyentes peligrosos halogenados anotados en el Anejo C-3 de este reglamento). 4. El aceite usado quemado para recobrar energia esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo esta regla, en vez de como combustible de desperdicio peligroso bajo la Regla 1104, si es un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque:
a. Exhíbe una caracteristica de desperdicio peligroso identificada en la Regla 604 de este reglamento, siempre y cuando no este mezclado con un desperdicio peligroso; o b. Contiene desperdicio peligroso generado solo por una persona sujeta a los requisitos especiales para generadores de pequeñas cantidades bajo la Regla 606 A de este reglamento. 5. Excepto lo provisto en el inciso A (3) de esta regla, el aceite usado quemado para recobrar energía, y cualquier combustible producido de aceite usado mediante procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento, esta sujeto a reglamentación bajo esta regla, a menos que se demuestre que no excede ninguno de los niveles permitidos de los constituyentes y propiedades en la especificación mostrada en la siguiente tabla. El combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones esta sujeto solo a los requisitos de analisis y mantenimiento de registros bajo los incisos D (2)
(a) y
(f) de esta regla. El combustible de aceite usado que excede cualquier nivel de especificación es denominado como "combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones."
Aceite Usado Excediendo Cualquier Nivel de Especificacion Esta Sujeto a Esta Regla Cuando es Quemado para Recobrar Energia
(a) .
Constituyente/Propiedad Nivel Permitido
ArsEnico Cadmio Cromio Plomo Punto de Ignicion HalGgenos Totales
5 ppm máximo 2 ppm máximo 10 ppm máximo 100 ppm máximo 100 F minimo 4,000 ppm máximo
(b) (a) La especificacion no aplica a combustible de aceite usado mezclado con otro desperdicio peligroso que no sea de un generador de pequeñas cantidades de desperdicio peligroso.
(b) Aceite usado conteniendo más de $1,000 \mathrm{ppm}$ de halGgenos totales se presume que es desperdicio peligroso bajo la presuncion refutable provista bajo el inciso A (3) de esta regla. Dicho aceite usado esta sujeto a la Regla 1104 de este reglamento en vez de a esta regla cuando es quemado para recobrar energía a menos que la presunción de mezclarse pueda ser refutada satisfactoriamente. B. Prohibiciones
a. A quemadores u otros mercaderes que hayan notificado a la APA y a la Junta de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado señalando la localizacion y una descripcion general de dichas actividades, y que tengan un numero de identificacion asignado por la APA; y b. A quemadores que quemen el aceite usado en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla. 2. El aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones puede ser quemado para el recobro de energía solamente en los siguientes equipos: a. Hornos industriales identificados en la Regla 102 de este reglamento; o b. Calderas, segun definida en la Regla 102 de este reglamento, que son identificadas como sigue: (1) Calderas industriales localizadas en una facilidad que utiliza un proceso manufacturero donde las substancias son transformadas en nuevos productos, incluyendo partes que componen los productos, por medio de procesos mecánicos o químicos; (2) Calderas de Servicio utilizadas para producir energía eléctrica, vapor o aire caliente o frio u otros gases o fluidos para la venta; o
(3) Calentadores que utilizan aceite usado siempre y cuando:
(a) El calentador queme s610 el aceite usado que el dueño u operador genere o el aceite usado recibido de aquellos que generan aceite usado como desperdicio doméstico de las operaciones de cambio de aceite realizadas por ellos mismos;
(b) El calentador esta diseñado para tener una capacidad máxima de no más de 0.5 millones de BTU por hora y;
(c) Los gases de combustión del calentador sean descargados al aire. C. Normas aplicables a generadores de aceite usado que es quemado para el recobro de energía.
D. Normas aplicables a mercaderes que queman aceite usado para el recobro de energia.
(1) Número de factura; (2) Su numero de identificacion asignado por la APA y el numero de identificacion asignado por la APA a la facilidad que recibe el embarque; (3) Los nombres y direcciones de las facilidades que envian y reciben el embarque; (4) La cantidad de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones que va a ser enviado; (5) La fecha o fechas del envio o entrega; y (6) La siguiente declaracion: "Este aceite usado esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo la Parte XI del Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S61idos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos, version enmendada";
Nota: El aceite usado que cumple con la definicion de liquido combustible (punto de ignicion bajo $200^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ pero igual o mayor de $100^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ ) o liquido inflamable (punto de ignicion bajo $100^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ ) esta sujeto a la Reglamentacion de Materiales Peligrosos del Departamento de Transportacion en el 49 CFR Partes 100-177.
e. Notificaciones requeridas: (1) Antes de que un mercader inicie el primer envio de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, a un quemador u otro mercader, debe obtener una notificación escrita y firmada del quemador o mercader certificando que:
(a) El quemador o mercader ha notificado a la Junta señalando la localización y una descripción general de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
(b) Si el recibidor es un quemador, el quemador quemará el aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, solamente en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla; y (2) Antes de que un mercader acepte el primer envio de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, de otro mercader sujeto a los requisitos del inciso D de esta regla, debe proveer al mercader de una notificación escrita y firmada certificando que ha notificado a la Junta de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
f. Mantenimiento de Registros: (1) Combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones: Un mercader que reclame primero, bajo el inciso D (2)
(a) de esta regla, que el combustible de aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones debe mantener copia de los anâlisis (u otra informacion utilizada para llegar a esa determinacion) de aceite usado por tres (3) años. Esos mercaderes deben tambien registrar en un registro de operacion y mantener por tres (3) años la siguiente informacion para cada embarque de combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones. Dicho combustible de aceite usado no esta sujeto a reglamentacion adicional a menos que sea mezclado posteriormente con desperdicio peligroso - a menos que sea mezclado con aceite usado para que no cumpla mas con las especificaciones.
(a) El nombre y direccion de la facilidad que recibe el embarque;
(b) La cantidad de combustible de aceite usado entregado;
(c) La fecha del envio o entrega; y
(d) Una referencia al archivo de los analisis de aceite usado (u otra informacion utilizada para hacer la determinacion de que el aceite cumple con las especificaciones) requerido bajo el inciso (2)
(f) (1) de esta regla. (2) Combustible de Aceite Usado que no cumple con las especificaciones. Un mercader que recibe o inicia una factura bajo los requisitos del inciso D de esta regla debe mantener una copia de cada factura por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha que la factura es recibida o preparada. Además, un mercader debe mantener una copia de cada notificación que reciba o envie por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que por última vez realiz6 una transaccion de mercadeo de combustible de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, con la persona que envia o recibe la notificación sobre la certificacion. E. Normas aplicables a quemadores que queman aceite usado para el recobro de energía.
Duetios y operadores de facilidades que queman combustible de aceite usado son "quemadores" y están sujetos a los siguientes requisitos:
(b) de esta regla, estan exentos de estos requisitos de notificacion. Aán cuando un quemador haya previamente notificado a la APA (con copia a la Junta) de sus actividades de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) y haya obtenido un numero de identificacion, debe notificar nuevamente para identificar sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado. 3. Notificaciones requeridas: Antes de que un quemador acepte de un mercader el primer envio de combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones, debe proveer al mercader de una notificacion escrita y firmada certificando que: a. Ha notificado a la Junta señalando la localizacion y una descripcion general de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
b. Quemara el aceite usado en un horno industrial o caldera segin identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla; 4. Análisis de combustible de aceite usado: a. El combustible de aceite usado quemado por el generador esta sujeto a la reglamentacion bajo esta regla a menos que el quemador obtenga un analisis (u otra informacion) que documente que el aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones provistas bajo el inciso A (5) de esta regla. b. Quemadores que tratan combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones por medio de procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento para que cumpla con las especificaciones provistas bajo el inciso A (5) de esta regla, deben obtener los analisis (u otra informacion) que documenten que el aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones. 5. Mantenimiento de registros: Un quemador que recibe una factura bajo los requisitos del inciso E de esta regla debe mantener una copia de cada factura por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que se recibe la factura. Los quemadores deben mantener tambien, por tres (3) años, copia de los analisis de combustible de aceite usado segin requerido por el inciso E (4) de esta regla. Ademas, debe mantener una copia de cada notificacion que envia a un mercader por un periodo de
tres (3) años a partir de la fecha del Gltimo recibo de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones enviado por ese mercader.
Regla 1106 Materiales Reciclables Utilizados para el Recobro de Metales Preciosos. A. Aplicabilidad y requisitos.
a. Registros que muestran el volumen de estos materiales almacenados al principio del año calendario; b. La cantidad de estos materiales generados - recibidos durante el año calendario; y c. La cantidad de materiales que quedan al final del año calendario. 4. Los materiales reciclables que están regulados bajo esta regla y que son acumulados especulativamente estan sujetos a todas las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas 503, 504, 505 y las Partes VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento.
Regla 1107 Baterias Agotadas, con Electrodos de Plomo, que Han Sido Reclamadas. A. Aplicabilidad y requisitos.
Esta Parte es equivalente al 40 CFR Parte 266.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
-VIII-
40 CFR 270
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE IX - I
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (1)
(a) para sustituir la frase "en el caso de municipalidades...." por lo siguiente: "....en caso de municipalidades, agencias federales, estatales u otras por: el oficial ejecutivo principal u oficial de jerarquia electo. (Para propósitos de esta regla, un oficial ejecutivo principal u oficial de jerarquia electo incluye:
(i) el director ejecutivo de la agencia, (ii) el oficial ejecutivo mas antiguo con responsabilidad sobre toda la operación de una unidad geográfica principal de la agencia)."
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.11
(a) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 3. Cualquier persona que tiene una solicitud para un permiso para construir una facilidad nueva o modificada deberá hacer la siguiente certificacion: " Certifico bajo pena de ley que este documento y todos sus anejos fueron preparados bajo mi direccion o supervision de acuerdo a un sistema designado para asegurar que personal propiamente cualificado recopilaron y evaluaron la informacion sometida. Basado en las indagaciones que he efectuado de la persona o personas que manejan el sistema, o aquellas personas directamente responsables de recopilar la informacion, esta es, en mi mejor conocimiento y creencia, verdadera, precisa
y completa. Estoy conciente que existen penalidades significativas por someter informacion falsa incluyendo la posibilidad de multa y cárcel por violaciones conocidas.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.11.
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 K (1)
(a) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 K (1)
(a) (a) Generadores que acumulan desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por menos tiempo que aquel periodo provisto en la Regla 704 D de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.1
(c) (2)
(i) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 F (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 3. En el evento de un incumplimiento con el permiso, el solicitante debe tomar todas las medidas razonables para minimizar los escapes al ambiente, y deberá llevar a cabo estas medidas seglin sea razonable para prevenir impactos adversos significativos a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.30
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-912 B - Solicitudes de Permisos
sometida a satisfacción de la Junta. Una solicitud de permiso esta completa aunque el dueño u operador halla fallado en someter la información descrita en el inciso B (10) de esta regla. 4. Requisito de informacion. Todos los solicitantes de un permiso para manejar desperdicios peligrosos deben proveer a la Junta la informacion establecida en la Regla I-902 C y D y los requisitos aplicables de la Regla I-903 A-H, utilizando el modelo de solicitud provisto por la Junta. 5. Facilidades existente para el manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos y las cualificaciones para status interino. a. Los dueños u operadores de facilidades existentes para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos o de facilidades para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias bajo las cuales la facilidad esta sujeta a los requisitos de permiso según RCRA y/o este reglamento, tienen que someter la Parte A de su solicitud de permiso no más tarde de: (1) Seis meses después de la fecha de publicación de la reglamentacion que primero les requiere cumplir con las normas establecidas en las Partes VIII-I u XI de este reglamento, o (ii) Treinta dias después de la fecha que por primera vez estan sujetos a las normas establecidas en las Partes VIII-I u XI de este reglamento, lo que ocurra primero.
(iii) Para generadores que generan más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario y que tratan, almacenan o disponen de esos desperdicios en su facilidad, para el 24 de marzo de 1987. b. La Junta podrá extender la fecha para que los dueños u operadores de las clases especfficas de facilidades existentes de desperdicios peligrosos sometan la Parte A de su solicitud, mediante un aviso público a esos efectos, si:
(i) Existe una sustancial confusión sobre si los dueños u operadores de esas facilidades tenian que someter una solicitud, y (ii) Esta confusión es atribuible a ambiguedades de las Partes I, VI, VIII-I y XI. c. La Junta podrá extender la fecha para someter la Parte de solicitud del dueño u operador de una facilidad existente de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos mediante una orden administrativa según los poderes conferidos por la Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada. d. En cualquier momento la Junta podrá requerir al dueño y operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos que someta la Parte B de su solicitud de permiso. A todo dueño u operador se le puede permitir, al menos seis meses a partir de la fecha de solicitud, para someter la Parte B. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos puede
voluntariamente someter la Parte B de la solicitud en cualquier momento. No obstante lo anterior, cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos debe someter la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso de acuerdo con las fechas establecidas en la Regla I-917. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno, en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias que obligan a la facilidad a estar sujeta a los requisitos de tener un permiso para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos, tiene que someter la Parte B de la solicitud de acuerdo a las fechas establecidas en la Regla I-917 de este reglamento. e. El no cumplir con el requisito de someter la Parte B de su solicitud de permiso a tiempo, o el no suministrar toda la informacion requerida por la solicitud de Parte B, será motivo suficiente para dar por terminado el status interino de la facilidad según la Regla I-912. 6. Nuevas facilidades para el Manejo de los Desperdicios Peligrosos a. Excepto lo provisto en el inciso B (6)
(c) de esta regla, ninguna persona debe de comenzar la construccion fisica de una facilidad para el Manejo de los Desperdicios Peligrosos sin haber sometido la Parte A y Parte B de la solicitud de permiso y sin haber recibido finalmente un permiso valido para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos.
b. La solicitud de permiso para una nueva facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos (incluyendo Parte A y Parte B) debe ser sometida en cualquier momento después de la promulgación de los requisitos aplicables de la Parte VIII-II, para esa facilidad. Excepto lo provisto en el párrafo B (6)
(c) de esta regla, las solicitudes serán sometidas por 10 menos 180 dias antes de la fecha en que se espera comenzar la construcción de la facilidad. c. No obstante el inciso B (6)
(a) de esta regla, una persona puede construir una facilidad para la incineración de bifenilos policlorinados conforme a un permiso bajo la Sección (6)
(e) de la Ley Federal para el Control de la Substancias Toxicas y cualquier persona que sea dueta u opere una facilidad de este tipo debe, en cualquier momento despues de que la construcción u operación de esa facilidad haya comenzado, presentar una solicitud de permiso para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos para incinerar desperdicios peligrosos autorizando a esa facilidad a incinerar desperdicios identificados o anotados bajo la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 7. Actualizar las solicitudes de Permiso a. Si el dueño u operador de una facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos ha sometido la parte A de la solicitud de permiso y aún no ha sometido la Parte B, el dueño u operador deberá someter una Parte A enmendada:
(1) No mas tarde de la fecha de efectividad de una nueva reglamentacion en la que se enumeran o designan desperdicios peligrosos adicionales a los anotados o designados previamente en la reglamentacion, si ls facilidad esta tratando, almacenando o disponiendo de cualquier de estos nuevos desperdicios enumerados o designados; o (1i) Segun sea necesario para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla I-916 para realizar cambios durante el status interino. La Parte A revisada serf sometida a la Junta. b. El duefio u operador de una facilidad que no cumpla con los requisitos para actualizar su permiso segin se especifica en el parrafo B (7)
(a) de esta regla, no recibirf status interino en lo relacionado con los desperdicios no incluidos en la Parte A de su solicitud. 8. Renovacion de Permiso. Cualquier facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos con un permiso valido debera someter una solicitud de renovacion por lo menos 180 dias antes de la fecha de expiracion de dicho permiso a menos que la Junta le haya permitido solicitar el permiso en una fecha posterior. (La Junta no podra autorizar que se sometan solicitudes mas alla de la fecha de expiracion del permiso existente).
(i) El potencial de escape que razonablemente se puede preveer tanto de las operaciones normales como de accidentes en la unidad, incluyendo escapes asociados con la transportacion de o hacia la unidad; (ii) Las diferentes formas en que se puede dar la exposicion a humanos de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes que resulten de los escapes descritos en el inciso B (10)
(a) (i) de esta regla; y (iii) La posible magnitud y naturaleza de la exposicion humana resultante de esos escapes.
b. Los duemos u operadores de rellenos o embalses superficiales, que hayan sometido la Parte B de la solicitud, deben someter la informacion de exposicion requerida en el inciso B (10)
(a) de esta regla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.10.
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (1)
(b) y
(c) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 B
(a) de esta regla o por un representante autorizado de esta persona. Una persona es un representante autorizado unicamente si:
(i) La autorizacion es hecha por una persona descrita en el párrafo B (1)
(a) de esta regla; (ii) La autorizacion especificara a un individuo o una posición con responsabilidad sobre la operacion general de la facilidad o la actividad reglamentada como por ejemplo, un gerente de planta, operador de un pozo o un área de pozos, superintendente, o una posición de responsabilidad equivalente, (Por lo tanto, el representante autorizado puede ser un individuo en particular, o un individuo ocupando una posición de renombre); y
(iii) La autorizacion por escrito es sometida a la Junta. c. Cambios de autorizacion. Si una autorizacion bajo el parrafo B (1)
(b) de esta regla ya no es exacta porque un nuevo individuo o una nueva posicion tiene la responsabilidad general de la facilidad, será necesario someter una nueva autorización cumpliendo los requisitos del párrafo B (1)
(b) de esta regla antes o a la misma vez que el nuevo representanterepresentante autorizado firme registros, solicitudes o informes.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.11
(b) y
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 A
(g) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 A
(g) Una copia del plan de contingencia requerida por la Regla II-804 de este reglamento. Nota: Incluir, cuando sea aplicable, como parte del plan de contingencia, los requisitos especificos de las Reglas II-811 E y II-810 H.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.14
(b) (7).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 C para añadir lo siguiente como perrafo
Regla I-903 C (7) Cuando sea aplicable, una descripcion de los sistemas de contencion y deteccion para demostrar el cumplimiento con la Regla II-810 H incluyendo por lo menos lo siguiente:
(a) Los dibujos y una descripcion de los parämetros básicos de diseno, dimensiones y materiales de construccion del sistema de contencion.
(b) La capacidad del sistema de contencion relativo a la capacidad de diseno de los tanques dentro del sistema.
(c) Una descripcion del sistema para detectar escapes y derrames y como la precipitacion y la escorrentia pueden ser prevenidas de entrar en el sistema de deteccion.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.16
(g) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 D para eliminar el parrafo (3). El actual parrafo (4) que lee como sigue pasara a ser el parrafo (3) y asi sucesivamente:
Regla I-903 D (3) Una descripcion de como cada embalse superficial, incluyendo el sistema de revestimiento y cubierta y otros anejos relativos al control de desbordamiento seran inspeccionados para cumplir con los requisitos
de la Regla II-811 D (1) y (2). Esta informacion debe ser incluida en el plan de inspeccion sometido bajo la Regla I-903 A (1)
(e) ;
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.17
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 D para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (9):
Regla I-903 D (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como el embalse superficialestá o será diseñado, construido, operado o mantenido para que cumpla con los requisitos de la Regla II-811. Deben incluirse tambien los siguientes detalles segin especificados en la Regla II-811:
(a) El volumen y caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefo o monitoria.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.17 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 E (2) Si se busca una excepcton a las Reglas II-812 B y II-806 segin lo dispuesto en las Reglas II-812 A (3) 6 II-806 A (2), una explicacion de como los requisitos de la Regla II-812 A (3) serán cumplidos o planos detallados y un informe de ingenieria describiendo como se cumplirán los requisitos de la Regla II-806 A (2);
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.18
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E para eliminar el parrafo (4), y el actual parrafo (5), que en lo sucesivo leerá como sigue, pasara a ser el párrafo (4) y asi sucesivamente:
Regla I-903 E (4) Una descripcion de como cada monticulo de desperdicio, incluyendo el revestimiento y lo relacionado con los sistemas de control de escorrentias, seran inspeccionados de acuerdo con los requisitos de la Regla II-812 E (1) y (2). Esta informacion sera inclufda en el plan de inspeccion sometido bajo la Regla I-903 A (1)
(e) .
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.18
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E para añadir lo siguiente como pårrafo (9):
Regla I-903 E (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027" describiendo como un montículo de desperdicio que no ha sido encerrado (como se define en la Regla II-812 A (3)) est£ o estara disefiado, constru1do, operado y mantenido para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-812 I. Deben de incluirse tambien los siguientes detalles como se especifica en la Regla II-812 I:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios a ser dispuesto en el montículo de desperdicio, incluyendo su potencial de migración a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atm6sfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefio o monitoria.
Este pårrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.18 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 G para añadir lo siguiente como părrafo (9):
Regla I-903 G (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como una facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno esta o estará disenada, construida, operada y mantenida para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-813 K. Se deben de incluir tambien los siguientes detalles segun se especifica en la Regla II-813 K:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atm6sfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tecnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefo o monitoria.
Este părrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.20 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 H (8) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 H (8) Si desperdicios a granel o desperdicios liquidos que no se encuentran en receptáculos o desperdicios que contengan liquidos libres han sido colocados en el relleno antes del 8 de mayo de 1985, una explicacion de como se cumplira con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 I (1);
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.21
(h) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 H para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (10):
Regla I-903 H (10) Una plan de manejo de desperdicios para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como un relleno esta o estara diseñado construido, operado y mantenido para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 L. Se deben de incluir tambien los siguientes detalles segin se especifica en la Regla II-814 L:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, diserio o monitoria.
Este pBrrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.21
(j) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 F (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-904 F (1) El poseedor del permiso debe retener registros de toda la informacion de monitoria, incluyendo todos los registros de calibracion y mantenimiento y todas las tablas de registro originales para la instrumentacion continua de monitoria, copias de todos los informes requeridos por este permiso, la certificacion requerida por la Regla II-805 D (2) de este reglamento y registros de todos los datos utilizados para completar la solicitud para este permiso, por un periodo de tiempo de por lo menos 3 años a partir de la fecha de la muestra, medida, informe, certificacion o solicitud. Este periodo puede ser extendido por la Junta en cualquier momento. El poseedor del permiso debe mantener registros de todos los pozos de monitoria de agua subterranea y las elevaciones del nivel freático asociado con estos pozos, durante la vida atil de la facilidad, y para facilidades de disposicion durante el periodo de cierre posterior.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.30
(j) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 F (10) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 F (10) ,(a) Todo permiso bajo este reglamento deberá incluir condiciones de permiso necesarias para lograr el cumplimiento con la ley y la reglamentacion, incluyendo cada requisito aplicable bajo las Partes VIII-II y XI. Para satisfacer estos requisitos, la junta podrá incorporar los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VIII-II y XI directamente a los permisos o establecer otras condiciones de permiso basadas en estas partes.
(b) Cada permiso emitido bajo este reglamento contendrá terminos y condiciones segon la Junta estime necesario para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.32
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 D (9)
(a) para añadir lo siguiente como pärrafo (6):
Regla I-912 D (9)
(a) 6. No obstante cualquiera otro requisito de esta regla, cuando un permiso para una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno es revisado por la Junta bajo la Regla I-912 D (12) la Junta puede modificar el permiso como
sea necesario para asegurarse que la facilidad continua cumpliendo con todos los requisitos aplicables de este reglamento.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.41
(a) (6).
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 D para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (12):
Regla I-912 D 12. Cada permiso para una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno debe ser revisado por la Junta cinco (5) años después de la fecha que se expidi6 o re-expidio el permiso y debe ser modificado como sea necesario segin lo provisto en la Regla I-912 D.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.50
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 J (2)
(d) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-912 J (2) d. Cumple con las siguientes reglas:
(i) Regla II-802 A, Numero de Identificacion; (ii) Regla II-805 B, Uso del sistema de manifiesto (iii) Regla II-805 C, Discrepancias en el manifiesto (iv) Regla II-805 D, Registro de Operacion
(v) Regla II-805 F, Informe Bienal (vi) Regla II-805 G, Informe de desperdicios no manifestados (vii) Regla II806 L para permisos NPDES emitidas después del 8 de noviembre de 1984.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.60
(c) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 para añadir lo siguiente como inciso L. El actual inciso L pasara a ser el inciso M.
Regla I-904 L. Permisos de Investigación, Desarrollo y Demostración
b. Debe proveer especificaciones para que la facilidad acepte y trate solo aquellos tipos y cantidades de desperdicios peligrosos que la Junta estime necesario para propósitos de determinar la eficacia y capacidad de ejecución de la tecnología o procesos y los efectos de esa tecnología o proceso en la salud humana y el ambiente, y c. Debe incluir aquellos requisitos que la Junta estime necesarios para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente (incluyendo, pero no limitado a, monitoria, operacion, responsabilidad financiera, cierre y accion remediativa), y aquellos con el experimento y el proveer informacion a la Junta con respecto a la operacion de la facilidad. 2. Con el propósito de facilitar la revisión y la otorgación de permiso bajo esta Regla I-904 L, la Junta puede, consistentemente con la proteccion de la salud humana y el ambiente, modificar o dispensarlo de una solicitud de permiso y los requisitos de emision de un permiso establecido en la Parte IX-I de este reglamento, excepto que aqui no habrá ninguna modificacion o dispensa de la reglamentacion relacionada con la responsabilidad financiera (incluyendo el seguro) o los procedimientos relacionados con la participacion pública. 3. La Junta puede ordenar un cese inmediato de todas las operaciones de la facilidad en cualquier momento en que determine que el mismo es necesario para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.65.
Se enmienda la Regla I-914 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-914 A A. Cualquier persona que es dueña u opera una facilidad existente para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos o una facilidad en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias bajo la ley que obliga a la facilidad a estar sujeta a los requisitos de tener un permiso tendrá status interino y será tratada como si se le hubiera emitido un permiso, hasta el punto que El o ella haya:
(a) de RCRA (Anejo C-8) relacionados con la notificacion de actividad de desperdicios peligrosos. (COMENTARIO: Algunas facilidades exitentes no necesitan notificar bajo la Seccion 3010
(a) de RCRA (Anejo C-8). Estas facilidades pueden cualificar para status interino si cumplen con el inciso A (2) de esta regla.) 2. Cumplido con los requisitos de la Regla I-912 B relacionada con someter la Parte A de la solicitud de permiso;
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.70
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-914 para añadir lo siguiente como inciso C:
Regla I-914 C C. El inciso A de esta regla no aplica a aquellas facilidades que se le haya denegado previamente un permiso o que se le haya terminado previamente la autorización para operar la facilidad.
Este inciso es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.70
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-917 para añadir lo siguiente como los incisos C, D, E y F:
Regla I-917 C C. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de disposicion en el terreno que se le haya otorgado un status interino previo al 8 de noviembre de 1984, para el 8 de noviembre de 1985, a menos que:
Regla I-917 D D. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de disposicion en el terreno que este en existencia para la fecha de efectividad en que enmiendas reglamentarias bajo la ley, hacen que la facilidad este sujeta al requisito de tener un permiso y a la cual se le ha otorgado un status interino, doce (12) meses despues de la fecha donde la facilidad por primera vez esta sujeta a ese requisito de permiso, a menos que el duefio u operador de esa facilidad:
Regla I-917 E E. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de incineración para el 8 de noviembre de 1989, a menos que el duefio u operador de la facilidad someta la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso para una facilidad de incineración para el 8 de noviembre de 1986.
Regla I-917 F F. Para dueños u operadoręs de cualquier facilidad (que no sea de disposicion en el terreno o de incineración) para el 8 de noviembre de 1992, a menos que el dueño u operador de la facilidad someta la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso para la facilidad para el 8 de noviembre de 1988.
Estos incisos son equivalentes al 40 CFR Sección 270.73
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) .
IX
DISPONIBILIDAD DE DOCUMENTOS
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
X
CARGOS POR PERMISO
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.4. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
A. Aplicabilidad
Esta regla requiere que se paguen cargos por solicitudes, permisos y renovaciones para:
B. Cargos por Radicación:
Los siguientes listados establecen los cargos por permisos para todas las facilidades de desperdicios sōlidos peligrosos y no peligrosos.
Listado 1: Facilidades de Almacenamiento, Tratamiento - Disposición en el Terreno.
Cualquier relleno, tratamiento en el terreno, y montículo de desperdicios ("waste piles") será gravada con un cargo por permiso basado en el total de cuerdas de la facilidad y la clase de desperdicio recibido, de acuerdo con el listado siguiente:
PARTE X - REGLA 1001
Cargos por | Permisos | |
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Sôlido No- | Sôlido | |
Tamaño del sitio (cuerdas) | Peligrosos | Peligroso |
Hasta 20 (inclusive) | $ 75.00 | $300.00 |
De 20 a 60 | 150.00 | 600.00 |
De 60 a 100 | 225.00 | 750.00 |
De 100 a 200 | 300.00 | 900.00 |
Por cada 200 o fracción | 300.00 | 450.00 |
Listado II: Tanques de almacenamiento y tratamiento y embalses superficiales.
Los tanques de almacenamiento y embalses superficiales serân gravados con un cargo por permiso basado en su capacidad de galones, o su equivalente en pies cûbicos, y el tipo de desperdicio recibido.
Cargo por | Permisos | |
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Capacidad (galones) | Sôlido No | Sôlido |
hasta 4,000 galones | Peligroso | Peligroso |
4,001 hasta 10,000 | ||
10,001 hasta 40,000 gals. | 150.00 | 600.00 |
40,001 hasta 100,000 gals. | 225.00 | 750.00 |
100,001 hasta 400,000 gals. | 300.00 | 900.00 |
400,001 hasta 1,000,000 gals. | 300.00 | $1,150.00$ |
1,000,001 hasta 1,500,000 gals. | 450.00 | $1,200.00$ |
1,500.001 hasta 2,000,000 gals. | 600.00 | $1,500.00$ |
500,000 adicional o fracción | 300.00 | 300.00 |
Basado en el tipo de facilidad y tipo de desperdicio, los siguientes cargos por permisos se gravarán a incineradores y a plantas de tratamiento termal (ej., plantas usadas primodialmente para disponer o tratar desperdicio combustible que consuma totalmente los materiales alimentados dejando solo cenizas o residuos); compactadores y trituradores; facilidades de tratamiento no termal (ej., tratamiento biológico, físico, o químico).
Cargos por Permisos | ||
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Sôlido No- | Sôlido | |
Tipo de Facilidad | Peligroso | Peligroso |
1. Domêstico | $ 75.00 | $300.00 |
2. Planta Central | 300.00 | 750.00 |
Listado IV: Servicios de Recolección y Tratamiento Los servicios para desperdicios sôlidos peligrosos y no peligrosos serán gravados con un cargo por permiso como sigue:
Tipo de Servicio Servicio de Recolección (desperdicio sôlido no peligroso) Servicio de Tratamiento (desperdicio sôlido peligroso)
Cargo por Permiso $300.00 750.00
Listado V: Misceláneos Cualquier facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de desperdicio sôlido peligroso o no peligroso que no estê incluído en los listados precedentes serâ gravado por un cargo de permiso de $750.00.
F. Excepciones a los cargos de Permisos.
A pesar de las disposiciones de la Sección E de esta regla, se gravará un cargo de setenta y cinco (75.00) dólares a los permisos para las siguientes actividades o servicios:
Las siguientes personas estarán excluídas de esta Parte del reglamento:
H. Cargos por Transferencias de Propiedad o Cambio de Ubicación.
Cuando una solicitud para un permiso ha sido radicada porque la facilidad ha sido mudada a una nueva localización, o porque la propiedad ha sido transferida de una persona a otra y se ha otorgado previamente un permiso para esa facilidad y no han hecho alteraciones o adiciones, el solicitante pagará el cargo provisto en la Sección B y el cargo de permiso será equivalente al cincuenta porciento ( $50 %$ ) del cargo de permiso correspondiente, según establecido en la Sección E de esta regla. I. Duplicados de Permisos.
Toda solicitud de duplicado de permiso deberá ser hecho por escrito por el poseedor del permiso si dicho documento de permisos ha sido destruído, perdido o desfigurado. Un cargo de $30.00 será cargado por expedir un duplicado de permiso.
PARTE X - REGLA 1001 J. Cargos por Revisión.
Por la solicitud para la revisión de un permiso para construir, de un plan de cumplimiento, o de un permiso para operar, el solicitante deberá pagar una octava parte ( $1 / 8$ ) de los cargos provistos en la Sección C.
REGLA 1002 - CARGOS POR PRUEBAS A. Autoridad para Conducir Pruebas.
La Junta podrá, cuando lo crea necesario, llevar a cabo pruebas de funcionamiento de una facilidad de desperdicios sôlidos peligroso o no peligrosos para determinar el grado y cantidad de contaminantes que se están descargando al ambiente, aire, agua o al terreno; el grado de cumplimiento con las condiciones del permiso, o cumplimiento con este reglamento.
B. Procedimiento para las Pruebas.
En tal caso, la Junta notificará al dueño u ' operador de la facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligrosos de sus intenciones, y solicitará aquellos equipos o accesorios necesarios para llevar a cabo las pruebas. C. Gastos por Pruebas.
El dueño u operador de la facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligroso o no peligroso deberá pagar los cargos por la prueba de funcionamiento. D. Procedimientos para el Pago de los Gastos por Pruebas.
Después de completar las pruebas, el dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligroso o no peligroso será notificado por escrito, por la Junta, de los cargos o gastos por las pruebas dentro de treinta (30) días de dicha notificación resultará en la cancelación de cualquier solicitud o permiso para operar la facilidad.
E. Copias de los Resultados de las Pruebas.
Al pagar los cargos o gastos incurridos al conducir las pruebas de funcionamiento, el dueño u operador recibirá una (1) copia del informe de las pruebas de funcionamient.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
ANEJO C-1 Appendix II EP Toxicity Test Procedures
A representative sample of the waste to be tested (minimum size 100 grams) shall be obtained using the methods specified in Appendix I or any other method capable of yielding a representative sample within the meaning of Part 260. (For detailed guidance on conducting the various aspects of the EP see "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" (incorporated by reference, see § 260.11).)
The sample shall be separated into its component liquid and solid phases using the method described in "Separation Procedure" below. If the solid residue obtained using this method totals less than 0.5% of the original weight of the waste, the residue can be discarded and the operator shall treat the liquid phase as the extract and proceed immediately to Step 8.
The solid material obtained from the Separation Procedure shall be evaluated for its particle size. If the solid material has a surface area per gram of material equal to or greater than 3.1 cm² or passes through a 9.5 mm (0.375 inch) standard sieve, the operator shall proceed to Step 4. If the surface area is smaller or the particle size larger than specified above, the solid material shall be prepared for extraction by crushing, cutting or grinding the material so that it passes through a 9.5 mm (0.375 inch) sieve or, if the material is in a single piece, by subjecting the material to the "Structural Integrity Procedure" described below.
The solid material obtained in Step 3 shall be weighed and placed in an extractor with 16 times its weight of deionized water. Do not allow the material to dry prior to weighing. For purposes of this test, an acceptable extractor is one which will impart sufficient agitation to the mixture to not only prevent stratification of the sample and extraction fluid but also ensure that all sample surfaces are continuously brought into contact with well mixed extraction fluid.
After the solid material and deionized water are placed in the extractor, the operator shall begin agitation and measure the pH of the solution in the extractor. If the pH is greater than 5.0, the pH of the solution shall be decreased to 5.0 ± 0.3 by adding 0.5 N acetic acid. If the pH is equal to or less than 5.0, no acetic acid should be added. The pH of the solution shall be monitored, as described below, during the course of the extraction and if the pH rises above 5.2, 0.5N acetic acid shall be added to bring the pH down to 5.0 ± 0.2. However, in no event shall the aggregate amount of acid added to the solution exceed 4 ml of acid per gram of solid. The mixture shall be agitated for 24 hours and maintained at 20°C (68°-104°F) during this time. It is recommended that the operator monitor and adjust the pH during the course of the extraction with a device such as the Type 45-A pH Controller manufactured by Chemtris, Inc., Hillsboro, Oregon 97123 or its equivalent, in conjunction with a metering pump and reservoir of 0.5N acetic acid. If such a system is not available, the following manual procedure shall be employed:
(a) A pH meter shall be calibrated in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.
(b) The pH of the solution shall be checked and, if necessary, 0.5N acetic acid shall be manually added to the extractor until the pH reaches 5.0 ± 0.2. The pH of the solution shall be adjusted at 15, 30 and 60 minute intervals, moving to the next longer interval if the pH does not have to be adjusted more than 0.5N pH units.
(c) The adjustment procedure shall be continued for at least 6 hours.
(d) If at the end of the 24-hour extraction period, the pH of the solution is not below 5.2 and the maximum amount of acid (4 ml per gram of solids) has not been added, the pH shall be adjusted to 5.0 ± 0.2 and the extraction continued for an additional four hours, during which the pH shall be adjusted at one hour intervals.
$$ ext{V} = \left(\frac{20.0 imes 10^{3} ext{ N}}{ ext{ml}} ight) imes 10^{3} $$
where:
The material in the extractor shall be separated into its component liquid and solid phases as described under "Separation Procedure."
The liquid resulting from Steps 2 and 7 shall be combined. This combined liquid (or the waste itself if it has less than 1/2 percent solids, as noted in step 2) is the extract and shall be analyzed for the presence of any of the contaminants specified in Table 1 of § 261.24 using the Analytical Procedures designated below.
Equipment: A filter holder, designed for filtration media having a nominal pore size of 0.45 micrometers and capable of applying a 5.3 kg/cm³ (75 psi) hydrostatic pressure to the solution being filtered, shall be used. For mixtures containing nonabsorptive solids, where separation can be effected without imposing a 5.3 kg/cm³ pressure differential, vacuum filters employing a 0.45 micrometers filter media can be used. (For further guidance on filtration equipment or procedures see "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" incorporated by reference, see § 260.11). Procedure:
(i) Following manufacturer's directions: The filter unit shall be assembled with a filter bed consisting of a 0.45 micrometer filter membrane. For difficult or slow to filter mixtures a prefilter bed consisting of the following prefilters in increasing pore size (0.65 micrometer membrane, fine glass fiber prefilter, and coarse glass fiber prefilter) can be used.
(ii) The waste shall be poured into the filtration unit.
(iii) The reservoir shall be slowly pressurized until liquid begins to flow from the filtrate outlet at which point the pressure in the filter shall be immediately lowered to 10-15 psig. Filtration shall be continued until liquid flow ceases.
(iv) The pressure shall be increased stepwise in 10 psi increments to 75 psig and filtration continued until flow ceases or the pressurizing gas begins to exit from the filtrate outlet.
(v) The filter unit shall be depressurized, the solid material removed and weighed and then transferred to the extraction apparatus, or, in the case of final filtration prior to analysis, discarded. Do not allow the material retained on the filter pad to dry prior to weighing.
(vi) The liquid phase shall be stored at 4°C for subsequent use in Step 8.
This procedure is intended to result in separation of the "free" liquid portion of the waste from any solid matter having a particle size >0.45 µm. If the sample will not filter, various other separation techniques can be used to aid in the filtration. As described above, pressure filtration is employed to speed up the filtration process. This does not alter the nature of the separation. If liquid does not separate during filtration, the waste can be centrifuged. If separation occurs during centrifugation, the liquid portion (centrifugate) is filtered through the 0.45 µm filter prior to becoming mixed with the liquid portion of the waste obtained from the initial filtration. Any material that will not pass through the filter after centrifugation is considered a solid and is extracted.
Equipment: A Structural Integrity Tester having a $3.18 \mathrm{~cm}(1.35 \mathrm{in}$.) diameter hammer weighing $0.33 \mathrm{~kg}(0.72 \mathrm{lbs}$.) and having a free fall of $16.24 \mathrm{~cm}(6 \mathrm{in}$.) Shall be used. This device is available from Associated Design and Manufacturing Company, Alexandria, VA 22314, as Part No. 125, or it may be fabricated to meet the specifications shown in Figure 1.
Analytical Procealures for Analysing Earac: Contaminents
The test methods for analyzing the extract are as follows:
For all analyses, the methods of standard addition shall be used for quantification of species concentration.
ELASTOMERIC SAMPLE HOLDER FABRICATED OF MATERIAL FIRM ENOUGH TO SUPPORT THE SAMPLE
COMPACTION TESTER
ANEJO C-2 Appendix III Chemical Analysis Test Methods
Tables 1, 2, and 3 specify the appropriate analytical procedures described in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," incorporated by reference, see 260.11, which shall be used to determine whether a sample contains a given Appendix VII or VIII toxic constituent.
Table 1 identifies each Appendix VII or VIII organic constituent alone with the approved measurement method. Table 2 identifies the corresponding methods for inorganic species. Table 3 summarizes the contents of SW-846 and supplies specific section and method numbers for sampling and analysis methods.
Prior to final sampling and analysis method selection the analyst should consult the specific section or method described in SW-846 for additional guidance on which of the approved methods should be employed for a specific sample analysis situation.
[Amended by 50 FR 1999, January 14, 1985; revised by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985; amended by 51 FR 5330, February 13, 1986; 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
Compound | No. in ml |
---|---|
Acetonitrile | 8030, 8240 |
Acrolein | 8030, 8240 |
Acrylonitrile | 8015, 8240 |
Acrylonitrile | 8030, 8240 |
2-Amino-4-methylbenzene (p-Toluidine) | 8250 |
4-Amino-4-methylbenzene (p-Toluidine) | |
8250 | |
Aniline | 8250 |
Benzene | 8030, 8034 |
Benzylsenthracene | 8100, 8250 |
Benzoxypyrene | 8100, 8250 |
Benzothiothiol | 8120, 8250 |
Benzoyl chloride | 8120, 8250 |
Benzoylfluoranthene | 8100, 8250 |
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane | 8010, 8240 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether | 8010, 8240 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylether | 8010, 8240 |
Carbon disulfide | 8015, 8240 |
Carbon tetrachloride | 8010, 8240 |
Chlordane | 8080, 8250 |
Chlorinated dibenzodioxins (Removed) | |
Chlorinated biphenyls | 8090, 8250 |
Chlorinated dibenzofurans | 8010, 8240 |
Chlorinated dibenzofurans | 8010, 8240 |
Chlorobenzene | 8020, 8240 |
Chlorobenzene | 8010, 8240 |
Chloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
Chloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
2-Chlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Chrysene | 8100, 8250 |
Cyanone | 8100, 8250 |
Cyanides | 8040, 8250 |
Cyanolic Acids | 8040, 8250 |
Dichlorobenzene(6) | 8010, 8120, 8250 |
Dichloromethane(6) | 8010, 8240 |
Dichloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid | 8150, 8250 |
Dichloropropanol | 8120, 8250 |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | 8040, 8250 |
Dinitrobenzene | 8090, 8250 |
4,5-Dinitro-1-eneol | 8040, 8250 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 8090, 8250 |
2,5-Dinitrotoluene | 8090 or 8250 |
Compound | Method No. |
---|---|
Endrin | 8080, 8250 |
2-Ethoxyethanol | 8030, 8240 |
Emollient | 8015, 8240 |
Ethylene diiron | 8010, 8240 |
Formaldehyde | 8015, 8240 |
Formic acid | 8250 |
Heptachlor | 8080, 8250 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 8120, 8250 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 8120, 8250 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 8010, 8240 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 8120, 8250 |
Lindane | 8080, 8250 |
Maleic anhydride | 8010, 8240 |
Methanol | 8010, 8240 |
Methomyl | 8050 |
Methyl ethyl ketone | 8015, 8240 |
Methyl isobutyl ketone | 8015, 8240 |
Naphthalene | 8100, 8250 |
Naphthoquinone | 8090, 8250 |
Nitrobenzene | 8090, 8250 |
2-Nitrophorane | 8030, 8240 |
4-Nitrophenol | 8040, 8240 |
Paraldehyde (trimer of acetaldehyde) | 8015, 8240 |
Pentachlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Phenol | 8040, 8250 |
Phorate | 8140 |
Phosphorodithioic acid esters | 8140 |
Phthalic anhydride | 8090, 8250 |
2-Picoline | 8090, 8250 |
Pyridine | 8090, 8250 |
Tetrachlorobenzene(6) | 8120, 8250 |
Tetrachloroethane(6) | 8010, 8240 |
Tetrachloroethene | 8010, 8240 |
Tetrachlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Toluene | 8020, 8034 |
Toluenediamine | 8250 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
2,5-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
3,4-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
Compound | Tested with methods | Second edition |
---|---|---|
Arsenic | 8.50 | 7040, 7041 |
Arsenic | 8.51 | 7060, 7061 |
Barium | 8.52 | 7080, 7081 |
Cadmium | 8.53 | 7090, 7091 |
Chromium | 8.54 | 7180, 7181 |
Chromium: Hexavalent | 8.545, 8.546, 7185, 7190, 7195, 7197, 7199, 7198, 7199, 7191 | |
Lead | 8.56 | 7420, 7421 |
Mercury | 8.57 | 7470, 7471 |
Nickel | 8.58 | 7520, 7521 |
Selenium | 8.59 | 7740, 7741 |
Silver | 8.60 | 7760, 7761 |
Cyanides | 8.61 | 8010, 8010 |
Total Organic Halogen | 8.66 | 8020, 8021 |
Sulfides | 8.67 | 8030, 8031 |
Title | Tested with methods | Second edition |
---|---|---|
Section No. | Method No. | |
Sampling of Solid Wastes | 1.0 | 1.0 |
Development of Appropriate Sampling Plans | 1.0 | 1.1 |
Regulatory and Scientific Objectives | 1.0-2 | 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1 |
TABLE 3-SAWING AND ANALYSIS METHODS CONTAINED IN SW-846-Continued
Title | |||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Frac eosior | |||||
Secche eosior | |||||
Section | Method | Section | Method | ||
No. | No. | No. | No. | ||
Channel-Cutting Recalls | 2.0-6 | 1.34 | |||
Sample Analysis Request Sheet | 2.0-9 | 1.35 | |||
Sample Delivery to Laboratory | 2.0-10 | 1.37 | |||
Shooting of Samples | 2.0-12 | 1.38 | |||
Receipt and Logging of Sample | 2.0-13 | 1.39 | |||
Assignment of Sample for Analysis | 2.0-13 | 1.39 | |||
Sampling Methodology | 3.0 | 1.4 | |||
Consumers | 3.2-2 | 1.41 | |||
Tanks | 3.2-2 | 1.42 | |||
Waste Piles | 3.2-2 | 1.43 | |||
Landfills and Lagrions | 3.2-2 | 1.44 | |||
Waste Evaluation Procedures | 2.0 | ||||
Characteristics of Hazardous Waste | 2.1 | ||||
Ignorability | 4.0 | 2.11 | |||
Pensky-Martens Closed-Cup Method | 4.1 | 2.11 | 1010 | ||
Seletlash Closed-Cup Method | 4.1 | 2.11 | 1020 | ||
Complexity | 5.0 | 2.12 | |||
Complexity Toward Steel | 5.2 | 2.12 | 1110 | ||
Reactivity | 6.0 | 2.13 | |||
Extraction Procedure Toxicity | 7.0 | 2.14 | |||
Extraction Procedure Toxicity Test | 7.1, 7.2, 7.5 | ||||
Method and Structural Integrity Test | 7.4 | 2.14 | 1310 | ||
Sample Workup Techniques | 4.0 | ||||
Inorganic Techniques | 8.49 | 4.1 | |||
Acid Digestion for Flame AAS | 4.1 | 3010 | |||
Acid Digestion for Furnace AAS | 4.1 | 3020 | |||
Acid Digestion of Oil, Grease, or Wax | 8.49-9 | 4.1 | 3030 | ||
Dissolution Procedure for Oil, Grease or Wax | 8.49-8 | ||||
Alkaline Digestion | 8.0 | 8.458 | 4.1 | 3060 | |
Organic Techniques | 8.0 | 4.2 | |||
Separatory Funnel Liquid-Liquid Extraction | 8.0 | 9.1 | 4.2 | 3510 | |
Continuous Liquid-Liquid Extraction | 8.0 | 9.01 | 4.2 | 3520 | |
Acid-Base Cleanup Extraction | 8.0 | 8.84 | 4.2 | 3530 | |
Soxhlet Extraction | 8.0 | 8.86 | 4.2 | 3540 | |
Sonication Extraction | 8.0 | 8.85 | 4.2 | 3550 | |
Sample Introduction Techniques | 5.0 | ||||
Headspace | 8.0 | 8.82 | 5.0 | 5020 | |
Purge-and-Trap | 8.0 | 8.83 | 5.0 | 5030 | |
Inorganic Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 7.0 | |||
Antimony, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.50 | 7.0 | 7470 | |
Antimony, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.50 | 7.0 | 7471 | |
Arsenic, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.51 | 7.0 | 7060 | |
Arsenic, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.51 | 7.0 | 7081 | |
Barium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.52 | 7.0 | 7080 | |
Barium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.52 | 7.0 | 7081 | |
Cadmium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.53 | 7.0 | 7130 | |
Cadmium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.53 | 7.0 | 7131 | |
Chromium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.54 | 7.0 | 7090 | |
Chromium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.54 | 7.0 | 7181 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Coorecortator | 8.0 | 8.545 | 7.0 | 7195 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Colorimetric | 8.0 | 8.546 | 7.0 | 7196 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Chelation | 8.0 | 8.547 | 7.0 | 7197 | |
Lead, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.56 | 7.0 | 7420 | |
Lead, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.56 | 7.0 | 7421 | |
Mercury, Cold Vapor, Liquid | 8.0 | 8.57 | 7.0 | 7470 | |
Mercury, Cold Vapor, Solid | 8.0 | 8.57 | 7.0 | 7471 | |
Nickel, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.58 | 7.0 | 7520 | |
Nickel, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.58 | 7.0 | 7521 | |
Selenium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.59 | 7.0 | 7740 | |
Selenium, Gasoline Hygiene AAS | 8.0 | 8.59 | 7.0 | 7741 | |
Silver, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.60 | 7.0 | 7760 | |
Silver, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.60 | 7.0 | 7761 | |
Organic Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 8.0 | |||
Gas Chromatographic Methods | 8.0 | 8.1 | |||
Halogenated Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.01 | 8.1 | 8010 | |
Nonhalogenated Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.01 | 8.1 | 8015 | |
Aromatic Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.02 | 8.1 | 8020 | |
Acrolein, Acrylonitrile, Acetonitrile | 8.0 | 8.03 | 8.1 | 8030 | |
Phenols | 8.0 | 8.04 | 8.1 | 8040 | |
Phthalate Esters | 8.0 | 8.06 | 8.1 | 8060 | |
Organochlorine Pesticides and PCBs | 8.0 | 8.08 | 8.1 | 8080 | |
Nitrofurantoin and Cyclic Ketones | 8.0 | 8.09 | 8.1 | 8090 | |
Polynuclear Aromatic Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.10 | 8.1 | 8100 | |
Chlorinated Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.12 | 8.1 | 8120 | |
Organophosphorus Pesticides | 8.0 | 8.22 | 8.1 | 8140 | |
Chlorinated Herbicides | 8.0 | 8.40 | 8.1 | 8150 |
[Appendix III]
TABLE 3-SAMPLING AND ANALYSIS METHODS CONTAINED IN SW-846—Continued
Title | Feet adcort | Second adcort | ||
---|---|---|---|---|
Section | Method | Section | Method | |
No. | No. | No. | No. | |
Gas Chromatographic/Mass Spectroscopy Methods (GC/MS) | 5.0 | 8.2 | ||
GC/MS Volatiles | 8.0 | 8.24 | 8.2 | 8240 |
GC/MS Semi-Volatiles, Pipelac Column | 8.0 | 8.21 | 8.2 | 8250 |
GC/MS Semi-Volatiles, Capsules | 8.0 | 8.27 | 8.2 | 8270 |
Analysis of Chlorinated Dioxins and Dipeptamates | 8.2 | 8280 | ||
High Performance Liquid Chromatographic Methods (HPLC) | 8.0 | 8.3 | ||
Polynuclear Aromatic Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.10 | 8.3 | 8310 |
Macromass Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 9.0 | ||
Cyanide, Total and Ammonia to Chlorination | 8.0 | 8.55 | 9.0 | 9010 |
Total Organic Halogen (TOX) | 8.0 | 8.66 | 9.0 | 9020 |
Sulfoxes | 8.0 | 8.67 | 9.0 | 9030 |
pH Measurement | 5.0 | 5.2 | 9.0 | 9040 |
Quality Control/Quality Assurance | 10.0 | 10.1 | ||
Introduction | 10.0 | 10.1 | ||
Program Design | 10.0 | 10.2 | ||
Sampling | 10.0 | 10.3 | ||
Analysis | 10.0 | 10.4 | ||
Data Handling | 10.0 | 10.5 |
*See specific metal.
ANEJO C-3 Appendix VIII Hazardous Constituents
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In
3-Chloropropene (allyl chloride)
(Added by 49 FR 5312, February 10, 1984)
3-Chloropropionitrile (Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-)
Chromium and compounds. N.O.S.*
Chryseke (1,2-Benzphenanthrene)
Citrus red No. 2 (2-Naphthol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]-)
Coal tars
Copper cyanide
Creosote (Creosote, wood)
Cresols (Cresylic acid) (Phenol, methyl-)
Crotonaldehyde (2-Butenal)
Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes), N.O.S.*
Cyanogen (Ethanedinitrile)
Cyanogen bromide (Bromine cyanide)
Cyanogen chloride (Chlorine cyanide)
Cycasin (beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl-)
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-)
Cyclophosphamide (2H-1,2,2-Oxazaphosphorine, [bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-tetrahydro-, 2-oxide)
Daunomycin (5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-[(5-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-)
DDD (Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
DDE (Ethylene, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-)
DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
Diallate (S-(2,3-dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate)
Dibenz(a,h)acridine (1,2,5,6-Dibenzacridine)
Dibenz(a,j)acridine (1,2,7,8-Dibenzacridine)
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene)
7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole (3,4,5,6-Dibenzcarbazole)
Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene (1,2,4,5-Dibenzpyrene)
Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzpyrene)
Dibenzo[a,l]pyrene (1,2,7,8-Dibenzpyrene)
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-)
1,2-Dibromoethane (Ethylene dibromide)
Dibromomethane (Methylene bromide)
Di-n-butyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester)
o-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-)
m-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-)
p-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-)
Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S.* (Benzene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro-)
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-)
Dichlorodifluoromethane (Methane, dichlorodifluoro-)
1,1-Dichloroethane (Ethylidene dichloride)
1,2-Dichloroethane (Ethylene dichloride)
trans-1,2-Dichloroethene (1,2-Dichloroethylene)
Dichloroethylene, N.O.S.* (Ethene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,1-Dichloroethylene (Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-)
Dichloromethane (Methylene chloride)
2,4-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-)
2,6-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-)
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), salts and esters (Acetic acid, 2,4-dichlorophenoxy-, salts and esters)
Dichlorophenylarsine (Phenyl dichloroarsine)
Dichloropropane, N.O.S.* (Propane, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,2-Dichloropropane (Propylene dichloride)
Dichloropropanol, N.O.S.* (Propanol, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
Dichloropropene, N.O.S.* (Propene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,3-Dichloropropene (1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-)
Dieldrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octa-hydro-endo,exo-1,4,5,6-Dimethanonaphthalene)
1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane (2,2'-Bioxirane)
Diethylarsine (Arsine, diethyl-)
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
O,O-Diethyl S-methyl ester of phosphorodithioic acid (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester)
O,O-Diethylphosphoric acid, O-p-nitrophenyl ester (Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester)
Diethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester)
O,O-Diethyl O-3-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester)
Diethylstilbestemol (4,4'-Stilbenediol, alpha,alpha-diethyl, bis(dihydrogen phosphate, (E)-)
Dihydroazirole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-propyl-)
3,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol (1,2-Benzenediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-)
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) (Phosphoralluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester)
Dimethoate (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester)
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy-)
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene (Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-)
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-)
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl-)
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride (Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl-)
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-)
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-)
3,3-Dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-2-butanone, O-((methylamino) carbonyl)oxime (Thiofanox)
alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine (Ethanamine, 1,1-dimethyl-2-phenyl-)
2,4-Dimethylphenol (Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-)
Dimethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester)
Dimethyl sulfate (Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester)
Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S.* (Benzene, dinitro-, N.O.S.*)
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-methyl-, and salts)
2,4-Dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-)
2,4-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-)
2,6-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro-)
Di-n-octyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester)
1,4-Dioxane (1,4-Diethylene oxide)
Diphenylamine (Benzenamine, N-phenyl-)
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-)
Di-n-propylnitrosamine (N-Nitroso-di-n-propylamine)
Disulfoton (O,O-diethyl S-(2-ethylthio)ethyl) phosphorodithioate
2,4-Dithiobiuret (Thioimidodicarbonic diamide)
Endosulfan (5-Norbornene, 2,3-dimethanol, 1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachloro-, cyclic sulfite)
Endrin and metabolites (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-endo,enoo-1,4,5,6-dimethanonaphthalene, and metabolites)
Ethyl cyanide (propanenitrile)
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters (1,2-Ethanediylbiocarbamodithioic acid, salts and esters)
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Exthanol, 2-ethoxy)
[Added by 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
Ethyleneimine (Aziridine)
Ethylene oxide (Oxirane)
Ethylmethiourea (2-Imidazolidinethione)
Ethyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester)
Ethyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester)
Fluoranthene (Benzol, 3,3-fluorene)
Fluorine
2-Fluoroacetamide (Acetamide, 2-fluoro-)
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt (Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt)
Formaldehyde (Methylene oxide)
Formic acid (Methanoic acid)
Glycidylaldehyde (1-propanol-2,3-exoxy)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Halomethane, N.O.S.*
Heptachlor (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-)
Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-2,3-epoxy-3a,4,7,7-tetrahydro-, alpha, beta, and gamma isomers)
Hexachlorobenzene (Benzene, hexachloro-)
Hexachlorobutadiene (1,3-Butadiene, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Hexachlorocyclohexane (all isomers) (Lindane and isomers)
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-)
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Hexachlorodibenzofurans
Hexachloroethane (Ethane, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4,5,6-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene (Hexachlorobenzahydro-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene)
Hexachlorophene (2,2'-Methylenebis(2,4,6-trichlorophenol))
Hexachloropropene (Propene, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII]
Hexaethyl tetraphorphate (Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester)
Hydrazine (Diamine)
Hydroxyanis acid (Hydrogen cyanide)
Hydrofluoric acid (Hydrogen fluoride)
Hydrogen sulfide (Sulfur hydride)
Hydroxydimethylarsine oxide (Cacodylic acid)
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene (1,10-(1,2-phenylene)pyrene)
Iodomethane (Methyl iodide)
Iron dextran (Ferric dextran)
Isocyanic acid, methyl ester (Methyl isocyanate)
Isobutyl alcohol (1-Propanol, 2-methyl-)
Isosalrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl)
Kepone (Decachlorooctahydro-1,3,4-meth-ano-2H-cyclobuta[cd]-pentalene-2-one)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Lasiocarpine (2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,2,5,7a-tetrahydro-[H-pyrrolidin-1-yl ester)
Lead and compounds, N.O.S.*
Lead acetate (Acetic acid, lead salt)
Lead phosphate (Phosphoric acid, lead salt)
Lead subacetate (Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-)
Maleic anhydride (2,5-Purandione)
Maleic hydrazide (1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazin-edione)
Malononitrile (Propanedinitrile)
Melphalan (Alanine, 3-(p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)phenyl-, L-)
Mercury fulminate (Fulminic acid, mercury salt)
Mercury and compounds, N.O.S.*
Methacrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-)
Methanethiol (Thiomethanol)
Methapyrilene (Pyridine, 3-[(2-dimethylamino)ethyl]-2-(henylamino-)
Methoimyl (Acetimidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy]thio-, methyl ester)
Methoxychlor (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2'-bis(p-methoxyphenyl)-)
2-Methylaziridine (1,2-Propylenimine)
2-Methylcholanthrene (Benz[a]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-)
Methyl chlorocarbonate (Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester)
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) (Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis-(2-chloro-)
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (2-Butanone)
Methyl hydrazine (Hydrazine, methyl-)
2-Methyllactonitrile (Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-)
Methyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 3-methyl-, methyl ester)
Methyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester)
2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime (Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, o-(methylamino)carbonyl)oxime)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected 2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime to read "2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
N-Methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (Guanidine, N-nitroso-N-methyl-N'-nitro-)
Methyl parathion (O,O-dimethyl O-[4-nitrophenyl] phosphorothioate)
Methylthiouracil (4-1H-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-)
Mustard gas (Sulfide, bis(2-chloroethyl)-)
Naphthalene
1,4-Naphthoquinone (1,4-Naphthalenedione)
1-Naphthylamine (alpha-Naphthylamine)
2-Naphthylamine (beta-Naphthylamine)
1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea (Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-)
Nickel and compounds, N.O.S.*
Nickel carbonyl (Nickel tetracarbonyl)
Nickel cyanide (Nickel [II] cyanide)
Nicotine and salts (Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts)
Nitric oxide (Nitrogen [II] oxide)
p-Nitroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-nitro-)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected Nitrobenzene to read "Nitrobenzene" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
Nitrobenzene (Benzene, nitro-)
Nitrogen dioxide (Nitrogen [IV] oxide)
Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt)
Nitrogen mustard N-oxide and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-N-oxide, and hydrochloride salt)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Nitroglycerine (1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate)
4-Nitrophenol (Phenol, 4-nitro-)
2-Nitropropane (Propane, 2-nitro)
[Added by 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide (Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide-)
Nitrosamine, N.O.S.*
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine (1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine (Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitroaniminol)bis-)
N-Nitrosodiethylamine (Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosodimethylamine (Dimethylnitrosamine)
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea (Carbamide, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea (Carbamide, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane (Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester)
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosomorpholine (Morpholine, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosonornicotine (Nornicotine, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosopiperidine (Pyridine, hexahydro-, N-nitroso-)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected Nitrosopyrrolidine to read "N-Nitrosopyrrolidine" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
Nitrosopyrrolidine (Pyrroic, tetrahydro-, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrososarccyine (Sarcosine, N-nitroso-)
5-Nitro-o-toluidine (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-)
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide (Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-)
Osmium tetroxide (Osmium [VIII] oxide)
7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid (Endothal)
Paraldehyde (1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-)
Parathion (Phosphoruthion, acid, O,O-diethyl O-[p-nitrophenyl] ester)
Pentachlorobenzene (Benz- a, pentachloro-)
Pentachlorodibenzo[2-c]dioxins
Pentachlorodibenzofurans
Pentachloroethane (Ethane, pentachloro-)
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) (Benzene, pentachloronitro-)
Pentachlorophenol (Phenol, pentachloro-)
Percouromethyl mercaptan (Methanesul-enyl chloride, trichloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Phenacetin (Acetamide, N-[4-ethoxyphenyl-])
Phenol (Benzene, hydroxy-)
Phenylenediamine (Benzenediamine)
Phenylmercury acetate (Mercury, acetatophenyl-)
N-Phenylthiourea (Thiourea, phenyl-)
Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)
Phosphine (Hydrogen phosphide)
Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(tethyldio)methyl ester (Phorate)
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p-(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl ester (Famphur)
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.* (Benzene, 1,2-dicarboxylic acid, esters, N.O.S.*)
Phthalic anhydride (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid anhydride)
2-Picoline (Pyridine, 2-methyl-)
Polychlorinated biphenyl, N.O.S.*
Potassium cyanide
Potassium silver cyanide (Argentate(1-), dicyano-, potassium)
Pronamide (3,5-Dichloro-N-[1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl]benzamide)
1,3-Propane sultone (1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide)
Propionic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy salts and esters [2,4,5-TP, Silvex, salts and esters])
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
n-Propylamine (1-Propanamine)
Propylthiouracil (2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo-4[H]-pyrimidinone)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
2-Propyn-1-ol (Propargyl alcohol)
Pyridine
Reserpine (Yohlmban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-16-[[2,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl]oxy], methyl ester)
Resorcinol (1,3-Benzenediol)
Saccharin and salts (1,2-Benzoisothiazolin-3-one, 1,4-dioxide, and salts)
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no. |
---|---|---|
Acetophenol | ||
Acetophenone | Ethenone, 1-phenyl- | 53-95-8 |
2-Acetoxymethylene | Acetamide, N-(4H-8)-p- | 53-95-3 |
Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothiocymethyl)- | 591-28-2 |
Acrolein | 2-Propanol | 107-52-6 |
Acrylamide | 2-Propanamide | 76-06-1 |
Acrylonitrile | 2-Propanonitrile | 107-13-1 |
Atrazine | Atrazine | 1402-88-2 |
Atrazine | Propane, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methyltetraenoic-carbony-1)oxime | 115-06-3 |
Folic acid | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,16-hexapenteno-1,4,4a,5,6,8a-hexahydro-, 2-amino-4,6-diphenylethyl, 2-amino-4-hydroxy-, | 306-00-2 |
Allyl alcohol | 2-Propan-1-ol | 107-16-6 |
Allyl chloride | 1-Propanol, 3-chloro- | 107-06-1 |
Aluminum propionate | Same | 20859-73-6 |
4-Aminobis(1-enyl) | 1,1-Biphenyl-4-amine | 82-67-1 |
5-Unhomylthio-3-isoxazole | 3(3H)-doxazocine, 3-(aminomethyl)- | 2753-96-4 |
4-Aminopimelate | 4-Pyridoxamine | 604-24-5 |
Ametron | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 |
Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-35-6 |
Arsenic | Benzamidine | 62-53-3 |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-36-0 | |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | Arsenic | 7440-36-2 |
Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid AsN.O. | 7778-39-4 |
Arsenic peroxyde | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1303-26-2 |
Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1327-53-3 |
Auramine | Benzamine, 4,4'-carbonimethylbis(1(3H-dimethyl) | 492-80-6 |
[Appendix VIII revised by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII revises by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII revises by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII: Hazardous Constituents]
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no. |
---|---|---|
Acetophenol | Same | 75-05-8 |
Acetophenone | Ethenone, 1-phenyl- | 56-85-2 |
2-Acetoxymethylene | Acetamide, N-(4H-8)-p- | 53-95-3 |
Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothiocymethyl)- | 591-28-2 |
Acrolein | 2-Propanol | 107-52-6 |
Acrylamide | 2-Propanamide | 76-06-1 |
Acrylonitrile | 2-Propanonitrile | 107-13-1 |
Atrazine | Atrazine | 1402-88-2 |
Atrazine | Propane, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methyltetraenoic-carbony-1)oxime | 115-06-3 |
Folic acid | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,16-hexapenteno-1,4,4a,5,6,8a-hexahydro-, 2-amino-4,6-diphenylethyl, 2-amino-4-hydroxy-, | 306-00-2 |
Allyl alcohol | 2-Propan-1-ol | 107-16-6 |
Allyl chloride | 1-Propanol, 3-chloro- | 107-06-1 |
Aluminum propionate | Same | 20859-73-6 |
4-Aminobis(1-enyl) | 1,1-Biphenyl-4-amine | 82-67-1 |
5-Unhomylthio-3-isoxazole | 3(3H)-doxazocine, 3-(aminomethyl)- | 2753-96-4 |
4-Aminopimelate | 4-Pyridoxamine | 604-24-5 |
Ametron | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 |
Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-35-6 |
Arsenic | Benzamidine | 62-53-3 |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-36-0 | |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-37-8 | |
Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid AsN.O. | 7440-36-2 |
Arsenic peroxyde | Arsenic oxide As2O | 7778-39-4 |
Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1303-26-2 |
Auramine | Benzamine, 4,4'-carbonimethylbis(1(3H-dimethyl) | 1327-53-3 |
Common name | Chemical substance name | Chemical content |
---|---|---|
Azaserine | L-3- trans - diphosphate (dip) | 115-02-7 |
Banum and compounds, N.O.S. | Banum | 7440-39-0 |
Banum cyanide | Same | 542-82-7 |
Benz[a]anthracene | Same | 225-57-4 |
Benz[a]anthracene | Same | 56-50-0 |
Benzo [a]thiobarcene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 86-87-2 |
Benzene | Same | 74-47-2 |
Benzene, trienol, and other | Arsenic and phenyl | 96-05-5 |
Benzene | 11-1-(Benzene)-4,4-diamine | 91-87-1 |
Benzo[a]thiobarcene | Benzo[a]anthracene | 206-59-2 |
Benzo[a]thiobarcene | Same | 205-82-3 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | Same | 50-32-8 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione | 108-01-4 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 86-07-7 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 100-44-7 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Benzene | 7440-41-7 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Ethane, 1,1-2-(methylenedioxynyl)-2-chlorobenzene | 111-81-1 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Ethane, 1,1-4- trans -2-chlorobenzene | 111-44-4 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Propane, 2,2-pxybis(2-chloro-2,2,2,2,2,2,2)-diethyl ether | 39636-32-9 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Methane, 2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2, |
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts name |
---|---|---|
p-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- | 106-40-7 |
Dichlorobenzene N.O.S. | Benzene, dichloro- | 25321-20-5 |
2,3-Dichlorobenzene | [1,1-Biphenyl]-4,4-diamine, 3,3-dichloro- | 91-84-1 |
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- | 764-41-2 |
Dichlorodihydrophenone | Methane, dichlorodihloro- | 75-71-8 |
1,2-Dichloranthrene | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- | 75-71-8 |
Dichloroethylene N.O.S. | Dichloroethylene | 25323-30-2 |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-35-4 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- | 126-83-2 |
2,6-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- | 87-65-0 |
Dichlorophenolamine | Anionous dichloride, phenyl- | 696-21-6 |
Dichloropropane N.O.S. | Propane, dichloro- | 26638-19-7 |
Dichloropropanol N.O.S. | Propanol, dichloro- | 26345-73-3 |
Dichloropropene N.O.S. | 1-Propanol, dichloro- | 26352-23-8 |
1,3-Dichloropropene | 1-Propanol, 1,3-dichloro- | 540-75-4 |
Dieldrin | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanocaprozin (2,3,6) (corona, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro- | 80-57-1 |
(sabina,2beta,2sabina,3beta,6beta,6sabina,7beta,7saphal)- | ||
1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane | 2,2'-Benzene | 1454-53-5 |
Dichlorofenol | Anane, diethyl- | 892-42-2 |
1,4-Dichlorobenzene | 1,4-Decane | 123-91-1 |
N,N'-Dethylihydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- | 1615-80-1 |
O,O-Diethyl 5-methylaminophosphate | Phosphorodienoic acid, O,O-diethyl 5-methyl ester | 3286-58-2 |
Diethyl-p-nitro-phenyl phosphate | Phosphoric acid, diethyl-4-nitrophenyl ester | 311-45-5 |
Diethylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, diethyl ester | 84-60-2 |
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester | 297-97-2 |
Diethylstilbestrol | Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis,(E)- | 56-52-1 |
Dihydrocarban | 1,3-Benzodioxide, 5-propyl- | 84-58-4 |
2,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol | (+)-1,1,2-Benzanediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)- | 329-65-7 |
Dihydroxyethylenaphosphate (DFP) | Phosphorothioridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester | 55-61-4 |
Dimethoate | Phosphorodihtioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-(2- | 60-51-5 |
3,2'-Dimethoimethoate | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- | 119-80-4 |
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | Benzeneamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- | 60-11-7 |
7,12-Dimethobenz(a)anthracene | Benz(a)anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- | 67-97-6 |
3,2'-Dimethylbenzene | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- | 119-83-7 |
Dimethyloctamoyl chloride | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- | 76-44-7 |
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- | 87-14-7 |
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- | 845-73-6 |
alpha, alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- | 122-09-8 |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- | 105-67-9 |
Dimethylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, dimethyl ester | 131-11-3 |
Dimethyl sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | 77-78-1 |
Dinitrobenzene N.O.S. | Benzene, dinitro- | 25154-54-5 |
4,6-Dinitro-o- cresol and salts | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and salts | 834-52-1 |
2,4-Dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- | 91-28-3 |
2,4-Dinitrohexane | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- | 121-14-2 |
2,6-Dinitro toluene | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- | 806-20-2 |
Dinoseb | Phenol, 3,6-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- | 88-85-7 |
Di-n-octylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, dioctyl ester | 117-64-0 |
Diphenylamine | Benzeneamine, N-phenyl- | 122-39-4 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- | 122-66-7 |
Di-nitrophenyl selenite | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- | 821-64-7 |
Deufloron | Phosphorodihtioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester | 298-04-4 |
Dinebulus | Thiamidazocarbonic diamide | 541-53-7 |
Endosulfan | 6,9-Metheno-2,4,3-benzodiazethepen, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-3-oxide | 115-29-7 |
Endothal | 1-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid | 145-73-3 |
Endrin | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanocaprozin (2,3,6) (corona, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro- | 72-20-8 |
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester | 91-75-6 |
Ethyl cyanide | Propylenol | 107-12-6 |
Ethylenediacetibenzoribanic acid, salts and esters | Carbamodihtioic acid, 1,2-ethenediylbis-, salts and esters | 111-84-6 |
Ethylene dibromide | Ethene, 1,2-dibromo- | 108-93-4 |
Ethylene dichloride | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro- | 107-05-2 |
Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- | 110-80-5 |
Ethylenamine | Xylenamine | 151-55-4 |
Ethylene | Osterone | 75-21-6 |
Ethylmethylsulfo | 2-Imidazoledimethione | 95-45-7 |
Ethylidene dichloride | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-24-3 |
Ethyl methacrylate | 2-Propanolic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | 97-63-2 |
Ethylmethane sulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester | 63-30-0 |
Fentanyl | Phosphorothioic acid, 0-[4-(dimethylamino) sulfonyl] phenyl) O,O-dimethyl ester | 22-65-1 |
Fluoranthene | Same | 258-44-0 |
Fluorine | Same | 7792-41-4 |
Fluoroscotamide | Azotamide, 2-fluoro- | 640-19-7 |
Fluoroscotic acid, sodium salt | Azotic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt | 62-74-8 |
Formaldehyde | Same | 50-00-0 |
Fluoropyrrolamide | Ouranocarboxyaldehyde | 795-34-4 |
Heptosulfone N.O.S. | 4,7-Metheno-1H-dodeca, 1,4,5,6,7,8,9-heptachloro-bis,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- | 76-44-6 |
Heptachlor epoxide | 2,5-Metheno-2H-dodeca (1,2b)octano, 2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-b,2b,5,5a,6,8a-hexahydro-alpha, beta and gamma isomers | 1024-57-9 |
Hexachlorobenzene | Benzene, hexachloro- | 119-74-1 |
Hexachlorododecane | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- | 87-69-5 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- | 77-47-4 |
Hexachlorodibenzofurans | Ethane, hexachloro- | 67-72-1 |
Hexachlorosiloxane | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis(3,4,6-dichloro- | 70-20-4 |
Hexachloropropene | 1-Propanol, hexachloro- | 1885-71-7 |
Hexachlorobenzophenol | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexachlorol ester | 767-68-4 |
Hydrazine | Same | 202-01-2 |
[Appendix VIII]
| Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical texts | | --- | --- | --- | | Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrocyanic acid | 74-90-8 | | Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrochloric acid | 7664-39-3 | | Hydrogen sulfide | Same | 7783-56-4 | | Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene | Same | 192-39-5 | | Iodo
(e) OMe | Same | 9054-66-4 | | Isobutyl alcohol | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- | 78-83-1 | | Isoprene | 1,4,5,6-D-methanomaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1-alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5beta,5beta,5alpha,5 | | | Isoprene | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- | 120-56-1 | | Isoprene | 1,3,4-Methoxy-2H-pyrido[o] (octyl)pentyl-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorocyclahydro- | 143-50-6 | | Levodamine | 2-Butanolic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolam-1-yl ester, [1S-(1st)met(2,7t)3,3P,7eatm] | 303-34-4 | | Lead and compounds, N.O.S. | | 7439-92-1 | | Lead alkaloid | Acetic acid, lead(2-1) salt | 301-04-2 | | Lead propionate | Phosphoric acid, lead(2-1) salt | 7445-27-7 | | Lead subacidate | Lead, bisacidato-O[isox]hydroxyl | 1325-32-6 | | Linalool | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-Hexachloro- | 58-49-5 | | Malonic anhydride | 2,5-Furandione | 108-31-6 | | Maneb hydrazide | 3,5-Pyroclonadione, 1,2-dihydro- | 123-33-1 | | Malononitrite | Propanedonitrite | 109-77-3 | | Melonitrate | 1-Phenyralanine, 4-[(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)]- | 148-62-3 | | Mercury fumarate | Fumonic acid, mercury(2-1) salt | 625-09-4 | | Mercury and compounds, N.O.S. | Same | 7439-97-6 | | Methacrylonitrile | 2-Propanenitrile, 2-methyl- | 128-96-7 | | Methacrylone | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N-(2-pyridinyl-N-(2-thenylmethyl)- | 91-60-5 | | Methomyl | Acetimidic acid, N-[(methyloxido)oxyl]oxy [thio- methyl ester | 18752-77-5 | | Methoxychlor | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-tetrahydrofolane)]-4-methoxy- | 78-43-5 | | Methyldenone | Methane, bromo- | 74-83-9 | | Methyl chloride | Methane, chloro- | 74-87-3 | | Methyldenol | Carbonothiologic acid, methyl ester | 79-22-1 | | Methyl chlordane | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- | 71-59-6 | | 3-Methylcholanthrene | Benz[1]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- | 56-49-5 | | 4,4-Methylenedio[2-chlorobenzene] | Benzeneamine, 4,4'-methylenedio[1-chloro- | 101-14-4 | | Methylene bromide | Methane, doro- | 74-99-3 | | Methylsulfo chloride | Methane, dichloro- | 75-09-2 | | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) | 2-Butanone | 75-83-3 | | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide | 2-Butanone, peroxide | 1338-23-4 | | Methyl hydrazine | Hydrazine, methyl- | 85-34-4 | | Methyl iodide | Methane, iodo- | 74-68-4 | | Methyl isocyanate | Methane, isocyanate | 824-63-9 | | 2-Methylisocontine | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- | 75-66-5 | | Methyl methacrylate | 5-Propanolic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester | 60-62-6 | | Methyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester | 66-27-2 | | Methyl parafluor | Phosphorothioic acid, C(O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 296-00-6 | | Methylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyronidino[2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thio[o- | 58-04-2 | | Mcomycin C | Amino[2,3,3,4]pyrro[2,3,4] imidile-4,7-dione, 6-amino-6-[[(aminocarbonyloxy)methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- [1aR-diezione,8beta,8betaR]tetrahydro-] | 50-07-7 | | Methyl | Guanosine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso- | 70-25-7 | | Mustard gas | Ethane, (-)-thiobis(2-chloro- | 505-60-2 | | Naphthalene | Same | 91-20-3 | | 1,4-Naphthoquinone | 1,4-Naphthalenadione | 130-15-4 | | alpha-Naphthylamine | 1-Naphthalenamine | 134-32-7 | | beta-Naphthylamine | 2-Naphthalenamine | 91-59-6 | | alpha-Naphthylthiourea | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | 86-66-4 | | Nickel and compounds, N.O.S. | Same | 7440-02-0 | | Nickel carbonyl | Nickel carbonyl, (1-4)- | 13453-39-3 | | Nickel cyanide | Same | 557-19-7 | | Nicotine and salts | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)- and salts | 94-11-6 | | Nitric oxide | Nitrogen oxide, NO | 10102-43-8 | | p-Nitroaniline | Benzeneamine, 4-nitro- | 100-01-6 | | Nitrofurantoin | Benzene, nitro- | 98-88-3 | | Nitrogen dioxide | Nitrogen oxide, NO2 | 10102-44-0 | | Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt | Ethanamine, 2-chloro- N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt | 91-75-2 | | Nitrogen mustard N-oxide and hydrochloride salt | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, N-oxide, and hydrochloride salt | 126-89-2 | | Nitroglycerin | 1,2,5-Propanetriol, trinitrate | 56-63-0 | | p-Pirroophenol | Phenol, 4-nitro- | 100-02-7 | | 2-Nitropropane | Propane, 2-nitro- | 79-46-9 | | 4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide | Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide | 56-57-5 | | Nitroaniline, N.O.S. | | 35576-91-1 | | N-Nitrosodi-4-butylamine | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso | 924-16-3 | | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine | Ethanol, 2,2'-dinitroanilin- | 1116-54-7 | | N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Ethenamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso | 55-18-5 | | N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Methamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 62-75-8 | | N-Nitroso-N-ethyl urea | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso | 759-75-9 | | N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 10595-95-6 | | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 684-83-6 | | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester | 615-53-2 | | N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 4549-45-0 | | N-Nitrosomorpholine | Morpholine, N-nitroso | 58-89-2 | | N-Nitrosomethyloline | Pyridine, 3-(1-nitroso-2-pyrrolidinyl), (3)- | 18543-55-8 | | N-Nitrosopiperidine | Piperidine, 1-nitroso | 100-75-4 | | Nitrosopimorphine | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso | 930-55-2 | | N-Nitrososarcosine | Glycine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 10259-22-9 | | 5-Nitro-o-bisulene | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- | 88-65-8 | | Octamethylpyrrochlorobenzene | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- | 152-10-3 | | Osmium benzoate | Osmium oxide (OsO2) | 20816-12-0 | | Parafarnes | 1,2,5-Triazene, 2,4,5-trimethyl- | 123-63-7 | | Parafuran | Phosphorothioic acid, C(O-methyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 56-36-2 | | Pentachlorobenzene | Benzene, pentachloro- | 608-93-5 | | Pentachlorodibenzo-o-dioxins | | | | Pentachlorodibenzofurans | | |
[Appendix VIII]
Common name | Chemical substance name | Chemical substance |
---|---|---|
Pentachlorobenzene | Ethene, pentachloro- | 76-01-7 |
Pentachlorobenzene (PCNB) | Benzene, pentachlorobenzene | 82-48-4 |
Pentachlorophenol | Phenol, pentachloro- | 87-86-1 |
Phenacetin | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- | 82-44-2 |
Phenol | Same | 106-85-2 |
Phenylenediamine | Benzenediamine | 25265-76-2 |
Phenylmercury acetate | Mercury, Isostato-Ciphenyl- | 82-38-4 |
Phenylthiourea | Thiourea, phenyl- | 103-80-5 |
Phosphine | Carbonic dichloride | 75-44-5 |
Phosphine | Same | 7803-51-2 |
Phorine | Phosphorodithioic acid, 0,0-diethyl 5-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester | 298-02-2 |
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S. | ||
Phthalic anhydride | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione | 85-44-8 |
2-Picotine | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | 109-06-8 |
Polychlorinated biphenyls, N.O.S. | ||
Potassium cyanide | Same | 151-50-8 |
Potassium silver cyanide | Argentate (1), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium | 308-61-6 |
Pheneroate | Benzamide, 2,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- | 23950-58-5 |
1,3-Propanesulfone | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide | 1120-71-4 |
2-Propyramine | 1-Propanamine | 107-10-8 |
Propyl alcohol | 2-Propyl-1-ol | 107-19-7 |
Propylene dichloride | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- | 78-87-5 |
1,2-Propylenimine | Azindine, 2-methyl- | 75-55-8 |
Propylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo | 51-52-5 |
Pyridine | Same | 110-86-1 |
Reserpine | Yohimbim-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethylpy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy], methyl ester | 50-50-5 |
Reserpine | 1,3-Benzanediol | 108-48-3 |
Saccharin and salts | 1,2-Benzacitracyl-3(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide and salts | 81-07-2 |
Saffrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl) | 94-59-7 |
Selenium dioxide | Selenium | 7782-00-2 |
Selenium and compounds, N.O.S. | Selenium | 7762-49-2 |
Selenium sulfate | Same | 7445-34-8 |
Selenoones | Same | 830-10-4 |
Silver and compounds, N.O.S. | Silver | 7440-22-4 |
Silver cyanide | Same | 506-64-9 |
Silver (2,4,5-TP) | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-72-1 |
Sodium cyanide | Same | 143-33-8 |
Streptozotocin | D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosourea)py | 18883-66-4 |
Strontium sulfide | Same | 1314-96-1 |
Strontium and salts | Strontium-10-one and salts | 57-24-8 |
TCDD | Dipenzyl (o.a.) (1,4)dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro- | 1745-01-6 |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- | 95-84-3 |
Tetrachlorodipenzo-p-dioxins | ||
Tetrachlorodipenzolurans | ||
Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. | Ethene, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. | 25322-20-7 |
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- | 830-20-6 |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- | 79-34-5 |
Tetrachloroethylene | Ethene, tetrachloro- | 127-19-4 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- | 58-90-2 |
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 3669-24-5 |
Tetraethyl lead | Fluoribenz, tetraethyl- | 78-00-2 |
Tetraethylpyrophosphate | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 107-48-3 |
Tetrachloroethylene | Methane, tetranitro- | 509-14-8 |
Thallium and compounds, N.O.S. | Thallium | 7440-38-0 |
Thallium oxide | Thallium (III) oxide | 1314-32-5 |
Thallium (I) acetate | Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt | 565-68-8 |
Thallium (II carbonate) | Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+) salt | 8533-73-9 |
Thallium (I) chloride | Thallium chloride | 7791-12-0 |
Thallium (I) nitrate | Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt | 10102-45-1 |
Thallium selenite | Thallium selenide | 12039-52-0 |
Thallium (II sulfate) | Sulfuric acid, thallium salt | 12031-59-1 |
Thioacetamide | Ethylmethoxamide | 82-55-5 |
Thiofuran | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-D-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime | 29190-18-4 |
Thiamethanol | Methane:thiol | 74-93-1 |
Thiophenol | Benzene:thiol | 106-98-5 |
Thioxamiconazole | Hydroximercaricothioamide | 79-19-6 |
Thiourea | Same | 62-58-8 |
Thirum | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, Tetramethyl- | 137-26-6 |
Toluene | Benzene, methyl- | 108-99-7 |
Toluenediamine | Benzenediamine, α-methyl- | 25376-45-8 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, α-methyl- | 95-90-7 |
2,6-Toluenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-methyl- | 823-40-5 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 496-72-0 |
Toluene diisocyanide | Benzene, 2,4-diisocyanido-1-methyl- | 584-84-9 |
α-Toluidine | Benzene:α, α-methyl- | 106-49-0 |
α-Toluidine hydrochloride | Benzene:α, α-methyl-, hydrochloride | 838-21-0 |
Thiophene | Same | 8001-35-2 |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- | 120-82-1 |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,2-trichloro- | 79-00-5 |
Trichloroethylene | Ethene, trichloro- | 76-01-6 |
Trichloromethanethiol | Methane:thiol, trichloro- | 75-70-7 |
Trichloromonofluoromethane | Methane, trichlorofluoromethane | 75-69-4 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- | 86-55-4 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- | 88-06-2 |
2,4,5-T | Acetic acid, (2,4,6-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-76-5 |
Trichloropropene, N.O.S. | ||
1,2,3-Trichloropropene | Propene, 1,2,3-trichloro- | 98-18-4 |
0,0,0,1-tethiophosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, 0,0,0-methyl ester | 126-68-1 |
α,1,2,4,5,6-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,5-trichloro- | 99-20-4 |
Tri-2,3-dibromopropylphosphate | Azindine, 1,1',1''-phosphorothiophosphate | 52-24-4 |
Tri-2,3-dibromopropylphosphate | 1-Propanol, 2, 3-dibromo-, phosphate (9:1) | 126-72-7 |
APPENDIX VIII.—HAZARDOUS CONSTITUENTS—Continued
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no |
---|---|---|
Trojan blue | 2,7-Asp(2,4-Bis(2,4,4'-diphenyl)-4,4'-diphenyl)-2,4,3,3,3,3-dimethyl-2,4,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3, |
ANEJO C-4 Appendix IX Wastes Excluded Under Sections 260.20 and 260.22
[Appendix IX added by 49 FR 37070, September 21, 1984]
Facility | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Arco Chemical | Miami, FL | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after April 29, 1986. |
Chamber | ||
San | ||
Feather | Hot Springs, AR | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after July 18, 1986. |
Feather | ||
Site, Inc. | ||
Capitol | Harrisburg, PA | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after September 12, 1985. |
Piccucito | ||
Corp. | ||
Cincinnati | Cincinnati, OH | Glued bottom ash sludge (approximately 25,000 cubic yards) contained in the South Lagoon on September 13, 1984, which contains EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F001, F002, F003, F004, and F005. |
Cinninnati | ||
Metropolitan | ||
Sewer District | ||
Cinninnati | ||
Cen Co. | ||
Dover | ||
Dover Corp. | ||
Norris Div. | ||
Cen Co. | ||
Dynas, OK | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Table | I amended by 50 FR 30274. July 25, 1985: 20 FR 34692. August 27, 1985: 50 FR 37370. September 13, 1985: 50 FR 48910. November 27, 1985: 51 FR 1254. January 10, 1986: 51 FR 15889. April 29, 1986: 51 FR 25701. July 16, 1986: 51 FR 25891. July 17, 1986: corrected by 51 FR 27038. July 29, 1986: amended by 51 FR 32460. September 12, 1986 |
---|
Table 2.-Wastes Excluded From Specific Sources
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Amoco Oil Company | Wood River, IL |
(a) Wastes excluded from non-specific sources
150 million gallons of DAF float from petroleum refining contained in four surge ponds after treatment with the Chemitis stabilization process. This exclusion applies to the 150 million gallons of waste after chemical stabilization as long as the mixing ratios of the reagent with the waste are monitored continuously and do not vary outside of the limits presented in the demonstration samples; one grab sample is taken each hour from each treatment unit, composited, and EP toxicity tests performed on each sample. If the levels of lead or total chromium exceed 0.5 ppm in the EP extract, then the waste that was processed during the compositing period is considered hazardous; the treatment residue shall be pumped into bermed cells to ensure that the waste is identifiable in the event that removal is necessary. |
| LPC Chem. cal. | Ormington, MI | Brine purification muds and wastewater treatment sludges generated after August 27, 1985 from their chloralkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. K071 and K106) that have been batch tested for mercury using the EPA toxicity procedures and have been found to contain less than 0.05 ppm mercury in the EP extract. Brine purification muds and wastewater treatment sludges that exceed this level will be considered a hazardous waste. |
| Meal Corp. | Peekskill, NY | Wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. K006 and K007) generated from the production of chrome oxide green and iron blue pigments after November 27, 1985. |
Table 2 -Wastes Excluded From Specific Sources -Contd.
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Slaufer Chemica Co | Avis, AL | Brine purification muds generated from their chloralkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K078) and disposed of in brine mud pond HATF, 5 EP-201 |
Stauffer Chemical CL | St. Gabriel, LA | Brine purification muds, which have been washed and vacuum filtered, generated after August 27, 1985 from their chlor-alkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K071) that have been batch tested for mercury using the EP toxicity procedure and have been found to contain less than 0.05 ppm in mercury in the EP extract. Brine purification muds that exceed this level will be considered a hazardous waste |
[Table 2 added by 50 FR 34692. August 27, 1985; amended by 50 FR 37370. September 13, 1985: 50 FR 48910. November 27, 1985: corrected by 51 FR 27038. July 29, 1986] Table 3-Wastes Excluded From Commercial Chemical Products. Off-Specification Species. Container Residues, and Soil Residues Thereof
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
- Union Carbide Corp. | Taft, LA | Contaminated soil (approximately 11,000 cubic yards), which contains sorption in concentrations of less than 9 ppm |
ANEJO C-5 Appendix X Methods of Analysis for Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Diocins and Dibenzofurans ${ }^{1} 234$
[Appendix X added by 50 FR 1999, January 14, 1985]
This method is appropriate for the analysis of tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans.
Analytical protocol for determination of TCDDs in phenolic chemical wastes and soil samples obtained from the proximity of chemical dumps. T.O. Tiernan and M. Taylor, Brelon Laboratory, Wright State University, Dayton, OH 45435.
Analytical protocol for determination of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in river water. T.O. Tiernan and M. Taylor, Brelon Laboratory, Wright State University, Dayton, OH 45435.
In general, the techniques that should be used to handle these materials are those which are followed for radioactive or infectious laboratory materials. Assistance in evaluating laboratory practices may be obtained from industrial hygienists and persons specializing in safe laboratory practices. Typical infections waste incinerators are probably not satisfactory devices for disposal of materials highly contaminated with CDDs or CDFs. Safety instructions are outlined in EPA Test Method #184.01.
See also: 1) "Program for monitoring potential contamination in the laboratory following the handling and analysis of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans" by F.D. Hilleman, et al., In: Human and Environmental Risks of Chlorinated Dioxins and Related Compounds.
1.1 This method measures the concentration of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in chemical wastes including still bottoms, filter aids, sludges, spent carbon, and reactor residues, and in soils.
1.2 The sensitivity of this method is dependent upon the level of interferences.
1.3 This method is recommended for use only by analysts experienced with residue analysis and skilled in mass spectral analytical techniques.
1.4 Because of the extreme toxicity of these compounds, the analyst must take necessary precautions to prevent exposure to himself, or to others, of materials known or believed to contain CDDs or CDFs.
2.1 This method is an analytical extraction cleanup procedure, and capillary column gas chromatograph-low resolution mass spectrometry method, using capillary column GC/MS conditions and internal standard techniques, which allow for the measurement of PCDDs and PCDFs in the extract.
2.2 If interferences are encountered, the method provides selected general purpose cleanup procedures to aid the analyst in their elimination.
3.1 Solvents, reagents, glassware, and other sample processing hardware may yield discrete artifacts and/or elevated baselines causing misinterpretation of gas chromatograms. All of these materials must be demonstrated to be free from interferences under the conditions of the analysis by running method blanks. Specific selection of reagents and purification of solvents by distillation in all-glass systems may be required.
3.2 Interferences co-extracted from the samples will vary considerably from source to source, depending upon the diversity of the industry being sampled. PCDD is often associated with other interfering chlorinated compounds such as PCB's which may be at concentrations several orders of magnitude higher than that of PCDD. While general cleanup techniques are provided as part of this method, unique samples may require additional cleanup approaches to achieve the sensitivity stated in Table 1.
3.3 The other isomers of tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin may interfere with the measurement of 2,3,7,8-TCDD. Capillary column gas chromatography is required to resolve those isomers that yield virtually identical mass fragmentation patterns.
4.1 Sampling equipment for discrete or composite sampling.
4.1.1 Grab sample bottle—amber glass, 1-liter or 1-quart volume. French or Boston Round design is recommended. The container must be washed and solvent rinsed before use to minimize interferences.
4.1.2 Bottle caps—threaded to screw on to the sample bottles. Caps must be lined with Teflon. Solvent washed foil, used with the shiny side towards the sample, may be substituted for the Teflon if sample is not corrosive.
4.1.3 Composting equipment—automatic or manual composing system. No tygon or rubber tubing may be used, and the system must incorporate glass sample containers for the collection of a minimum of 250 ml. Sample containers must be kept refrigerated after sampling.
R.E. Tucker, et al., eds., Plenum Publishing Corp., 1985. 2) Safety procedures outlined in EPA Method 815, Federal Register volume 44, No. 250, December 5, 1979.
[Appendix X]
4.2 Water bath - heated with concentrated, non-condensate, and a temperature of 2°C. The bath should be used in a hood.
4.3 Gas chromatography/mass spectrometer data system.
4.3.1 Gas chromatograph. An analytical system with a temperature-programmable gas chromatograph and all required accessories including syringes, analytical columns, and gases.
4.3.2 Column: SP-2230 coated on a 30 m long x 0.25 mm I.D. glass column (Supelco No. 2-3714 or equivalent). Glass capillary column conditions: Helium carrier gas at 30 cm/sec; linear velocity run splitless; Column temperature is 210°C.
4.3.3 Mass spectrometer: Capable of scanning from 35 to 450 amu every 1 sec or less, utilizing 70 volts (nominal) electron energy in the electron impact ionization mode and producing a mass spectrum which meets all the criteria in Table 2 when 50 ng of decafluorotriphenyl-phosphine (DFTPP) is injected through the GC inlet. The system must also be capable of selecting ion monitoring (SIM) for at least 4 ions simultaneously, with a cycle time of 1 sec or less. Minimum integration time for SIM is 100 ms. Selected ion monitoring is verified by injecting 815 ng of TCDD (2.5% to give a minimum signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1 at mass 328).
4.3.4 GC/MS interface: Any GC-to-MS interface that gives acceptable calibration points at 50 ng per injection for each compound of interest and achieves acceptable tuning performance criteria (see Sections 6.1-6.3) may be used. GC-to-MS interfaces constructed of all glass or glass-lined materials are recommended. Glass can be deactivated by stianizing with dichlorodimethylsilane. The interface must be capable of transporting at least 10 ng of the components of interest from the GC to the MS.
4.3.5 Data system: A computer system must be interfaced to the mass spectrometer. The system must allow the continuous acquisition and storage on machine-readable media of all mass spectra obtained throughout the duration of the chromatographic program. The computer must have software that can search any GC/MS data file for ions of a specific mass and that can plot such ion abundances versus time or scan number. This type of plot is defined as an Extracted Ion Current Profile (EICP). Software must also be able to integrate the abundance, in any EICP, between specified time or scan number limits.
4.4 Pipettes-Disposable. Pasteur, 150 mm long x 5 mm ID (Fisher Scientific Co. No. 13-678-6A or equivalent).
4.5 Flint glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap).
4.6 Reach-vial (silanized) (Pierce Chemical Co.).
5.1 Potassium hydroxide-(ACS), 2% in distilled water.
5.2 Sulfuric acid-(ACS), concentrated.
5.3 Methylene chloride, hexane, benzene, petroleum ether, methanol, tetradecane-pesticide quality or equivalent.
5.4 Prepare stock standard solutions of TCDD and 2,3-TCDD (molecular weight 328) in a glovebox. The stock solutions are stored in a glovebox, and checked frequently for signs of degradation or evaporation, especially just prior to the preparation of working standards.
5.5 Alumina-basic. Woolin: 60/200 mesh. Before use, activate overnight at 600°C, cool to room temperature in a desiccator.
5.6 Prepurified nitrogen gas.
6.0 Calibration
6.1 Before using any cleanup procedure, the analyst must process a series of calibration standards through the procedure to validate elution patterns and the absence of interferences from reagents.
6.2 Prepare GC/MS calibration standards for the internal standard technique that will allow for measurement of relative response factors of at least three CDD+ CDD ratios. Thus, for TCDDs, at least three TCDD+ Cl-TCDD and TCDF+ Cl-TCDF must be determined. The Cl-TCDD/F concentration in the standard should be fixed and selected to yield a reproducible response at the most sensitive setting of the mass spectrometer. Response factors for PCDD and HxCDD may be determined by measuring the response of the tetrachlorodimethylsilane compounds relative to that of the unlabelled 1,2,3,4- or 2,3,7,8-TCDD 1,2,3,4,7-PCDD or 1,2,3,4,7,8-HxCDD, which are commercially available.
6.3 Assemble the necessary GC/MS apparatus and establish operating parameters equivalent to those indicated in Section 11.1 of this method. Calibrate the GC/MS system according to Eichelberger et al. (1975) by the use of decafluorotriphenyl-phosphine (DFTPP). By injecting calibration standards, establish the response factors for CDDs vs. 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 1,2,3,4,7-CDFS vs. 2,3,7,8-TCDF. The detection limit provided in Table 1 should be verified by injecting 0.015 ng of 2,3,7,8-TCDD which should give a minimum signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1 at mass 328.
7.1 Before processing any samples, the analyst should demonstrate through the analysis of a distilled water method blank that all glassware and reagents are interference-free. Each time a set of samples is extracted, or there is a change in reagents, a method blank should be processed as a safeguard against laboratory contamination.
7.2 Standard quality assurance practices must be used with this method. Field replicates must be collected to measure the precision of the sampling technique. Laboratory replicates must be analyzed to establish the precision of the analysis. Fortified samples must be analyzed to establish the accuracy of the analysis.
8.1 Grab and composite samples must be collected in glass containers. Conventional sampling practices should be followed, except that the bottle must not be prewashed with sample before collection. Composite samples should be collected in glass containers in accordance with the requirements of the RCRA program. Sampling equipment must be free of rayon and other potential sources of contamination.
*Cishettol: 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 2,3,7,8-TCDF are available from X.O.S. Isotopes, and Cambridge Isotopes, Inc., Cambridge, MA. Proper standardization requires the use of a specific labelled isomer for each congener to be determined. However, the only labelled isomers readily available are 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 2,3,7,8-TCDF. This method therefore uses these isomers as surrogates for the CDDs and CDFs. When other labelled CDDs and CDFs are available, their use will be required.
8.2 The samples must be used or refrigerated from the time of collection, until extraction. Chemical preservatives should not be used in the field unless more than 24 hours will elapse before delivery to the laboratory. If an aqueous sample is taken and the sample will not be extracted within 48 hours of collection, the sample should be adjusted to a pH range of 6.0-8.0 with sodium hydroxide or sulfuric acid.
8.3 All samples must be extracted within 7 days and completely analyzed within 30 days of collection.
9.1 Use an aliquot of 1-10 g sample of the chemical waste or soil to be analyzed. Soils should be dried using a stream of prepurified nitrogen and pulverized in a ball-mill or similar device. Perform this operation in a clean area with proper hood space. Transfer the sample to a tared 125 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap) and determine the weight of the sample. Add an appropriate quantity of Cl-labelled 2,3,7,8-TCDD (adjust the quantity according to the required minimum detectable concentration), which is employed as an internal standard.
9.2 Extraction
9.2.1 Extract chemical waste samples by adding 10 ml methanol, 40 ml petroleum ether, 50 ml doubly distilled water, and then shaking the mixture for 2 minutes. Tars should be completely dissolved in any of the recommended neat solvents. Activated carbon samples must be extracted with benzene using methanol 3540 in SW-846 (Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste-Physical/Chemical Methods, available from G.P.O. Stock #055-022-81001-2). Quantitatively transfer the organic extract or dissolved sample to a clean 250 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap), add 50 ml doubly distilled water and shake for 2 minutes. Discard the aqueous layer and proceed with Step 9.3.
9.2.2 Extract soil samples by adding 40 ml of petroleum ether to the sample, and then shaking for 20 minutes. Quantitatively transfer the organic extract to a clean 250 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap), add 50 ml doubly distilled water and shake for 2 minutes. Discard the aqueous layer and proceed with Step 9.3.
9.3 Wash the organic layer with 50 ml of 20% aqueous potassium hydroxide by shaking for 10 minutes and then remove and discard the aqueous layer.
9.4 Wash the organic layer with 50 ml of doubly distilled water by shaking for 2 minutes, and discard the aqueous layer.
9.5 Cautiously add 50 ml concentrated sulfuric acid and shake for 10 minutes. Allow the mixture to stand until layers separate (approximately 10 minutes), and remove and discard the acid layer. Repeat acid washing until no color is visible in the acid layer.
9.6 Add 50 ml of doubly distilled water to the organic extract and shake for 2 minutes. Remove and discard the aqueous layer and dry the organic layer by adding 10g of anhydrous sodium sulfate.
9.7 Concentrate the extract to incipient dryness by heating in a 55°C water bath and simultaneously flowing a stream of prepurified nitrogen over the extract. Quantitatively transfer the residue to an alumina microcolumn fabricated as follows:
[Appendix X]
9.7.1 Cut off the top section of a 10 ml disposable Pyrex pipette at the 4.0 ml mark and insert a plug of silanized glass wool into the tip of the lower portion of the pipette.
9.7.2 Add 2.5g of Woelm basic alumina (previously activated at 600°C overnight and then cooled to room temperature in a desiccator just prior to use).
9.7.3 Transfer sample extract with a small volume of methylene chloride.
9.8 Elute the microcolumn with 10 ml of 3% methylene chloride-in-hexane followed by 15 ml of 20% methylene chloride-in-hexane and discard these effluents. Elute the column with 15 ml of 50% methylene chloride-in-hexane and concentrate this effluent (55°C water bath, stream of prepurified nitrogen) to about 0.5-0.5 ml.
9.9 Quantitatively transfer the residue (using methylene chloride to rinse the container) to a silanized Reacti-Vial (Pierce Chemical Co.). Evaporate, using a stream of prepurified nitrogen, almost to dryness, rinse the walls of the vessel with approximately 0.5 ml methylene chloride, evaporate just to dryness, and tightly cap the vial. Store the vial at 5°C until analysis, at which time the sample is reconstituted by the addition of tridecane.
9.10 Approximately 1 hour before GC-MS (HPLC-LRMS) analysis, dilute the residue in the micro-reaction vessel with an appropriate quantity of tridecane. Gently swirl the tridecane on the lower portion of the vessel to ensure dissolution of the CDDs and CDFs. Analyze a sample by GC/EC to provide insight into the complexity of the problem and to determine the manner in which the mass spectrometer should be used. Inject an appropriate aliquot of the sample into the GC-MS instrument, using a syringe.
9.11 If, upon preliminary GC-MS analysis, the sample appears to contain interfering substances which obscure the analyses for CDDs and CDFs, high performance liquid chromatographic (HPLC) cleanup of the extract is accomplished, prior to further GC-MS analysis.
10.1 Place approximately 2 ml of hexane in a 50 ml film glass sample bottle fitted with a Teflon-lined cap.
10.2 At the appropriate retention time, position sample bottle to collect the required fraction.
10.3 Add 2 ml of 2% (w/v) sodium carbonate to the sample fraction collected and shake for one minute.
10.4 Quantitatively remove the hexane layer (top layer) and transfer to a micro-reaction vessel.
10.5 Concentrate the fraction to dryness and retain for further analysis.
11.1 The following column conditions are recommended: Glass capillary column conditions: SP-2250 coated on a 30 m long x 0.25 mm I.D. glass column (Supelco No. 2-3714, or equivalent) with helium carrier gas at 30 cm/sec linear velocity; run splitless. Column temperature is 210°C. Under these conditions the retention time for TCDDs is about 9.5 minutes. Calibrate the system daily with a minimum three injections of standard mixtures.
11.2 Calculate response factors for standards relative to $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F (see Section 12).
11.3 Analyze samples with selected ion monitoring of at least two ions from Table 3. Proof of the presence of CDD or CDF exists if the following conditions are met:
11.3.1 The retention time of the peak in the sample must match that in the standard within the performance specifications of the analytical system.
11.3.2 The ratio of ions must agree within 10% with that of the standard.
11.3.3 The retention time of the peak maximum for the ions of interest must exactly match that of the peak.
11.4 Quantitate the CDD and CDF peaks from the response relative to the $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F internal standards. Recovery of the internal standard should be greater than 50 percent.
11.5 If a response is obtained for the appropriate set of ions, but is outside the expected ratio, a co-eluting impurity may be suspected. In this case, another set of ions characteristic of the CDD/CDF molecules should be analyzed. For TCDD a good choice of ions is m/e 257 and m/e 259. For TCDF a good choice of ions is m/e 241 and 243. These ions are useful in characterizing the molecular structure of TCDD or TCDF. For analysis of TCDD good analytical technique would require using all four ions, m/e 257, 320, 322, and 328, to verify detection and signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1. Suspected impurities such as DDE, DDD, or PCB residues can be confirmed by checking for their major fragments. These materials can be removed by the cleanup columns. Failure to meet criteria should be explained in the report, or the sample reanalyzed.
11.6 If broad background interference restricts the sensitivity of the GC/MS analysis, the analyst should employ cleanup procedures and reanalyze by GC/MS. See section 10.0.
11.7 In those circumstances where these procedures do not yield a definitive conclusion, the use of high resolution mass spectrometry is suggested.
12.1 Determine the concentration of individual compounds according to the formula:
$$ ext{Concentration, μg/g·cm}^3 = \frac{A imes A_0}{G imes A_0 imes B} $$
where:
$$ A = ext{μg of internal standard added to the sample} $$
$$ G = ext{g of sample extracted} $$
$$ A_0 = ext{area of characteristic ion of the compound being quantified} $$
$$ A_0 = ext{area of characteristic ion of the internal standard} $$
$$ B_0 = ext{response factor} $$
Response factors are calculated using data obtained from the analysis of standards according to the formula:
$$ Rf = \frac{A_0 imes C_0}{A_0 imes C_0} $$
where:
$$ C_0 = ext{concentration of the internal standard} $$
$$ C_0 = ext{concentration of the standard compound} $12.2 Report results in micrograms per gram without correction for recovery data. When duplicate and spiked samples are analyzed, all data obtained should be reported.
12.3 Accuracy and Precision. No data are available at this time.
Column | Return (mm) | Detection limit (mm) | Detection limit (μg/kg) |
---|---|---|---|
Glass capillary | 0.5 | 0.003 |
Mass | Ion abundance criteria |
---|---|
51 | 70-80% of mass 166 |
62 | Less than 2% of mass 60 |
70 | Less than 2% of mass 69 |
127 | 40-60% of mass 166 |
197 | Less than 1% of mass 198 |
198 | Same peak, 100% relative abundance |
199 | 5-8% of mass 196 |
275 | 10-30% of mass 196 |
305 | Greater than 1% of mass 198 |
441 | Present but less than mass 443 |
442 | Greater than 40% of mass 198 |
443 | 17-20% of mass 442 |
J. W. Eichstetter, L.E. Harris, and W.L. Budde, 1975. Reference compounds to columns on abundance measurements in gas chromatography-mass spectrometry. Analytical Chemistry 47:995.
The proper amount of standard to be used is determined from the calibration curve (See Section 6.8).
If standards for PCDDs/Fs and HxCDDs/Fs are not available, response factors for ions derived from these congeners are calculated relative to $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F. The analyst may use response factors for 1,2,3,4- or 2,3,7,8-TCDD, 1,2,3,4,7-PeCDD, or 1,2,3,4,7,8-HxCDD for quantitation of TCDDs/Fs. PeCDDs/Fs and HxCDDs/Fs, respectively, implicit in this requirement is the assumption that the same response is obtained from PCDDs/Fs maintaining the same numbers of chlorine atoms.
[Appendix X]
TABLE 3.—LIST OF ACCURATE MASSES MONITORED USING GC SELECTED-ION MONITORING, LOW RESOLUTION, MASS SPECTROMETRY FOR SIMULTANEOUS DETERMINATION OF TETRA-, PENTA-, AND HEXACHLORINATED DIBENZO-β-DIOXINS AND DIBENZOFURANS
| Class of chlorinated dibenzodioxin or dibenzofuran | Number of specific activity forms
(a) | Monitored m/z for dibenzofurans C₁₁₄₄₀O₂₄ | Monitored m/z for dibenzofurans C₁₁₄₄₀O₂₄ | Approx. mass assumed or assumed on basis of epidemic alternatives | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Tetra | 4 | 1 316.657 221.894 1 327.865 1 256.033 1 256.630 | 1 300.902 305.903 1 311.894 1 311.894 | 0.74 1.00 0.21 0.20 | | Pental | 5 | 1 353.858 355.855 380.816 381.813 gm | 1 387.863 328.860 373.821 375.818 | 0.57 1.00 1.00 0.97 |
ANEJO C-6 40 CFR Parte 122 National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
(40 CFR 122; 45 FR 33418, May 19, 1980, Effective July 18, 1980; Amended as shown in Volume 40, Code of Federal Regulations, Revised as of July 1, 1981; Amended by 46 FR 35091, 35249, July 7, 1981; 46 FR 36703, July 15, 1981; 46 FR 43160, August 27, 1981; 46 FR 55113, November 6, 1981; 47 FR 4996, February 3, 1982; 47 FR 8306, February 25, 1982; 47 FR 15306, April 8, 1982; 47 FR 24920, June 8, 1982; 47 FR 27533, June 24, 1982; 47 FR 32129, 32369, July 26, 1982, Effective January 23, 1982; 47 FR 41563, September 21, 1982; 48 FR 2511, January 19, 1983; 48 FR 2939, January 21, 1983; 48 FR 3981, January 28, 1983; Revised by 48 FR 14153, April 1, 1983; Amended by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; 49 FR 25981, June 25, 1984; 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984; 49 FR 37009, September 20, 1984; 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984; 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985; Corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985; 50 FR 7912, February 27, 1985; 50 FR 35203, August 29, 1985; 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986)
[Editor's note: The modified information requirements contained in §§122.29(c)(5), 122.41(l)(1), 122.42(a), 122.45(b), and 122.62(a), have not been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and they are not effective until OMB has approved them.
Form 2c is published at the end of Part 125.]
Sec.
7-11-86
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
179
(a) Coverage. (1) These regulations contain provisions for the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) Program under sections 318, 402, and 405(a) of the Clean Water Act (CWA) (Pub. L. 92-500, as amended by Pub. L. 95-217, Pub. L. 95-576, Pub. L. 96-483, and Pub. L. 97-117; 33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.).
(2) These regulations cover basic EPA permitting requirements (Part 122), what a State must do to obtain approval to operate its program in lieu of a Federal program and minimum requirements for administering the approved State program (Part 123), and procedures for EPA processing of permit applications and appeals (Part 124). Part 124 is also applicable to other EPA permitting programs, as detailed in that Part.
(b) Scope of the NPDES permit requirement. (1) The NPDES program requires permits for the discharge of "pollutants" from any "point source" into "waters of the United States." The terms "pollutant," "point source," and "waters of the United States" are defined in § 122.2.
(2) The following are point sources requiring NPDES permits for discharges:
(i) Concentrated animal feeding operations as defined in § 122.23;
(ii) Concentrated aquatic animal production facilities as defined in § 122.24;
(iii) Discharges into aquaculture projects as set forth in § 122.25;
(iv) Discharges from separate storm sewers as set forth in § 122.26; and
(v) Silvicultural point sources as defined in § 122.27.
(c) State programs. Certain requirements set forth in Parts 122 and 124 are made applicable to approved State programs by reference in Part 123. These references are set forth in § 122.25. If a section or paragraph of Parts 122 or 124 is applicable to States, through reference in § 123.25, that fact is signaled by the following words at the end of the section or paragraph heading: (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25). If these words are absent, the section (or paragraph) applies only to EPA administered permits.
(d) Relation to other requirements. (1) Permit application forms. Applicants for EPA issued permits must submit their applications on EPA permit application forms when available. Most of the information requested on these application forms is required by these regulations. The basic information required in the general form (Form 1) and the additional information required for NPDES applications (Forms 2a-d) are listed in § 122.21. Applicants for State issued permits must use State forms which must require at a minimum the information listed in these sections.
(2) Technical regulations. The NPDES permit program has separate additional regulations that contain technical requirements. These separate regulations are used by permit issuing authorities to determine what requirements must be placed in permits if they are issued. These separate regulations are located at 40 CFR Parts 125, 129, 133, 136, and 40 CFR Subchapter N (Parts 400-460).
(e) Public participation. This rule establishes the requirements for public participation in EPA and State permit issuance and enforcement and related variance proceedings, and in the approval of State NPDES programs. These requirements carry out the purposes of the public participation requirements of 40 CFR Part 25 (Public Participation), and supersede the requirements of that Part as they apply to actions covered under Parts 122, 123, and 124.
(f) State authorities. Nothing in Parts 122, 123, or 124 precludes more stringent State regulation of any activity covered by these regulations, whether or not under an approved State program.
(g) Authority. (1) Section 301(a) of CWA provides that "Except as in compliance with this section and sections 302, 306, 307, 318, 402, and 404 of this Act, the discharge of any pollutant by any person shall be unlawful."
(2) Section 402(a)(1) of CWA provides in part that "The Administrator may, after opportunity for public hearing, issue a permit for the discharge of any pollutant, or combination of pollutants, upon condition that such discharge will meet either all applicable requirements under sections 301, 302, 306, 307, 308, and 403 of this Act, or prior to the taking of necessary implementing actions relating to all such requirements, such conditions as the Administrator determines are necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act."
(3) Section 318(a) of CWA provides that "The Administrator is authorized, after public hearings, to permit the discharge of a specific pollutant or pollutants under controlled conditions associated with an approved aquaculture project under Federal or State supervision pursuant to section 402 of this Act."
(4) Section 405 of CWA provides, in part, that "Where the disposal of sewage sludge resulting from the operation of a treatment works as defined in section 212 of this Act (including the removal of in-place sewage sludge from one location and its deposit at another location) would result in any pollutant from such sewage sludge entering the navigable waters, such disposal is prohibited except in accordance with a permit issued by the Administrator under section 402 of this Act."
(5) Sections 402(b), 318(b), and
(c) , and 405(c) of CWA authorize EPA approval of State permit programs for discharges from point sources, discharges to aquaculture projects, and disposal of sewage sludge.
(6) Section 304(i) of CWA provides that the Administrator shall promulgate guidelines establishing uniform application forms and other minimum requirements for the acquisition of information from dischargers in approved States and establishing minimum procedural and other elements of approved State NPDES programs.
(7) Section 501(a) of CWA provides that "The Administrator is authorized to prescribe such regulations as are necessary to carry out his functions under this Act."
(8) Section 101(e) of CWA provides that "Public participation in the development, revision, and enforcement of any regulation, standard, effluent limitation, plan, or program established by the Administrator or any State under this Act shall be provided for, encouraged, and assisted by the Administrator and the States. The Administrator, in cooperation with the States, shall develop and publish regulations specifying minimum guidelines for public participation in such processes."
The following definitions apply to Parts 122, 123, and 124. Terms not defined in this section have the meaning given by CWA. When a defined term appears in a definition, the defined term is sometimes placed in quotation marks as an aid to readers.
[Sec. 122.2]
Administrator means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, or an authorized representative.
Applicable standards and limitations means all State, interstate, and Federal standards and limitations to which a "discharge" or a related activity is subject under the CWA, including "effluent limitations," water quality standards, standards of performance, toxic effluent standards or prohibitions, "best management practices," and pretreatment standards under sections 301, 302, 303, 304, 306, 307, 308, 403, and 405 of CWA.
Application means the EPA standard national forms for applying for a permit, including any additions, revisions or modifications to the forms; or forms approved by EPA for use in "approved States," including any approved modifications or revisions.
Approved program or approved State means a State or interstate program which has been approved or authorized by EPA under Part 123.
Average monthly discharge limitation means the highest allowable average of "daily discharges" over a calendar month, calculated as the sum of all "daily discharges" measured during a calendar month divided by the number of "daily discharges" measured during that month.
Average weekly discharge limitation means the highest allowable average of "daily discharges" over a calendar week, calculated as the sum of all "daily discharges" measured during a calendar week divided by the number of "daily discharges" measured during that week.
Best management practices ("BMPs") means schedules of activities, prohibitions of practices, maintenance procedures, and other management practices to prevent or reduce the pollution of "waters of the United States." BMPs also include treatment requirements, operating procedures, and practices to control plant site runoff, spillage or leaks, sludge or waste disposal, or drainage from raw material storage.
BMPs means "best management practices."
Contiguous zone means the entire zone established by the United States under Article 24 of the Convention on the Territorial Sea and the Contiguous Zone.
Continuous discharge means a "discharge" which occurs without interruption throughout the operating hours of the facility, except for infrequent shutdowns for maintenance, process changes, or other similar activities.
CWA means the Clean Water Act (formerly referred to as the Federal Water Pollution Control Act or Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972) Pub. L. 92-500, as amended by Pub. L. 95-217, Pub. L. 95-576, Pub. L. 96-483 and Pub. L. 97-117, 33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.
CWA and regulations means the Clean Water Act (CWA) and applicable regulations promulgated thereunder. In the case of an approved State program, it includes State program requirements.
Daily discharge means the "discharge of a pollutant" measured during a calendar day or any 24-hour period that reasonably represents the calendar day for purposes of sampling. For pollutants with limitations expressed in units of mass, the "daily discharge" is calculated as the total mass of the pollutant discharged over the day. For pollutants with limitations expressed in other units of measurement, the "daily discharge" is calculated as the average measurement of the pollutant over the day.
Direct discharge means the "discharge of a pollutant."
Director means the Regional Administrator or the State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative. When there is no "approved State program," and there is an EPA administered program, "Director" means the Regional Administrator. When there is an approved State program, "Director" normally means the State Director. In some circumstances, however, EPA retains the authority to take certain actions even when there is an approved State program. (For example, when EPA has issued an NPDES permit prior to the approval of a State program, EPA may retain jurisdiction over that permit after program approval, see § 123.1.) In such cases, the term "Director" means the Regional Administrator and not the State Director.
Discharge when used without qualification means the "discharge of a pollutant."
Discharge of a pollutant means:
(a) Any addition of any "pollutant" or combination of pollutants to "waters of the United States" from any "point source," or
(b) Any addition of any pollutant or combination of pollutants to the waters of the "contiguous zone" or the ocean from any point source other than a vessel or other floating craft which is being used as a means of transportation.
This definition includes additions of pollutants into waters of the United States from: surface runoff which is collected or channelled by man; discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances owned by a State, municipality, or other person which do not lead to a treatment works; and discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances, leading into privately owned treatment works. This term does not include an addition of pollutants by any "indirect discharge."
Discharge Monitoring Report ("DMR") means the EPA uniform national form, including any subsequent additions, revisions, or modifications for the reporting of self-monitoring results by permittees. DMRs must be used by "approved States" as well as by EPA. EPA will supply DMRs to any approved State upon request. The EPA national forms may be modified to substitute the State Agency name, address, logo, and other similar information, as appropriate, in place of EPA's.
DMR means "Discharge Monitoring Report."
Draft permit means a document prepared under § 124.6 indicating the Director's tentative decision to issue or deny, modify, revoke and reissue, terminate, or reissue a "permit." A notice of intent to terminate a permit, and a notice of intent to deny a permit, as discussed in § 124.5, are types of "draft permits." A denial of a request for modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, as discussed in § 124.5, is not a "draft permit." A "proposed permit" is not a "draft permit."
Effluent limitation means any restriction imposed by the Director on quantities, discharge rates, and concentrations of "pollutants" which are "discharged" from "point sources" into "waters of the United States," the waters of the "contiguous zone," or the ocean.
[Sec. 122.2]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
63
131:1004
Effluent limitations guidelines means a regulation published by the Administrator under section 304(b) of CWA to adopt or revise "effluent limitations."
Environmental Protection Agency ("EPA") means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
EPA means the United States "Environmental Protection Agency."
Facility or activity means any NPDES "point source" or any other facility or activity (including land or appurtenances thereto) that is subject to regulation under the NPDES program.
General permit means an NPDES "permit" issued under § 122.28 authorizing a category of discharges under the CWA within a geographical area.
Hazardous substance means any substance designated under 40 CFR Part 116 pursuant to section 311 of CWA.
Indirect discharger means a nondomestic discharger introducing "pollutants" to a "publicly owned treatment works."
Interstate agency means an agency of two or more States established by or under an agreement or compact approved by the Congress, or any other agency of two or more States having substantial powers or duties pertaining to the control of pollution as determined and approved by the Administrator under the CWA and regulations.
Major facility means any NPDES "facility or activity" classified as such by the Regional Administrator, or, in the case of "approved State programs," the Regional Administrator in conjunction with the State Director.
Maximum daily discharge limitation means the highest allowable "daily discharge."
Municipality means a city, town, borough, county, parish, district, association, or other public body created by or under State law and having jurisdiction over disposal of sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes, or an Indian tribe or an authorized Indian tribal organization, or a designated and approved management agency under section 208 of CWA.
National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) means the national program for issuing, modifying, revoking and reissuing, terminating, monitoring and enforcing permits, and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements, under sections 307, 402, 318, and 406 of CWA. The term includes an "approved program."
"New discharger" means any building structure, facility, or installation:
(a) From which there is or may be a "discharge of pollutants."
(b) That did not commence the "discharge of pollutants" at a particular "site" prior to August 13, 1979;
(c) Which is not a "new source," and
(d) Which has never received a finally effective NDPES permit for discharges at that "site."
This definition includes an "indirect discharger" which commences discharging into "waters of the United States" after August 13, 1979. It also includes any existing mobile point source (other than an offshore or coastal oil and gas exploratory drilling rig or a coastal oil and gas developmental drilling rig) such as a seafood processing rig, seafood processing vessel, or aggregate plant, that begins discharging at a "site" for which it does not have a permit; and any offshore or coastal mobile oil and gas exploratory drilling rig or coastal mobile oil and gas developmental drilling rig that commences the discharge of pollutants after August 13, 1979, at a "site" under EPA's permitting jurisdiction for which it is not covered by an individual or general permit and which is located in an area determined by the Regional Administrator in the issuance of a final permit to be an area or biological concern. In determining whether an area is an area of biological concern, the Regional Administrator shall consider the factors specified in 40 CFR 125.122(a) (1) through (10).
An offshore or coastal mobile exploratory drilling rig or coastal mobile developmental drilling rig will be considered a "new discharger" only for the duration of its discharge in an area of biological concern.
("New discharger" revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983)
New source means any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a "discharge of pollutants," the construction of which commenced:
(a) After promulgation of standards of performance under section 306 of CWA which are applicable to such source, or
(b) After proposal of standards of performance in accordance with section 306 of CWA which are applicable to such source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with section 306 within 120 days of their proposal.
NPDES means "National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System."
Owner or operator means the owner or operator of any "facility or activity" subject to regulation under the NPDES program.
Permit means an authorization, license, or equivalent control document issued by EPA or an "approved State" to implement the requirements of this Part and Parts 123 and 124. "Permit" includes an NPDES "general permit" (§ 122.28). Permit does not include any permit which has not yet been the subject of final agency action, such as a "draft permit" or a "proposed permit."
Person means an individual, association, partnership, corporation, municipality, State or Federal agency, or an agent or employee thereof.
Point source means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, vessel, or other floating craft from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
("Point source" corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
Pollutant means dredged spoil, solid-waste, incinerator residue, filter backwash, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials (except those regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.)), heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water. It does not mean:
(a) Sewage from vessels; or
(b) Water, gas, or other material which is injected into a well to facilitate production of oil or gas, or water derived in association with oil and gas production and disposed of in a well, if the well used either to facilitate production or for disposal purposes is approved by authority of the State in which the well is located, and if the State determines that the injection or disposal will not result in the degradation of ground or surface water resources.
(Sec. 122.2)
Environment Reporter
64
[Note.-Radioactive materials covered by the Atomic Energy Act are those encompassed in its definition of source, byproduct, or special nuclear materials. Examples of materials not covered include radium and accelerator-produced isotopes. See Train v. Colorado Public Interest Research Group, Inc., 426 U.S. 1 (1976).]
POTW means "publicly owned treatment works."
Primary industry category means any industry category listed in the NRDC settlement agreement (Natural Resources Defense Council et al. v. Train, 8 E.R.C. 2120 (D.D.C. 1976), modified 12 E.R.C. 1833 (D.D.C. 1979)); also listed in Appendix A of Part 122.
Privately owned treatment works means any device or system which is
(a) used to treat wastes from any facility whose operator is not the operator of the treatment works and
(b) not a "POTW."
Process wastewater means any water which, during manufacturing or processing, comes into direct contact with or results from the production or use of any raw material, intermediate product, finished product, byproduct, or waste product.
Proposed permit means a State NPDES "permit" prepared after the close of the public comment period (and, when applicable, any public hearing and administrative appeals) which is sent to EPA for review before final issuance by the State. A "proposed permit" is not a "draft permit."
Publicly owned treatment works ("POTW") means any device or system used in the treatment (including recycling and reclamation) of municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature which is owned by a "State" or "municipality." This definition includes sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW providing treatment.
Recommencing discharger means a source which recommences discharge after terminating operations.
Regional Administrator means the Regional Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office of the Environmental Protection Agency or the authorized representative of the Regional Administrator.
Schedule of compliance means a schedule of remedial measures included in a "permit", including an enforceable sequence of interim requirements (for example, actions, operations, or milestone events) leading to compliance with the CWA and regulations.
Secondary industry category means any industry category which is not a "primary industry category."
Secretary means the Secretary of the Army, acting through the Chief of Engineers.
Sewage from vessels means human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or retain body wastes that are discharged from vessels and regulated under section 312 of CWA, except that with respect to commercial vessels on the Great Lakes this term includes graywater. For the purposes of this definition, "graywater" means galley, bath, and shower water.
Sewage sludge means the solids, residues, and precipitate separated from or created in sewage by the unit processes of a "publicly owned treatment works." "Sewage" as used in this definition means any wastes, including wastes from humans, households, commercial establishments, industries, and storm water runoff, that are discharged to or otherwise enter a publicly owned treatment works.
Site means the land or water area where any "facility or activity" is physically located or conducted, including adjacent land used in connection with the facility or activity.
State means any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.
State Director means the chief administrative officer of any State or interstate agency operating an "approved program," or the delegated representative of the State Director. If responsibility is divided among two or more State or interstate agencies, "State Director" means the chief administrative officer of the State or interstate agency authorized to perform the particular procedure or function to which reference is made.
State/EPA Agreement means an agreement between the Regional Administrator and the State which coordinates EPA and State activities, responsibilities and programs including those under the CWA programs.
Total dissolved solids means the total dissolved (filterable) solids as determined by use of the method specified in 40 CFR Part 136.
Toxic pollutant means any pollutant listed as toxic under section 307(a)(1) of CWA.
Variance means any mechanism or provision under sections 301 or 316 of CWA or under 40 CFR Part 125, or in the applicable "effluent limitations guidelines" which allows modification to or waiver of the generally applicable effluent limitation requirements or time deadlines of CWA. This includes provisions which allow the establishment of alternative limitations based on fundamentally different factors or on sections 301(c), 301(g), 301(h), 301(i), or 316(a) of CWA.
Waters of the United States or waters of the U.S. means:
(a) All waters which are currently used, were used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters which are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide;
(b) All interstate waters, including interstate "wetlands;"
(c) All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams (including intermittent streams), mudflats, sandflats, "wetlands," sloughs, prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds the use, degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign commerce including any such waters;
(1) Which are or could be used by interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;
(d) From which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce; or
(3) Which are used or could be used for industrial purposes by industries in interstate commerce;
(d) All impoundments of waters otherwise defined as waters of the United States under this definition;
(e) Tributaries of waters identified in paragraphs
(a) -(d) of this definition;
(f) The territorial sea; and
[Sec. 122.2]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
65
131:1006
(g) "Wetlands" adjacent to waters (other than waters that are themselves wetlands)-identified in paragraphs
(a) -(f) of this definition.
Waste treatment systems, including treatment ponds or lagoons designed to meet the requirements of CWA (other than cooling ponds as defined in 40 CFR § 423.11(m) which also meet the criteria of this definition) are not waters of the United States. This exclusion applies only to manmade bodies of water which neither were originally created in waters of the United States (such as disposal area in wetlands) nor resulted from the impoundment of waters of the United States. [See Note 1 of this section.]
Wetlands means those areas that are inundated or saturated by surface or groundwater at a frequency and duration sufficient to support, and that under normal circumstances do support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Wetlands generally include swamps, marshes, bogs, and similar areas.
[Note 1.-At 45 FR 48620, July 21, 1980, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice in § 122.2, the last sentence, beginning "This exclusion applies" in the definition of "Waters of the United States." This revision continues that suspension.]
[Note 1 corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Note 2. - [Deleted]
[Note 2 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
§ 122.3 Exclusions.
The following discharges do not require NPDES permits:
(a) Any discharge of sewage from vessels, effluent from properly functioning marine engines, laundry, shower, and galley sink wastes, or any other discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel. This exclusion does not apply to rubbish, trash, garbage, or other such materials discharged overboard; nor to other discharges when the vessel is operating in a capacity other than as a means of transportation such as when used as an energy or mining facility, a storage facility or a seafood processing facility, or when secured to a storage facility or a seafood processing facility, or when secured to the bed of the ocean, contiguous zone or waters of the United States for the purpose of mineral or oil exploration or development.
(b) Discharges of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States which are regulated under section 404 of CWA.
(c) The introduction of sewage, industrial wastes or other pollutants into publicly owned treatment works by indirect dischargers. Plans or agreements to switch to this method of disposal in the future do not relieve dischargers of the obligation to have and comply with permits until all discharges of pollutants to waters of the United States are eliminated. (See also § 122.47(b)). This exclusion does not apply to the introduction of pollutants to privately owned treatment works or to other discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances owned by a State, municipality, or other party not leading to treatment works.
(d) Any discharge in compliance with the instructions of an On-Scene Coordinator pursuant to 40 CFR Part 1510 (The National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Plan) or 33 CFR 153.10(e) (Pollution by Oil and Hazardous Substances).
(e) Any introduction of pollutants from non point-source agricultural and silvicultural activities, including runoff from orchards, cultivated crops, pastures, range lands, and forest lands, but not discharges from concentrated animal feeding operations as defined in § 122.23, discharges from concentrated aquatic animal production facilities as defined in § 122.24, discharges to aquaculture projects as defined in § 122.25, and discharges from silvicultural point sources as defined in § 122.27.
(f) Return flows from irrigated agriculture.
(g) Discharges into a privately owned treatment works, except as the Director may otherwise require under § 122.44(m).
§ 122.4 Prohibitions (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
No permit may be issued:
(a) When the conditions of the permit do not provide for compliance with the applicable requirements of CWA, or regulations promulgated under CWA;
(b) When the applicant is required to obtain a State or other appropriate certification under section 401 of CWA and § 124.53 and that certification has not been obtained or waived;
(c) By the State Director where the Regional Administrator has objected to issuance of the permit under § 123.44;
(d) When the imposition of conditions cannot ensure compliance with the applicable water quality requirements of all affected States;
(e) When, in the judgment of the Secretary, anchorage and navigation in or on any of the waters of the United States would be substantially impaired by the discharge;
(f) For the discharge of any radiological, chemical, or biological warfare agent or high-level radioactive waste;
(g) For any discharge inconsistent with a plan or plan amendment approved under section 208(b) of CWA;
(h) For any discharge to the territorial sea, the waters of the contiguous zone, or the oceans in the following circumstances:
(1) Before the promulgation of guidelines under section 403(c) of CWA (for determining degradation of the waters of the territorial seas, the contiguous zone, and the oceans) unless the Director determines permit issuance to be in the public interest; or
(2) After promulgation of guidelines under section 403(c) of CWA, when insufficient information exists to make a reasonable judgment whether the discharge complies with them.
(i) To a new source or a new discharger, if the discharge from its construction or operation will cause or contribute to the violation of water quality standards. The owner or operator of a new source or new discharger proposing to discharge into a water segment which does not meet applicable water quality standards or is not expected to meet those standards even after the application of the effluent limitations required by section
[Sec. 122.4(i)]
Environment Reporter
66
301(b)(1)(A) and 301(b)(1)(B) of CWA, and for which the State or interstate agency has performed a pollutants load allocation for the pollutant to be discharged, must demonstrate, before the close of the public comment period, that:
(1) There are sufficient remaining pollutant load allocations to allow for the discharge; and
(2) The existing dischargers into that segment are subject to compliance schedules designed to bring the segment into compliance with applicable water quality standards.
(a) Applicable to State programs, see § 122.25. Except for any toxic effluent standards and prohibitions imposed under section 307 of the CWA, compliance with a permit during its term constitutes compliance, for purposes of enforcement, with section 301, 302, 306, 307, 318, 403, and 405 of CWA. However, a permit may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated during its term for cause as set forth in §§ 122.62 and 122.64.
(b) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. The issuance of a permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.
(c) The issuance of a permit does not authorize any injury to persons or property or invasion of other private rights, or any infringement of State or local law or regulations.
(a) EPA permits. When EPA is the permit-issuing authority, the conditions of an expired permit continue in force under 5 U.S.C. 568(c) until the effective date of a new permit (see § 124.15) if:
(1) The permittee has submitted a timely application under § 122.21 which is a complete (under § 122.21(e)) application for a new permit; and
(2) The Regional Administrator, through no fault of the permittee does not issue a new permit with an effective date under § 124.15 on or before the expiration date of the previous permit (for example, when issuance is impracticable due to time or resource constraints).
(b) Effect. Permits continued under this section remain fully effective and enforceable.
[122.6(b) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(c) Enforcement. When the permittee is not in compliance with the conditions of the expiring or expired permit the Regional Administrator may choose to do any or all of the following:
(1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the permit which has been continued;
(2) Issue a notice of intent to deny the new permit under § 124.6. If the permit is denied, the owner or operator would then be required to cease the activities authorized by the continued permit or be subject to enforcement action for operating without a permit;
(3) Issue a new permit under Part 124 with appropriate conditions; or
(4) Take other actions authorized by these regulations.
(d) State continuation.
(1) An EPA-issued permit does not continue in force beyond its expiration date under Federal law if at that time a State is the permitting authority. States authorized to administer the NPDES program may continue either EPA or State-issued permits until the effective date of the new permits, if State law allows. Otherwise, the facility or activity is operating without a permit from the time of expiration of the old permit to the effective date of the State-issued new permit.
(a) In accordance with 40 CFR Part 2, any information submitted to EPA pursuant to these regulations may be claimed as confidential by the submitter. Any such claim must be asserted at the time of submission in the manner prescribed on the application form or instructions or, in the case of other submissions, by stamping the words "confidential business information" on each page containing such information. If no claim is made at the time of submission, EPA may make the information available to the public without further notice. If a claim is asserted, the information will be treated in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR Part 2 (Public Information).
(b) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. Claims of confidentiality for the following information will be denied:
(1) The name and address of any permit applicant or permittee;
(2) Permit applications, permits, and effluent data.
(c) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. Information required by NPDES application forms provided by the Director under § 122.21 may not be claimed confidential. This includes information submitted on the forms themselves and any attachments used to supply information required by the forms.
(a) Duty to apply. Any person who discharges or proposes to discharge pollutants and who does not have an effective permit, except persons covered by general permits under § 122.28, excluded under § 122.3, or a user of a privately owned treatment works unless the Director requires otherwise under § 122.44(m), shall submit a complete application (which shall include a BMP program if necessary under 40 CFR 125.102) to the Director in accordance with this section and Part 124.
(b) Who applies? When a facility or activity is owned by one person but is operated by another person, it is the operator's duty to obtain a permit.
(c) (1) Time to apply. Any person proposing a new discharge shall submit an application at least 180 days before the date on which the discharge is to commence, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the Director. Persons proposing a new discharge are encouraged to submit their applications well in advance of the 180 day requirement to avoid delay. See also paragraph
(k) of this section.
[122.21(c)(1) designated by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Any existing Group I storm water discharge (as defined in §122.26(b)(2)) that does not have an effective permit shall submit an application by December 31, 1987. Any existing Group II storm water discharge (as defined in §122.26(b)(3)) that does not have an effective permit shall submit an application by June 30, 1989. Any discharger designated under §122.26(c) shall submit an application within 6 months of notification of its designation.
[122.21(c)(2) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984; corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Sec. 122.21(c)(2)]
131:1008
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
6940, February 19, 1985; revised by 50 FR 35203, August 29, 1985]
(d) Duty to reapply. (1) Any POTW with a currently effective permit shall submit a new application at least 180 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the Director. (The Director shall not grant permission for applications to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.)
[Editor's note: EPA February 19, 1985, [50 FR 6940] corrected 122.21(d)(2) as it appeared at 48 FR 14146, April 1, 1983. However, that entire subparagraph was revised August 8, 1984 (49 FR 31842) and the 1983 text no longer exists.]
(2) All other permittees with currently effective permits shall submit a new application 180 days before the existing permit expires, except that:
(i) The Regional Administrator may grant permission to submit an application later than the deadline for submission otherwise applicable, but no later than the permit expiration date; and
(ii) The Regional Administrator may grant permission to submit the information required by paragraphs
(g) (7), (9), and (10) of this section after the permit expiration date.
[122.21(d)(2) revised by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(3) All applicants for EPA issued permits, other than POTWs and new sources, must complete Forms 1 and either 2b or 2c of the consolidated permit application forms to apply under section 122.21 and paragraphs
(f) ,
(g) , and
(h) of this section.
[122.21(d)(3) added by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(e) Completeness. The Director shall not issue a permit before receiving a complete application for a permit except for NPDES general permits. An application for a permit is complete when the Director receives an application form and any supplemental information which are completed to his or her satisfaction. The completeness of any application for a permit shall be judged independently of the status of any other permit application or permit for the same facility or activity. For EPA administered NPDES programs, an application which is reviewed under § 124.3 is complete when the Director receives either a complete application or the information listed in a notice of deficiency.
(f) Information requirements. All applicants for NPDES permits shall provide the following information to the Director, using the application form provided by the Director (additional information required of applicants is set forth in paragraphs
(g) -(k)) of this section.
(1) The activities conducted by the applicant which require it to obtain an NPDES permit.
(2) Name, mailing address, and location of the facility for which the application is submitted.
(3) Up to four SIC codes which best reflect the principal products or services provided by the facility.
(4) The operator's name, address, telephone number, ownership status, and status as Federal, State, private, public, or other entity.
(5) Whether the facility is located on Indian lands.
(6) A listing of all permits or construction approvals received or applied for under any of the following programs:
(i) Hazardous Waste Management program under RCRA.
(ii) UIC program under SDWA.
(iii) NPDES program under CWA.
(iv) Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act.
(v) Nonattainment program under the Clean Air Act.
(vi) National Emission Standards for Hazardous Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act.
(vii) Ocean dumping permits under the Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act.
(viii) Dredge or fill permits under section 404 of CWA.
(ix) Other relevant environmental permits, including State permits.
(7) A topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending one mile beyond the property boundaries of the source, depicting the facility and each of its intake and discharge structures; each of its hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities; each well where fluids from the facility are injected underground; and those wells, springs, other surface water bodies, and drinking water wells listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant in the map area, Group II storm water discharges, as defined in § 122.26(b)(3), are exempt from the requirements of paragraph
(f) (7) of this section.
[122.21(f)(7) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(8) A brief description of the nature of the business.
(9) For Group II storm water dischargers (as defined in § 122.26(b)(3)) only, a brief narrative description of:
(i) The drainage area, including an estimate of the size and nature of the area;
(ii) The receiving water; and
(iii) Any treatment applied to the discharge.
[122.21(f)(9) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(g) Application requirements for existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers. Existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers applying for NPDES permits shall provide the following information to the Director, using application forms provided by the Director:
(1) Outfall location. The latitude and longitude to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving water.
(2) Line Drawing. A line drawing of the water flow through the facility with a water balance, showing operations contributing wastewater to the effluent and treatment units. Similar processes, operations, or production areas may be indicated as a single unit, labeled to correspond to the more detailed identification under paragraph
(g) (3) of this section. The water balance must show approximate average flows at intake and discharge points and between units, including treatment units. If a water balance cannot be determined (for example, for certain mining activities), the applicant may provide instead a pictorial description of the nature and amount of any sources of water and any collection and treatment measures.
(3) Average flows and treatment. A narrative identification of each type of process, operation, or production area which contributes wastewater to the effluent for each outfall, including process wastewater, cooling water, and stormwater runoff; the average flow which each process contributes; and a description of
[Sec. 122.21(g)(3)]
Environment Reporter
194
The treatment the wastewater receives, including the ultimate disposal of any solid or fluid wastes other than by discharge. Processes, operations, or production areas may be described in general terms (for example, "dye-making reactor", "distillation tower." For a privately owned treatment works, this information shall include the identity of each user of the treatment works.
(4) Intermittent flows. If any of the discharges described in paragraph
(g) (3) of this section are intermittent or seasonal, a description of the frequency, duration and flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for storm-water runoff, spillage or leaks).
[122.21(g)(3) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(5) Maximum production. If an effluent guideline promulgated under section 304 of CWA applies to the applicant and is expressed in terms of production (or other measure of operation), a reasonable measure of the applicant's actual production reported in the units used in the applicable effluent guideline. The reported measure must reflect the actual production of the facility as required by § 122.45(b)(2).
(6) Improvements. If the applicant is subject to any present requirements or compliance schedules for construction, upgrading or operation of waste treatment equipment, an identification of the abatement requirement, a description of the abatement project, and a listing of the required and projected final compliance dates.
[122.21(g)(7) introductory text revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(7) Effluent characteristics. Information on the discharge of pollutants specified in this subparagraph. When "quantitative data" for a pollutant are required, the applicant must collect a sample of effluent and analyze it for the pollutant in accordance with analytical methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136. When no analytical method is approved the applicant may use any suitable method but must provide a description of the method. When an applicant has two or more outfalls with substantially identical effluents, the Director may allow the applicant to test only one outfall and report that the quantitative data also apply to the substantially identical outfalls. The requirements in paragraphs
(g) (7)(iii) and (iv) of this section that an applicant must provide quantitative data for certain pollutants known or believed to be present do not apply to pollutants present in a discharge solely as the result of their presence in intake water; however, an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, and fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be used. However, a minimum of one grab sample may be taken for effluents from holding ponds or other impoundments with a retention period greater than 24 hours, and a minimum of one to four (4) grab samples may be taken for storm water discharges depending on the duration of the discharge. One grab sample shall be taken in the first hour (or less) of discharge with one additional grab sample taken in each succeeding hour of discharge up to a minimum of four grab samples for discharges lasting four or more hours. In addition, the Director may waive composite sampling for any outfall for which the applicant demonstrates that the use of an automatic sampler is infeasible and that the minimum of four (4) grab samples will be a representative sample of the effluent being discharged. An applicant is expected to "know or have reason to believe" that a pollutant is present in an effluent based on an evaluation of the expected use, production, or storage of the pollutant, or on any previous analyses for the pollutant. (For example, any pesticide manufactured by a facility may be expected to be present in contaminated storm water runoff from the facility.)
(ii)(A) Every applicant must report quantitative data for every outfall for the following pollutants:
(B) The Director may waive the reporting requirements for individual point sources or for a particular industry category for one or more of the pollutants listed in paragraph
(g) (7)(i)(A) of this section if the applicant has demonstrated that such a waiver is appropriate because information adequate to support issuance of a permit can be obtained with less stringent requirements.
[122.21(g)(7)(i)(B) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(ii) Each applicant with processes in one or more primary industry category (see Appendix A to Part 122) contributing to a discharge must report quantitative data for the following pollutants in each outfall containing process wastewater:
(A) The organic toxic pollutants in the fractions designated in Table I of Appendix D of this Part for the applicant's industrial category or categories unless the applicant qualifies as a small business under paragraph (8)(B) of this section. Table II of Appendix D of this Part lists the organic toxic pollutants in each fraction. The fractions result from the sample preparation required by the analytical procedure which uses gas chromatography/mass spectrometry. A determination that an applicant falls within a particular industrial category for the purposes of selecting fractions for testing is not conclusive as to the applicant's inclusion in that category for any other purposes. [See Notes 2, 3, and 4 of this section.]
[122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(B) The pollutants listed in Table III of Appendix D of this Part (the toxic metals, cyanide, and total phenols).
[122.21(g)(7)(iii) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(iii)(A) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table IV of Appendix D (certain conventional and nonconventional pollutants) is discharged from each outfall. If an applicable effluent limitations guideline either directly limits the pollutant or, by its express terms, indirectly limits the pollutant through limitations on an indicator, the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant discharged which is not so limited in an effluent limitations guideline, the applicant must either report quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged.
[Sec. 122.21(g)(7)(iii)]
131:1010
(B) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants listed in Table II or Table III of Appendix D (the toxic pollutants and total phenols) for which quantitative data are not otherwise required under paragraph
(g) (7)(ii) of this section, is discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations of 10 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, where any of these four pollutants are expected to be discharged in concentrations of 100 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations less than 10 ppb, or in the case of acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, in concentrations less than 100 ppb, the applicant must either submit quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged. An applicant qualifying as a small business under paragraph
(g) (8) of this section is not required to analyze for pollutants listed in Table II of Appendix D (the organic toxic pollutants).
(iv) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table V of Appendix D of this Part (certain hazardous substances and asbestos) are discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged, the applicant must briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged, and report any quantitative data it has for any pollutant.
[122.21(g)(7)(iv) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(v) Each applicant must report qualitative data, generated using a screening procedure not calibrated with analytical standards, for 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) if it:
(A) Uses or manufactures 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5-T); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5-TP); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl, 2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon); O,O-dimethyl O-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate (Ronnel); 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP); or hexachlorophene (HCP); or
(B) Knows or has reason to believe that TCDD is or may be present in an effluent.
(8) Small business exemption. An applicant which qualifies as a small business under one of the following criteria is exempt from the requirements in paragraphs
(g) (7)(ii)(A) or
(g) (7)(iii)(A) of this section to submit quantitative data for the pollutants listed in Table II of Appendix D of this Part (the organic toxic pollutants):
(i) For coal mines, a probable total annual production of less than 100,000 tons per year.
(ii) For all other applicants, gross total annual sales averaging less than $100,000 per year (in second quarter 1980 dollars).
(9) Used or manufactured toxics. A listing of any toxic pollutant which the applicant currently uses or manufactures as an intermediate or final product or byproduct. The Director may waive or modify this requirement for any applicant if the applicant demonstrates that it would be unduly burdensome to identify each toxic pollutant and the Director has adequate information to issue the permit.
[122.21(g)(9) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(10) Storm water point source exemption.
(i) An applicant that qualifies as a Group II storm water discharger under § 122.26(b)(3) is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs
(f) (7) and
(g) of this section, unless the Director requests such information.
(ii) For the purpose of paragraph
(g) (3) of this section, storm water point sources may estimate the average flow of their discharge and must indicate the rainfall event and the method of estimation that the estimate is based on.
(iii) The Director may require additional information under paragraph
(g) (13) of this section, and may request any Group II storm water dischargers to comply with paragraph
(g) of this section.
[122.21(g)(10) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(11) Biological toxicity tests. An identification of any biological toxicity tests which the applicant knows or has reason to believe have been made within the last 3 years on any of the applicant's discharges or on a receiving water in relation to a discharge.
(12) Contract analyses. If a contract laboratory or consulting firm performed any of the analyses required by paragraph
(g) (7) of this section, the identity of each laboratory or firm and the analyses performed.
(13) Additional information. In addition to the information reported on the application form, applicants shall provide to the Director, at his or her request, such other information as the Director may reasonably require to assess the discharges of the facility and to determine whether to issue an NPDES permit. The additional information may include additional quantitative data and bioassays to assess the relative toxicity of discharges to aquatic life and requirements to determine the cause of the toxicity.
(h) Application requirements for new and existing concentrated animal feeding operations and aquatic animal production facilities. New and existing concentrated animal feeding operations (defined in § 122.23) and concentrated aquatic animal production facilities (defined in § 122.24) shall provide the following information to the Director, using the application form provided by the Director:
(1) For concentrated animal feeding operations:
(i) The type and number of animals in open confinement and housed under roof.
(ii) The number of acres used for confinement feeding.
(iii) The design basis for the runoff diversion and control system, if one exists, including the number of acres of contributing drainage, the storage capacity, and the design safety factor.
(2) For concentrated aquatic animal production facilities:
(i) The maximum daily and average monthly flow from each outfall.
(ii) The number of ponds, raceways, and similar structures.
(iii) The name of the receiving water and the source of intake water.
(iv) For each species of aquatic animals, the total yearly and maximum harvestable weight.
(v) The calendar month of maximum feeding and the total mass of food fed during that month.
(i) Application requirements for new and existing POTWs. [Reserved.]
(j) Application requirements for new sources and new dischargers.
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.21(j)]
[Reserved.]
(k) Special provisions for applications from new sources.
(1) The owner or operator of any facility which may be a new source (as defined in § 122.2) and which is located in a State without an approved NPDES program must comply with the provisions of this paragraph.
(2)(i) Before beginning any on-site construction as defined in § 122.29, the owner or operator of any facility which may be a new source must submit information to the Regional Administrator so that he or she can determine if the facility is a new source. The Regional Administrator may request any additional information needed to determine whether the facility is a new source.
(ii) The Regional Administrator shall make an initial determination whether the facility is a new source within 30 days of receiving all necessary information under paragraph
(k) (2)(i) of this section.
(3) The Regional Administrator shall issue a public notice in accordance with § 124.10 of the new source determination under paragraph
(k) (2) of this section. If the Regional Administrator has determined that the facility is a new source, the notice shall state that the applicant must comply with the environmental review requirements of 40 CFR 6.600 et seq.
(4) Any interested person may challenge the Regional Administrator's initial new source determination by requesting an evidentiary hearing under Subpart E of Part 124 within 30 days of issuance of the public notice of the initial determination. If all parties to the evidentiary hearing on the determination agree, the Regional Administrator may defer the hearing until after a final permit decision is made, and consolidate the hearing on the determination with any hearing on the permit.
[122.21(k)(4) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(l) Variance requests by non-POTWs.
A discharger which is not a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory or regulatory provisions within the times specified in this paragraph:
(1) Fundamentally different factors. A request for a variance based on the presence of "fundamentally different factors" from those on which the effluent limitations guideline was based, shall be made by the close of the public comment period under § 124.10. The request shall explain how the requirements of § 124.13 and 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart D have been met.
(2) Non-conventional pollutants. A request for a variance from the BAT requirements for CWA section 301(b)(2)(F) pollutants (commonly called "non-conventional" pollutants) pursuant to section 301(c) of CWA because of the economic capability of the owner or operator, or pursuant to section 301(g) of CWA because of certain environmental considerations, when those requirements were based on effluent limitation guidelines, must be made by:
(i) Submitting an initial request to the Regional Administrator, as well as to the State Director if applicable, stating the name of the discharger, the permit number, the outfall number(s), the applicable effluent guideline, and whether the discharger is requesting a section 301(c) or section 301(g) modification or both. This request must have been filed not later than:
(A) September 25, 1978, for a pollutant which is controlled by a BAT effluent limitation guideline promulgated before December 27, 1977; or
(B) 270 days after promulgation of an applicable effluent limitation guideline for guidelines promulgated after December 27, 1977; and
(ii) Submitting a completed request no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 demonstrating that the requirements of § 124.13 and the applicable requirements of Part 125 have been met.
(iii) Requests for variance from effluent limitations not based on effluent limitation guidelines need only comply with paragraph (1)(2)(ii) of this section and need not be preceded by an initial request under paragraph (1)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) Delay in construction of POTW. An extension under CWA section 301(i)(2) of the statutory deadlines in sections 301(b)(1)(A) or
(b) (1)(C) of CWA based on delay in completion of a POTW into which the source is to discharge must have been requested on or before June 26, 1978, or 180 days after the relevant POTW requested an extension under paragraph
(m) (2) of this section, whichever is later, but in no event may this date have been later than December 25, 1978. The request shall explain how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart J have been met.
(4) Innovative technology. An extension under CWA section 301(k) from the statutory deadline of section 301(b)(2)(A) for best available technology based on the use of innovative technology may be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 for the discharger's initial permit requiring compliance with section 301(b)(2)(A). The request shall demonstrate that the requirements of § 124.13 and Part 125, Subpart C have been met.
(5) Water quality related effluent limitations. A modification under section 302(b)(2) of requirements under section 302(a) for achieving water quality related effluent limitations may be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 on the permit from which the modification is sought.
(6) Thermal discharges. A variance under CWA section 316(a) for the thermal component of any discharge must be filed with a timely application for a permit under this section, except that if thermal effluent limitations are established under CWA Section 402(a)(1) or are based on water quality standards the request for a variance may be filed by the close of the public comment period under § 124.10. A copy of the request as required under 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart H, shall be sent simultaneously to the appropriate State or interstate certifying agency as required under 40 CFR Part 125. (See § 124.65 for special procedures for section 316(a) thermal variances.)
(m) Variance requests by POTWs. A discharger which is a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory provisions as specified in this paragraph:
(1) Discharges into marine waters. A request for a modification under CWA section 301(b) of requirements of CWA section 301(b)(1)(B) for discharges into marine waters must be filed in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart G.
(2) Delay in construction. An extension under CWA section 301(i)(1) of
[Sec. 122.21(m)(2)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
131:1012
the statutory deadlines in CWA section 301(b)(1)(B) or
(b) (1)(C) based on delay in the construction of the POTW must have been requested on or before June 26, 1976.
(3) Water quality based effluent limitation. A modification under CWA section 302(b)(2) of the requirements under section 302(a) for achieving water quality based effluent limitations shall be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 on the permit from which the modification is sought.
(n) Expedited variance procedures and time extensions. (1) Notwithstanding the time requirements in paragraphs
(i) and
(m) of this section, the Director may notify a permit applicant before a draft permit is issued under § 124.6 that the draft permit will likely contain limitations which are eligible for variances. In the notice the Director may require the applicant as a condition of consideration of any potential variance request to submit a request explaining how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125 applicable to the variance have been met and may require its submission within a specified reasonable time after receipt of the notice. The notice may be sent before the permit application has been submitted. The draft or final permit may contain the alternative limitations which may become effective upon final grant of the variance.
(2) A discharger who cannot file a complete request required under paragraph (1)(2)(ii) or (1)(2)(iii) of this section may request an extension. The extension may be granted or denied at the discretion of the Director. Extensions shall be no more than 6 months in duration.
(o) Recordkeeping. Applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete permit applications and any supplemental information submitted under this section for a period of at least 3 years from the date the application is signed.
Note 1: At 46 FR 2046, Jan. 8, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to coal mines. This revision continues that suspension.
Note 2: At 46 FR 22585, Apr. 20, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to:
This revision continues that suspension.
Note 3: At 46 FR 35090, July 1, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to:
This revision continues that suspension.
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
Note 4: [Deleted]
[Note 4 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(f) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2000-0474).
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(g) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2000-0059).
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(h) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0086).
[122.21 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
§ 122.22 Signatories to permit applications and reports (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Applications. All permit applications shall be signed as follows:
(1) For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer. For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means:
(i) A president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy- or decision-making functions for the corporation, or (ii) the manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities employing more than 250 persons or having gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second-quarter 1980 dollars), if authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in accordance with corporate procedures.
Note: EPA does not require specific assignments or delegations of authority to responsible corporate officers identified in § 122.22(a)(1)(i). The Agency will presume that these responsible corporate officers have the requisite authority to sign permit applications unless the corporation has notified the Director to the contrary. Corporate procedures governing authority to sign permit applications may provide for assignment or delegation to applicable corporate positions under § 122.22(a)(1)(ii) rather than to specific individuals.
[122.22(a)(1) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(2) For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general partner or the proprietor, respectively: or
[Sec. 122.22(a)(2)]
(3) For a municipality, State, Federal, or other public agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a Federal agency includes:
(i) The chief executive officer of the agency, or (ii) a senior executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency (e.g., Regional Administrators of EPA).
[122.22(a)(3) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(b) All reports required by permits, other information requested by the Director, and all permit applications submitted for Group II storm water discharges under § 122.28(b)(3) shall be signed by a person described in paragraph
(a) , or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is a duly authorized representative only if:
[122.22(b) introductory text revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(1) The authorization is made in writing by a person described in paragraph
(a) of this section;
(2) The authorization specifies either an individual or a position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters for the company. (A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named individual or any individual occupying a named position.)
[122.22(b)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(3) The written authorization is submitted to the Director.
(c) Changes to authorization. If an authorization under paragraph
(b) of this section is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization satisfying the requirements of paragraph
(b) of this section must be submitted to the Director prior to or together with any reports, information, or applications to be signed by an authorized representative.
(d) Certification. Any person signing a document under paragraphs
(a) or
(b) of this section shall make the following certification:
I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations.
[122.22(d) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(a) Permit requirement. Concentrated animal feeding operations are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definitions. (1) "Animal feeding operation" means a lot or facility (other than an aquatic animal production facility) where the following conditions are met:
(i) Animals (other than aquatic animals) have been, are, or will be stabled or confined and fed or maintained for a total of 45 days or more in any 12-month period, and
(ii) Crops, vegetation forage growth, or post-harvest residues are not sustained in the normal growing season over any portion of the lot or facility.
(2) Two or more animal feeding operations under common ownership are considered, for the purposes of these regulations, to be a single animal feeding operation if they adjoin each other or if they use a common area or system for the disposal of wastes.
(3) "Concentrated animal feeding operation" means an "animal feeding operation" which meets the criteria in Appendix B of this part, or which the Director designates under paragraph
(c) of this section.
(c) Case-by-case designation of concentrated animal feeding operations. (1) The Director may designate any animal feeding operation as a concentrated animal feeding operation upon determining that it is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States. In making this designation the Director shall consider the following factors:
(i) The size of the animal feeding operation and the amount of wastes reaching waters of the United States;
(ii) The location of the animal feeding operation relative to waters of the United States;
(iii) The means of conveyance of animal wastes and process waste waters into waters of the United States;
(iv) The slope, vegetation, rainfall, and other factors affecting the likelihood or frequency of discharge of animal wastes and process waste waters into waters of the United States; and
(v) Other relevant factors.
(2) No animal feeding operation with less than the numbers of animals set forth in Appendix B of this part shall be designated as a concentrated animal feeding operation unless:
(i) Pollutants are discharged into waters of the United States through a manmade ditch, flushing system, or other similar manmade device; or
(ii) Pollutants are discharged directly into waters of the United States which originate outside of the facility and pass over, across, or through the facility or otherwise come into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation.
(3) A permit application shall not be required from a concentrated animal feeding operation designated under this paragraph until the Director has conducted an on-site inspection of the operation and determined that the operation should and could be regulated under the permit program.
(a) Permit requirement. Concentrated aquatic animal production facilities, as defined in this section, are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definition. "Concentrated aquatic animal production facility" means a hatchery, fish farm, or other facility which meets the criteria in Appendix C of this part, or which the Director designates under paragraph
(c) of this section.
(c) Case-by-case designation of concentrated aquatic animal production facilities. (1) The Director may designate any warm or cold water aquatic animal production facility as a concentrated aquatic animal production facility upon determining that it is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States.
[Sec. 122.24(c)(1)]
131:1014
nificant contributor of pollution to waters of the United States. In making this designation the Director shall consider the following factors:
(1) The location and quality of the receiving waters of the United States;
(ii) The holding, feeding, and production capacities of the facility;
(iii) The quantity and nature of the pollutants reaching waters of the United States; and
(iv) Other relevant factors.
(2) A permit application shall not be required from a concentrated aquatic animal production facility designated under this paragraph until the Director has conducted on-site inspection of the facility and has determined that the facility should and could be regulated under the permit program.
§ 122.25 Aquaculture projects (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Permit requirement. Discharges into aquaculture projects, as defined in this section, are subject to the NPDES permit program through section 318 of CWA, and in accordance with 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart B.
(b) Definitions. (1) "Aquaculture project" means a defined managed water area which uses discharges of pollutants into that designated area for the maintenance or production of harvestable freshwater, estuarine, or marine plants or animals.
(2) "Designated project area" means the portions of the waters of the United States within which the permittee or permit applicant plans to confine the cultivated species, using a method or plan or operation (including, but not limited to, physical confinement) which, on the basis of reliable scientific evidence, is expected to ensure that specific individual organisms comprising an aquaculture crop will enjoy increased growth attributable to the discharge of pollutants, and be harvested within a defined geographic area.
§ 122.26 Storm water discharges (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.26).
[122.26 revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(a) Permit requirement. Storm water point sources, as defined in this section, are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program. The Director may issue an NPDES permit or permits for discharges into waters of the United States from a storm water point source covering all conveyances which are a part of that storm water discharge. Where there is more than one owner or operator of a single system of such conveyances, any or all discharges into the storm water discharge system may be identified in the application submitted by the owner or operator of the portion of the system that discharges directly into waters of the United States. Any such application shall include all information regarding discharges into the system that would be required if the dischargers submitted separate applications. Dischargers so identified shall not require a separate permit unless the Director specifies otherwise. Any permit covering more than one owner or operator shall identify the effluent limitations, if any, which apply to each owner or operator. Where there is more than one owner or operator, no discharger into the storm water discharge may be subject to a permit condition for discharges into the storm water discharge other than its own discharges into that system without its consent. All dischargers into a storm water discharge system must either be covered by an individual permit or a permit issued to the owner or operator of the portion of the system that directly discharges. (See § 122.21(c)(2) for application deadline for existing storm water point sources.)
(b) Definitions. (1) "Storm water point source" means a conveyance or system of conveyances (including pipes, conduits, ditches, and channels) primarily used for collecting and conveying storm water runoff and which:
(i) is located at an urbanized area as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to the criteria in 39 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(ii) is located at an urbanized area as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to the criteria in 39 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(122.26(b)(1)(i) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(ii) Discharges from lands or facilities used for industrial or commercial activities; or
(iii) Is designated under paragraph
(c) of this section. Conveyances that discharge storm water runoff combined with municipal sewage are point sources that must obtain NPDES permits, but are not "storm water point sources".
(2) "Group I storm water discharge" means any "storm water point source" which is:
(i) Subject to effluent limitations guidelines, new source performance standards, or toxic pollutant effluent standards;
(ii) Designated under paragraph
(c) of this section; or
(iii) Located at an industrial plant or in plant associated areas. "Plant associated areas" means industrial plant yards, immediate access roads, drainage ponds, refuse piles, storage piles or areas and material or products loading and unloading areas. The term excludes areas located on plant lands separate from the plant's industrial activities, such as office buildings and accompanying parking lots.
(3) "Group II storm water discharge" means any "storm water point source" not included in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section. (See § 122.21(g)(10) for exemption from certain application requirements.)
(4) A conveyance or system of conveyances operated primarily for the purpose of collecting and conveying storm water runoff which does not constitute a "storm water point source" under paragraph
(b) (1) of this section is not considered a point source subject to the requirements of CWA.
(5) Whether a system of conveyances is or is not a storm water point source for purposes of this section shall have no bearing on whether the system is eligible for funding under Title II of CWA. See 40 CFR 35.925-21.
(c) Case-by-case designation of storm water discharges. The Director may designate a conveyance or system of conveyances primarily used for collecting and conveying storm water runoff as a storm water point source. This designation may be made to the extent allowed or required by EPA promulgated effluent limitations guidelines for point sources in the storm water discharge category or when:
(1) A Water Quality Management plan under section 208 of CWA which contains requirements applicable to such point sources is approved; or
(2) The Director determines that a storm water discharge is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States. In making this determination the Director shall consider the following factors:
(1) The location of the discharge with respect to waters of the United States;
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.26(c)(2)(ii)
74
(ii) The size of the discharge;
(iii) The quantity and nature of the pollutants reaching waters of the United States; and
(iv) Other relevant factors.
(a) Permit requirement. Silvicultural point sources, as defined in this section, as point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definitions.
(1) "Silvicultural point source" means any discernible, confined and discrete conveyance related to rock crushing, gravel washing, log sorting, or log storage facilities which are operated in connection with silvicultural activities and from which pollutants are discharged into waters of the United States. The term does not include non-point source silvicultural activities such as nursery operations, site preparation, reforestation and subsequent cultural treatment, thinning, prescribed burning, pest and fire control, harvesting operations, surface drainage, or road construction and maintenance from which there is natural runoff. However, some of these activities (such as stream crossing for roads) may involve point source discharges of dredged or fill material which may require a CWA section 404 permit (See 33 CFR 209.120 and Part 233).
(2) "Rock crushing and gravel washing facilities" means facilities which process crushed and broken stone, gravel, and riprap (See 40 CFR Part 436, Subpart B, including the effluent limitations guidelines).
(3) "Log sorting and log storage facilities" means facilities whose discharges result from the holding of unprocessed wood, for example, logs or roundwood with bark or after removal of bark held in self-contained bodies of water (mill ponds or log ponds) or stored on land where water is applied intentionally on the logs (wet decking) (See 40 CFR Part 429, Subpart I, including the effluent limitations guidelines).
(a) Coverage. The Director may issue a general permit in accordance with the following:
(1) Area. The general permit shall be written to cover a category of discharges described in the permit under paragraph
(a) (2) of this section, except those covered by individual permits, within a geographic area. The area shall correspond to existing geographic or political boundaries, such as:
(i) Designated planning areas under sections 208 and 303 of CWA;
(ii) Sewer districts or sewer authorities;
(iii) City, county, or State political boundaries;
(iv) State highway systems;
(v) Standard metropolitan statistical areas as defined by the Office of Management and Budget;
(vi) Urbanized areas as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to criteria in 30 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(vii) Any other appropriate division or combination of boundaries.
[122.28(a)(2) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Sources. The general permit may be written to regulate, within the area described in paragraph
(a) (1) of this section, either:
(i) Storm water point sources; or
(Editor's note: EPA February 19, 1985 (50 FR 6940), corrected 122.28(a)(2)(ii) as it appeared at 48 FR 14165, April 1, 1983. However that entire subparagraph was revised September 26, 1984 (49 FR 38048), superseding the 1983 text.)
(ii) A category of point sources other than storm water point sources if the sources all:
(A) Involve the same or substantially similar types of operations;
(B) Discharge the same types of wastes;
(C) Require the same effluent limitation or operating conditions;
(D) Require the same or similar monitoring; and
(E) In the opinion of the Director, are more appropriately controlled under a general permit than under individual permits.
(b) Administration.
(1) In general. General permits may be issued, modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated in accordance with applicable requirements of Part 124 or corresponding State regulations. Special procedures for issuance are found at § 123.44 for States and § 124.58 for EPA.
(2) Requiring an individual permit.
(i) The Director may require any person authorized by a general permit to apply for and obtain an individual NPDES permit. Any interested person may petition the Director to take action under this paragraph. Cases where an individual NPDES permit may be required include the following:
(A) The discharge(s) is a significant contributor of pollution as determined by the factors set forth at § 122.26(c)(2);
(B) The discharger is not in compliance with the conditions of the general NPDES permit;
(C) A change has occurred in the availability of demonstrated technology or practices for the control or abatement of pollutants applicable to the point source;
(D) Effluent limitation guidelines are promulgated for point sources covered by the general NPDES permit;
(E) A Water Quality Management plan containing requirements applicable to such point sources is approved; or
(F) The requirements of paragraph
(a) of this section are not met.
(ii) For EPA issued general permits only, the Regional Administrator may require any owner or operator authorized by a general permit to apply for an individual NPDES permit as provided in paragraph
(b) (2)(i) of this section, only if the owner or operator has been notified in writing that a permit application is required. This notice shall include a brief statement of the reasons for this decision, an application form, a statement setting a time for the owner or operator to file the application, and a statement that on the effective date of the individual NPDES permit the general permit as it applies to the individual permittee shall automatically terminate. The Director may grant additional time upon request of the applicant.
(iii) Any owner or operator authorized by a general permit may request to be excluded from the coverage of the general permit by applying for an individual permit. The owner or operator shall submit an application under § 122.21, with reasons supporting the request, to the Director no later than 90 days after the publication by EPA of the general permit in the FEDERAL REGISTER or the publication by a State in accordance with applicable State law. The request shall be processed under Part 124 or applicable State procedures. The request shall be granted by issuing of any individual permit if the reasons cited by the owner or operator are adequate to support the request.
(iv) When an individual NPDES permit is issued to an owner or operator otherwise subject to a general NPDES permit, the applicability of the general permit to the individual NPDES permittee is automatically terminated on the effective date of the individual permit.
[Sec. 122.28(b)(2)(iv)]
131:1016
(v) A source excluded from a general permit solely because it already has an individual permit may request that the individual permit be revoked, and that it be covered by the general permit. Upon revocation of the individual permit, the general permit shall apply to the source.
[122.28(c) added by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(c) Offshore Oil and Gas Facilities
[Not applicable to State programs.] (1) The Regional Administrator shall, except as provided below, issue general permits covering discharges from offshore oil and gas exploration and production facilities within the Region's jurisdiction. Where the offshore area includes areas, such as areas of biological concern, for which separate permit conditions are required, the Regional Administrator may issue separate general permits, individual permits, or both. The reason for separate general permits or individual permits shall be set forth in the appropriate fact sheets or statements of basis. Any statement of basis or fact sheet for a draft permit shall include the Regional Administrator's tentative determination as to whether the permit applies to "new sources," "new dischargers," or existing sources and the reasons for this determination, and the Regional Administrator's proposals as to areas of biological concern subject either to separate individual or general permits. For Federally leased lands, the general permit area should generally be no less extensive than the lease sale area defined by the Department of the Interior.
(2) Any interested person, including any prospective permittee, may petition the Regional Administrator to issue a general permit. Unless the Regional Administrator determines under paragraph
(c) (1) that no general permit is appropriate, he shall promptly provide a project decision schedule covering the issuance of the general permit or permits for any lease sale area for which the Department of the Interior has published a draft environmental impact statement. The project decision schedule shall meet the requirements of § 124.3(g), and shall include a schedule providing for the issuance of the final general permit or permits not later than the date of the final notice of sale projected by the Department of the Interior or six months after the date of the request, whichever is later. The Regional Administrator may, at his discretion, issue a project decision schedule for offshore oil and gas facilities in the territorial seas.
(3) Nothing in this paragraph
(c) shall affect the authority of the Regional Administrator to require an individual permit under § 122.28(b)(2)(i)(A) through [F].
§ 122.29 New sources and new dischargers.
(a) Definitions. (1) "New source" and "new discharger" are defined in § 122.2. (See Note 2.)
(2) "Source" means any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants.
(3) "Existing source" means any source which is not a new source or a new discharger.
(4) "Site" is defined in § 122.2.
(5) "Facilities or equipment" means buildings, structures, process or production equipment or machinery which form a permanent part of the new source and which will be used in its operation, if these facilities or equipment are of such value as to represent a substantial commitment to construct. It excludes facilities or equipment used in connection with feasibility, engineering, and design studies regarding the source or water pollution treatment for the source.
[122.29(b) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(b) Criteria for new source determination.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in an applicable new source performance standard, a source is a "new source" if it meets the definition of "new source" in § 122.2, and
(i) It is constructed at a site at which no other source is located; or
(ii) It totally replaces the process or production equipment that causes the discharge of pollutants at an existing source; or
(iii) Its processes are substantially independent of an existing source at the same site. In determining whether these processes are substantially independent, the Director shall consider such factors as the extent to which the new facility is integrated with the existing plant; and the extent to which the new facility is engaged in the same general type of activity as the existing source.
(2) A source meeting the requirements of paragraphs
(b) (1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section is a new source only if a new source performance standard is independently applicable to it. If there is no such independently applicable standard, the source is a new discharger. See § 122.2.
(3) Construction on a site at which an existing source is located results in a modification subject to § 122.62 rather than a new source (or a new discharger) if the construction does not create a new building, structure, facility, or installation meeting the criteria of paragraphs
(b) (1)(ii) or (iii) of this section but otherwise alters, replaces, or adds to existing process or production equipment.
(4) Construction of a new source as defined under § 122.2 has commenced if the owner or operator has:
(i) Begun, or caused to begin as part of a continuous on-site construction program:
(A) Any placement, assembly, or installation of facilities or equipment; or
(B) Significant site preparation work including clearing, excavation, or removal of existing buildings, structures, or facilities which is necessary for the placement, assembly, or installation of new source facilities or equipment; or
(ii) Entered into a binding contractual obligation for the purchase of facilities or equipment which are intended to be used in its operation within a reasonable time. Options to purchase or contracts which can be terminated or modified without substantial loss, and contracts for feasibility, engineering, and design studies do not constitute a contractual obligation under the paragraph.
(c) Requirement for an Environmental Impact Statement. (1) The issuance of an NPDES permit to new source:
(i) By EPA may be a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment within the meaning of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 33 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. and is subject to the environmental review provisions of NEPA as set out in 40 CFR Part 6, Subpart F. EPA will determine whether an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is required under § 122.21(k) (special provisions for applications from new sources) and 40 CFR Part 6, Subpart F.
(ii) By an NPDES approved State is
[Sec. 122.29(c)(1)(ii)]
76
not a Federal action and therefore does not require EPA to conduct an environmental review.
(2) An EIS prepared under this paragraph shall include a recommendation either to issue or deny the permit.
(i) If the recommendation is to deny the permit, the final EIS shall contain the reasons for the recommendation and list those measures, if any, which the applicant could take to cause the recommendation to be changed;
(ii) If the recommendation is to issue the permit, the final EIS shall recommend the actions, if any, which the permittee should take to prevent or minimize any adverse environmental impacts:
(3) The Regional Administrator, to the extent allowed by law, shall issue, condition (other than imposing effluent limitations), or deny the new source NPDES permit following a complete evaluation of any significant beneficial and adverse impacts of the proposed action and a review of the recommendations contained in the EIS or finding of no significant impact.
[122.29(c)(3) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(4)(i) No on-site construction of a new source for which an EIS is required shall commence before final Agency action in issuing a final permit incorporating appropriate EIS-related requirements, or before execution by the applicant of a legally binding written agreement which requires compliance with all such requirements, unless such construction is determined by the Regional Administrator not to cause significant or irreversible adverse environmental impact. The provisions of any agreement entered into under this paragraph shall be incorporated as coditions of the NPDES permit when it is issued.
(ii) No on-site construction of a new source for which an EIS is not required shall commence until 30 days after issuance of a finding of no significant impact, unless the construction is determined by the Regional Administrator not to cause significant or irreversible adverse environmental impacts.
(5)(i) The commencement of on-site construction in violation of paragraph
(c) of this section shall constitute grounds for denial of a permit.
[122.29(c)(5)(i) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(5)(ii) The permit applicant must notify the Regional Administrator of any on-site construction which begins before the times specified in paragraph
(c) (4) of this section. If on-site construction begins in violation of this paragraph, the Regional Administrator shall advise the owner or operator that it is proceeding with construction at its own risk, and that such construction activities constitute grounds for denial of a permit. The Regional Administrator may seek a court order to enjoin construction in violation of this paragraph.
[Former 122.29(c)(5) redesignated as
(c) (5)(ii) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(d) Effect of compliance with new source performance standards. (The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to existing sources which modify their pollution control facilities or construct new pollution control facilities and achieve performance standards, but which are neither new sources or new dischargers or otherwise do not meet the requirements of this paragraph.)
(1) Except as provided in paragraph
(d) (2) of this section, any new discharger, the construction of which commenced after October 18, 1972, or new source which meets the applicable promulgated new source performance standards before the commencement of discharge, may not be subject to any more stringent new source performance standards or to any more stringent technology-based standards under section 301(b)(2) of CWA for the soonest ending of the following periods:
(i) Ten years from the date that construction is completed;
(ii) Ten years from the date the source begins to discharge process or other nonconstruction related wastewater; or
(iii) The period of depreciation or amortization of the facility for the purposes of section 167 or 169 (or both) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.
(2) The protection from more stringent standards of performance afforded by paragraph
(d) (1) of this section does not apply to:
(i) Additional or more stringent permit conditions which are not technology based; for example, conditions based on water quality standards, or toxic effluent standards or prohibitions under section 307(a) of CWA; or
(ii) Additional permit conditions in accordance with §123.3 controlling toxic pollutants or hazardous substances which are not controlled by new source performance standards. This includes permit conditions controlling pollutants other than those identified as toxic pollutants or hazardous substances when control of these pollutants has been specifically identified as the method to control the toxic pollutants or hazardous substances.
(3) When an NPDES permit issued to a source with a "protection period" under paragraph
(d) (1) of this section will expire on or after the expiration of the protection period, that permit shall require the owner or operator of the source to comply with the requirements of section 301 and any other applicable requirements of CWA immediately upon the expiration of the protection period. No additional period for achieving compliance with these requirements may be allowed except when necessary to achieve compliance with requirements promulgated less than 3 years before the expiration of the protection period.
(4) The owner or operator of a new source, a new discharger which commenced discharge after August 13, 1979, or a recommencing discharger shall install and have in operating condition, and shall "start-up" all pollution control equipment required to meet the conditions of its permits before beginning to discharge. Within the shortest feasible time (not to exceed 90 days), the owner or operator must meet all permit conditions. The requirements of this paragraph do not apply if the owner or operator is issued a permit containing a compliance schedule under §122.47(a)(2).
[122.29(d)(4) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(5) After the effective date of new source performance standards, it shall be unlawful for any owner or operator of any new source to operate the source in violation of those standards applicable to the source.
Note 1: [Deleted]
Note 2: [Deleted]
[Notes 1, 2 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Sec. 122.29(d)(5)]
131:1018
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(c) (5) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0078)
[122.29 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
Subpart C—Permit Conditions
§ 122.41 Conditions applicable to all permits (applicable to State programs, see § 122.26).
The following conditions apply to all NPDES permits. Additional conditions applicable to NPDES permits are in § 122.42. All conditions applicable to NPDES permits shall be incorporated into the permits either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to these regulations (or the corresponding approved State regulations) must be given in the permit.
(a) Duty to comply. The permittee must comply with all conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the Clean Water Act and is grounds for enforcement action; for permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or modification; or denial of a permit renewal application.
(1) The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or prohibitions established under section 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic pollutants within the time provided in the regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions, even if the permit has not yet been modified to incorporate the requirement.
(2) The Clean Water Act provides that any person who violates a permit condition implementing sections 301, 302, 306, 307, 308, 318 or 405 of the Clean Water Act is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of such violation. Any person who willfully or negligently violates permit conditions implementing sections 301, 302, 306, 307 or 308 of the Act is subject to a fine of not less than $2,500 nor more than $25,000 per day of violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both.
[122.41(a)(2) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(b) Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the permittee must apply for and obtain a new permit.
(c) Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.
[122.41(c) and
(d) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983;
(c) head corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(d) Duty to Mitigate. The permittee shall take all reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge in violation of this permit which has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or the environment.
(3)(e) Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of treatment and control (and related appurtenances) which are installed or used by the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper operation and maintenance also includes adequate laboratory controls and appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation of backup or auxiliary facilities or similar systems which are installed by a permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the conditions of the permit.
[122.41(e) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(f) Permit actions. This permit may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or a notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.
(g) Property rights. This permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.
(h) Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the Director, within a reasonable time, any information which the Director may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating this permit or to determine compliance with this permit. The permittee shall also furnish to the Director upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this permit.
(i) Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the Director, or an authorized representative, upon the presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law, to:
(1) Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
(2) Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
(3) Inspect at reasonable times any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under this permit; and
(4) Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act, any substances or parameters at any location.
(j) Monitoring and records. (1) Samples and measurements taken for the purpose of monitoring shall be representative of the monitored activity.
(2) The permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this permit, and records of all data used to complete the application for this permit, for a period of at least 3 years from the date of the sample, measurement, report or application. This period may be extended by request of the Director at any time.
(3) Records of monitoring information shall include:
(i) The date, exact place, and time of sampling or measurements;
(ii) The individual(s) who performed the sampling or measurements;
(iii) The date(s) analyses were performed;
(iv) The individual(s) who performed the analyses;
(v) The analytical techniques or methods used; and
(vi) The results of such analyses.
(4) Monitoring must be conducted according to test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 138, unless other test procedures have been specified in this permit.
(5) The Clean Water Act provides that any person who falsifies, tampers with, or knowingly renders inaccurate any monitoring device or method required to be maintained under this permit shall,
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.41(j)(5)]
78
upon conviction, be punished by a fine of not more than $10,000 per violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 6 months per violation, or by both.
(k) Signatory requirement. (1) All applications, reports, or information submitted to the Director shall be signed and certified. (See § 122.22)
(2) The CWA provides that any person who knowingly makes any false statement, representation, or certification in any record or other document submitted or required to be maintained under this permit, including monitoring reports or reports of compliance or non-compliance shall, upon conviction, be punished by a fine of not more than $10,000 per violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 6 months per violation, or by both.
(l) Reporting requirements. — (1) Planned changes. The permittee shall give notice to the Director as soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the permitted facility. Notice is required only when:
(i) The alteration or addition to a permitted facility may meet one of the criteria for determining whether a facility is a new source in §122.29(b); or
(ii) The alteration or addition could significantly change the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification applies to pollutants which are subject neither to effluent limitations in the permit, nor to notification requirements under § 122.42(a)(1).
[122.41(l)(1) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Anticipated noncompliance. The permittee shall give advance notice to the Director of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity which may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.
(3) Transfers. This permit is not transferable to any person except after notice to the Director. The Director may require modification or revocation and reissuance of the permit to change the name of the permittee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary under the Clean Water Act. (See § 122.61; in some cases, modification or revocation and reissuance is mandatory.)
(4) Monitoring reports. Monitoring results shall be reported at the intervals specified elsewhere in this permit.
(i) Monitoring results must be reported on a Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR).
(ii) If the permittee monitors any pollutant more frequently than required by the permit, using test procedures approved under 40 CFR 136 or as specified in the permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting of the data submitted in the DMR.
(iii) Calculations for all limitations which require averaging of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified by the Director in the permit.
(5) Compliance schedules. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each schedule date.
(6) Twenty-four hour reporting.
(i) The permittee shall report any noncompliance which may endanger health or the environment. Any information shall be provided orally within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. A written submission shall also be provided within 5 days of the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The written submission shall contain a description of the noncompliance and its cause; the period of noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the noncompliance.
(ii) The following shall be included as information which must be reported within 24 hours under this paragraph.
(A) Any unanticipated bypass which exceeds any effluent limitation in the permit. (See § 122.41(g).
(B) Any upset which exceeds any effluent limitation in the permit.
(C) Violation of a maximum daily discharge limitation for any of the pollutants listed by the Director in the permit to be reported within 24 hours. (See § 122.44(g).
(iii) The Director may waive the written report on a case-by-case basis for reports under paragraph
(i) (6)(ii) of this section if the oral report has been received within 24 hours.
(7) Other noncompliance. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under paragraphs
(i) (4), (5), and (6) of this section, at the time monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in paragraph
(i) (6) of this section.
(8) Other information: Where the permittee becomes aware that it failed to submit any relevant facts in a permit application, or submitted incorrect information in a permit application or in any report to the Director, it shall promptly submit such facts or information.
[122.41(l)(8) added by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(m) Bypass. (1) Definitions.
(i) "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility.
(ii) "Severe property damage" means substantial physical damage to property, damage to the treatment facilities which causes them to become inoperable, or substantial and permanent loss of natural resources which can reasonably be expected to occur in the absence of a bypass. Severe property damage does not mean economic loss caused by delays in production.
(2) Bypass not exceeding limitations. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur which does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for essential maintenance to assure efficient operation. These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of paragraphs
(m) (3) and
(m) (4) of this section.
(3) Notice.
(i) Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of the need for a bypass, it shall submit prior notice, if possible at least ten days before the date of the bypass.
(ii) Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice of an unanticipated bypass as required in paragraph
(i) (6) of this section (24-hour notice).
(4) Prohibition of bypass.
(i) Bypass is prohibited, and the Director may take enforcement action against a permittee for bypass, unless:
(A) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe property damage;
(B) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not satisfied if adequate back up equipment should have been installed in the exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass which occurred during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and
[122.41(m)(4)(i)(B) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
[Sec. 122.41(m)(4)(i)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
79
(C) The permittee submitted notices as required under paragraph
(m) (3) of this section.
(ii) The Director may approve an anticipated bypass, after considering its adverse effects, if the Director determines that it will meet the three conditions listed above in paragraph
(m) (4)(i) of this section.
(n) Upset—(1) Definition. "Upset" means an exceptional incident in which there is unintentional and temporary noncompliance with technology based permit effluent limitations because of factors beyond the reasonable control of the permittee. An upset does not include noncompliance to the extent caused by operational error, improperly designed treatment facilities, inadequate treatment facilities, lack of preventive maintenance, or careless or improper operation.
(2) Effect of an upset. An upset constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with such technology based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of paragraph
(n) (3) of this section are met. No determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is final administrative action subject to judicial review.
(3) Conditions necessary for a demonstration of upset. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative defense of upset shall demonstrate, through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:
(i) An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify the cause(s) of the upset;
[122.41(n)(3)(i) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(ii) The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated; and
(iii) The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required in paragraph (1)(6)(ii)(B) of this section (24 hour notice).
(iv) The permittee complied with any remedial measures required under paragraph
(d) of this section.
(4) Burden of proof. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(e) (i) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0047].
[122.41 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.42 Additional conditions applicable to specified categories of NPDES permits (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 122.25).
The following conditions, in addition to those set forth in § 122.41, apply to all NPDES permits within the categories specified below:
(a) Existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers. In addition to the reporting requirements under § 122.41(1), all existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers must notify the Director as soon as they know or have reason to believe:
(1) That any activity has occurred or will occur which would result in the discharge on a routine or frequent basis, of any toxic pollutant which is not limited in the permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following "notification levels":
[122.42(a)(1) introductory text amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(1) One hundred micrograms per liter (100 µg/l);
(ii) Two hundred micrograms per liter (200 µg/l) for acrolein and acrylonitrile; five hundred micrograms per liter (500 µg/l) for 2,4-dinitrophenol and for 2-methyl-4,6-dinitrophenol; and one milligram per liter (1 mg/l) for antimony;
(iii) Five (5) times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application in accordance with § 122.21(g)(7); or
[122.42(a)(1)(iii) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(iv) The level established by the Director in accordance with § 122.44(f).
(2) That any activity has occurred or will occur which would result in any discharge, on a non-routine or infrequent basis, of a toxic pollutant which is not limited in the permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following "notification levels":
(i) Five hundred micrograms per liter (500 µg/l);
(ii) One milligram per liter (1 mg/l) for antimony;
(iii) Ten (10) times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application in accordance with § 122.21(g)(7).
(iv) The level established by the Director in accordance with § 122.44(f).
[122.42(a)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(b) Publicly owned treatment works. All POTWs must provide adequate notice to the Director of the following:
(1) Any new introduction of pollutants into the POTW from an indirect discharger which would be subject to sections 301 or 306 of CWA if it were directly discharging those pollutants; and
(2) Any substantial change in the volume or character of pollutants being introduced into that POTW by a source introducing pollutants into the POTW at the time of issuance of the permit.
(3) For purposes of this paragraph, adequate notice shall include information on
(i) the quality and quantity of effluent introduced into the POTW, and (ii) any anticipated impact of the change on the quantity or quality of effluent to be discharged from the POTW.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0045).
[122.42 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.43 Establishing permit conditions (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25).
(a) In addition to conditions required in all permits (§§ 122.41 and 122.42), the Director shall establish conditions, as required on a case-by-case basis, to provide for and assure compliance with all applicable requirements of CWA and regulations. These shall include conditions under §§ 122.46 (duration of permits), 122.47(a) (schedules of compliance), 122.48 (monitoring), and for EPA permits only 122.47(b) (alternates schedule of compliance) and 122.49 (considerations under Federal law).
(b) (1) For a State issued permit, an applicable requirement is a State statutory or regulatory requirement which takes effect prior to final administrative disposition of a permit. For a permit issued by EPA, an applicable requirement is a statutory or regulatory requirement (including any interim final regulation) which takes effect prior to the issuance of the permit (except as provided in § 124.86(c) for NPDES permits being processed under Subparts E or F of Part 124). Section 124.14 (reopening of comment period) provides a means for reopening EPA permit proceedings at the discretion of the Director where new requirements become effective during the permitting process and are
of sufficient magnitude to make additional proceedings desirable. For State and EPA administered programs, an applicable requirement is also any requirement which takes effect prior to the modification or revocation and reissuance of a permit, to the extent allowed in § 122.62.
(2) New or reissued permits, and to the extent allowed under § 122.62 modified or revoked and reissued permits, shall incorporate each of the applicable requirements referenced in §§ 122.44 and 122.45.
(c) Incorporation. All permit conditions shall be incorporated either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to the applicable regulations or requirements must be given in the permit.
In addition to the conditions established under § 122.43(a), each NPDES permit shall include conditions meeting the following requirements when applicable.
(a) Technology-based effluent limitations and standards based on effluent limitations and standards promulgated under section 301 of CWA or new source performance standards promulgated under section 306 of CWA, on case-by-case effluent limitations determined under section 402(a)(1) of CWA, or on a combination of the two, in accordance with § 125.3. For new sources or new dischargers, these technology-based limitations and standards are subject to the provisions of § 122.29(d) (protection period).
(b) Other effluent limitations and standards under sections 301, 302, 303, 307, 318, and 405 of CWA. If any applicable toxic effluent standard or prohibition (including any schedule of compliance specified in such effluent standard or prohibition) is promulgated under section 307(a) of CWA for a toxic pollutant and that standard or prohibition is more stringent than any limitation on the pollutant in the permit, the Director shall institute proceedings under these regulations to modify or revoke and reissue the permit to conform to the toxic effluent standard or prohibition. See also § 122.41(a).
(c) Reopener clause: for any discharger within a primary industry category (see Appendix A), requirements under section 307(a)(2) of CWA as follows:
(1) On or before June 30, 1981:
(i) If applicable standards or limitations have not yet been promulgated, the permit shall include a condition stating that, if an applicable standard or limitation is promulgated under sections 301(b)(2) (C) and (D), 304(b)(2), and 307(a)(2) and that effluent standard or limitation is more stringent than any effluent limitation in the permit or controls a pollutant not limited in the permit, the permit shall be promptly modified or revoked and reissued to conform to that effluent standard or limitation.
(ii) If applicable standards or limitations have been promulgated or approved, the permit shall include those standards or limitations. (If EPA approves existing effluent limitations or decides not to develop new effluent limitations, it will publish a notice in the Federal Register that the limitations are "approved" for the purpose of this regulation.)
[122.44(c)(1)(ii) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(2) On or after the statutory deadline set forth in sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), and (E) of CWA, any permit issued shall include effluent limitations to meet the requirements of sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), (D), (E), (F), whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated or approved. These permits need not incorporate the clause required by paragraph
(c) (1) of this section.
[122.44(c)(2) revised by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(3) The Director shall promptly modify or revoke and reissue any permit containing the clause required under paragraph
(c) (1) of this section to incorporate an applicable effluent standard or limitation under sections 301(b)(2) (C) and (D), 304(b)(2), and 307(a)(2) which is promulgated or approved after the permit is issued if that effluent standard or limitation is more stringent than any effluent limitation in the permit, or controls a pollutant not limited in the permit.
(d) Water quality standards and State requirements: any requirements in addition to or more stringent than promulgated effluent limitations guidelines or standards under sections 301, 304, 306, 307, 318, and 405 of CWA necessary to:
(1) Achieve water quality standards established under section 303 of CWA;
(2) Attain or maintain a specified water quality through water quality related effluent limits established under section 302 of CWA;
(3) Conform to the conditions to a State certification under section 401 of the CWA that meets the requirements of § 124.53 when EPA is the permitting authority. If a State certification is stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction or an appropriate State board or agency, EPA shall notify the State that the Agency will deem certification waived unless a finally effective State certification is received within sixty days from the date of the notice. If the State does not forward a finally effective certification within the sixty day period, EPA shall include conditions in the permit that may be necessary to meet EPA's obligation under section 301(b)(1)(C) of the CWA.
[122.44(d)(3) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(4) Conform to applicable water quality requirements under section 401(a)(2) of CWA when the discharge affects a State other than the certifying State;
(5) Incorporate any more stringent limitations, treatment standards, or schedule of compliance requirements established under Federal or State law or regulations in accordance with section 301(b)(1)(C) of CWA;
(6) Ensure consistency with the requirements of a Water Quality Management plan approved by EPA under section 208(b) of CWA;
(7) Incorporate section 403(c) criteria under Part 125, Subpart M, for ocean discharges;
(8) Incorporate alternative effluent limitations or standards where warranted by "fundamentally different factors," under 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart D;
(9) Incorporate any other appropriate requirements, conditions, or limitations (other than effluent limitations) into a new source permit to the extent allowed by the National Environmental Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. and section 511 of the CWA, when EPA is the permit issuing authority. (See § 122.29(c))
[122.44(d)(9) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(e) Toxic pollutants. Limitations established under paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) , or
(d) of this section, to control pollutants meeting the criteria listed in paragraph
(e) (1) of this section. Limitations will be established in accordance with paragraph
(e) (2) of this section.
[Sec. 122.44(e)]
131:1022
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
tion. An explanation of the development of these limitations shall be included in the fact sheet under § 124.56(b)(1)(i).
[[122.44(e) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(1) Limitations must control all toxic pollutants which:
The Director determines (based on information reported in a permit application under § 122.21(g)(7) or (10) or in a notification under § 122.42(a)(1) or on other information) are or may be discharged at a level greater than the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under § 125.3(c); or
[Former 122.44(e)(1)(i) redesignated as
(e) (1) and
(e) (1)(ii) deleted by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) The requirement that the limitations control the pollutants meeting the criteria of paragraph
(e) (1) of this section will be satisfied by:
(i) Limitations on those pollutants; or
(ii) Limitations on other pollutants which, in the judgment of the Director, will provide treatment of the pollutants under paragraph
(e) (1) of this section to the levels required by § 125.3(c).
(f) Notification level. A "notification level" which exceeds the notification level of § 122.42(a)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii), upon a petition from the permittee or on the Director's initiative. This new notification level may not exceed the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under § 125.3(c).
(g) Twenty-four hour reporting: Pollutants for which the permittee must report violations of maximum daily discharge limitations under § 122.41(1)(6)(ii)(C)(24-hour reporting) shall be listed in the permit. This list shall include any toxic pollutant or hazardous substance, or any pollutant specifically identified as the method to control a toxic pollutant or hazardous substance.
(h) Durations for permits, as set forth in § 122.46.
(i) Monitoring requirements: In addition to § 122.48, the following monitoring requirements:
(1) To assure compliance with permit limitations, requirements to monitor:
(i) The mass (or other measurement specified in the permit) for each pollutant limited in the permit.
(ii) The volume of effluent discharged from each outfall;
(iii) Other measurements as appropriate; including pollutants in internal waste streams under § 122.45(i), pollutants in intake water for net limitations under § 122.45(f); frequency, rate of discharge, etc., for noncontinuous discharges under § 122.45(e); and pollutants subject to notification requirements under § 122.42(a).
(iv) According to test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 for the analyses of pollutants having approved methods under that Part, and according to a test procedure specified in the permit for pollutants with no approved methods.
(2) Requirements to report monitoring results with a frequency dependent on the nature and effect of the discharge, but in no case less than once a year.
(j) Pretreatment program for POTWs: requirements for POTWs to:
(1) Identify, in terms of character and volume of pollutants, any significant indirect dischargers into the POTW subject to pretreatment standards under section 307(b) of CWA and 40 CFR Part 403.
(2) Submit a local program when required by and in accordance with 40 CFR Part 403 to assure compliance with pretreatment standards to the extent applicable under section 307(b). The local program shall be incorporated into the permit as described in 40 CFR Part 403. The program shall require all indirect dischargers to the POTW to comply with the reporting requirements of 40 CFR Part 403.
(k) Best management practices to control or abate the discharge of pollutants when:
(1) Authorized under section 304(e) of CWA for the control of toxic pollutants and hazardous substances from ancillary industrial activities;
(2) Numeric effluent limitations are infeasible, or
(3) The practices are reasonably necessary to achieve effluent limitations and standards or to carry out the purposes and intent of CWA.
(l) Reissued permits. (1) Except as provided in paragraph
(l) (2) of this section when a permit is renewed or reissued, interim limitations, standards or conditions must be at least as stringent as the final limitations, standards, or conditions in the previous permit (unless the circumstances on which the previous permit was based have materially and substantially changed since the time the permit was issued and would constitute cause for permit modification or revocation and reissuance under § 122.62).
[122.44(l)(1) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985; 50 FR 7912, February 27, 1985]
(2) When effluent limitations were imposed under section 402(a)(1) of CWA in a previously issued permit and these limitations are more stringent than the subsequently promulgated effluent guidelines, this paragraph shall apply unless:
(i) The discharger has installed the treatment facilities required to meet the effluent limitations in the previous permit and has properly operated and maintained the facilities but has nevertheless been unable to achieve the previous effluent limitations. In this case the limitations in the renewed or reissued permit may reflect the level of pollutant control actually achieved (but shall not be less stringent than required by the subsequently promulgated effluent limitation guidelines);
(ii) In the case of an approved State, State law prohibits permit conditions more stringent than an applicable effluent limitation guideline;
(iii) The subsequently promulgated effluent guidelines are based on best conventional pollutant control technology (section 301(b)(2)(E) of CWA);
(iv) The circumstances on which the previous permit was based have materially and substantially changed since the time the permit was issued and would constitute cause for permit modification or revocation and reissuance under § 122.62; or
(v) There is increased production at the facility which results in significant reduction in treatment efficiency, in which case the permit limitations will be adjusted to reflect any decreased efficiency resulting from increased production and raw waste loads, but in no event shall permit limitations be less stringent than those required by subsequently promulgated standards and limitations.
(m) Privately owned treatment works: For a privately owned treatment works, any conditions expressly applicable to any user, as a limited co-permittee, that may be necessary in the permit issued to the treatment works to ensure compliance with applicable requirements under this Part. Alternatively, the Director may issue
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.44(m)]
82
separate permits to the treatment works and to its users, or may require a separate permit application from any user. The Director's decision to issue a permit with no conditions applicable to any user, to impose conditions on one or more users, to issue separate permits, or to require separate applications, and the basis for that decision, shall be stated in the fact sheet for the draft permit for the treatment works.
(n) Grants: Any conditions imposed in grants made by the Administrator to POWs under sections 201 and 204 of CWA which are reasonably necessary for the achievement of effluent limitations under section 301 of CWA.
(o) Sewage sludge: Requirements under section 403 of CWA governing the disposal of sewage sludge from publicly owned treatment works, in accordance with any applicable regulations.
(p) Coast Guard: When a permit is issued to a facility that may operate at certain times as a means of transportation over water, a condition that the discharge shall comply with any applicable regulations promulgated by the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard is operating, that establish specifications for safe transportation, handling, carriage, and storage of pollutants.
(q) Navigation: Any conditions that the Secretary of the Army considers necessary to ensure that navigation and anchorage will not be substantially impaired, in accordance with § 124.58.
(a) Outfalls and discharge points. All permit effluent limitations, standards, and prohibitions shall be established for each outfall or discharge point of the permitted facility, except as otherwise provided under § 122.44(j)(2) (BMPs where limitations are infeasible) and paragraph
(i) of this section (limitations on internal waste streams).
(b) Production-based limitations. (1) In the case of POTWs, permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions shall be calculated based on design flow.
[122.45(b)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2)(i) Except in the case of POTWs or as provided in paragraph
(b) (2)(ii) of this section, calculation of any permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions which are based on production (or other measure of operation) shall be based not upon the designed production capacity but rather upon a reasonable measure of actual production of the facility. For new sources or new dischargers, actual production shall be estimated using projected production. The time period of the measure of production shall correspond to the time period of the calculated permit limitations; for example, monthly production shall be used to calculate average monthly discharge limitations.
(ii)(A)(1) The Director may include a condition establishing alternate permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions based upon anticipated increase (not to exceed maximum production capability) or decreased production levels.
(2) For the automotive manufacturing industry only, the Regional Administrator shall, and the State Director may establish a condition under paragraph
(b) (2)(ii)(A)(1) of this section if the applicant satisfactorily demonstrates to the Director at the time the application is submitted that its actual production, as indicated in paragraph
(b) (2)(i) of this section, is substantially below maximum production capability and that there is a reasonable potential for an increase above actual production during the duration of the permit.
(b) (2)(ii)(A) of this section:
(1) The permit shall require the permittee to notify the Director at least two business days prior to a month in which the permittee expects to operate at a level higher than the lowest production level identified in the permit. The notice shall specify the anticipated level and the period during which the permittee expects to operate at the alternate level. If the notice covers more than one month, the notice shall specify the reasons for the anticipated production level increase. New notice of discharge at alternate levels is required to cover a period or production level not covered by prior notice or, if during two consecutive months otherwise covered by a notice, the production level at the permitted facility does not in fact meet the higher level designated in the notice.
(2) The permittee shall comply with the limitations, standards, or prohibitions that correspond to the lowest level of production specified in the permit, unless the permittee has notified the Director under paragraph
(b) (2)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, in which case the permittee shall comply with the lower of the actual level of production during each month or the level specified in the notice.
(3) The permittee shall submit with the DMR the level of production that actually occurred during each month and the limitations, standards, or prohibitions applicable to that level of production.
[122.45(c) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(c) Metals. All permit effluent limitations, standards, or prohibitions for a metal shall be expressed in terms of "total recoverable metal" as defined in 40 CFR Part 136 unless:
(1) An applicable effluent standard or limitation has been promulgated under the CWA and specifies the limitation for the metal in the dissolved or valent or total form; or
(2) In establishing permit limitations on a case-by-case basis under § 125.3, it is necessary to express the limitation on the metal in the dissolved or valent or total form to carry out the provisions of the CWA; or
(3) All approved analytical methods for the metal inherently measure only its dissolved form (e.g., hexavalent chromium).
(d) Continuous discharges. For continuous discharges all permit effluent limitations, standards, and prohibitions, including those necessary to achieve water quality standards, shall unless impracticable be stated as:
(1) Maximum daily and average monthly discharge limitations for all dischargers other than publicly owned treatment works; and
(2) Average weekly and average monthly discharge limitations for POTWs.
(e) Non-continuous discharges. Discharges which are not continuous, as defined in § 122.2, shall be particularly described and limited, considering the following factors, as appropriate:
(1) Frequency (for example, a batch discharge shall not occur more than once every 3 weeks);
(2) Total mass (for example, not to exceed 100 kilograms of zinc and 200
[Sec. 122.45(e)(2)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
5-734
131:1023
131:1024
kilograms of chromium per batch discharge);
(3) Maximum rate of discharge of pollutants during the discharge (for example, not to exceed 2 kilograms of zinc per minute); and
(4) Prohibition or limitation of specified pollutants by mass, concentration, or other appropriate measure (for example, shall not contain at any time more than 0.1 mg/1 zinc or more than 250 grams (1/2 kilogram) of zinc in any discharge).
(f) Mass limitations. (1) All pollutants limited in permits shall have limitations, standards or prohibitions expressed in terms of mass except:
(i) For pH, temperature, radiation, or other pollutants which cannot appropriately be expressed by mass;
(ii) When applicable standards and limitations are expressed in terms of other units of measurement; or
(iii) If in establishing permit limitations on a case-by-case basis under § 125.3, limitations expressed in terms of mass are infeasible because the mass of the pollutant discharged cannot be related to a measure of operation (for example, discharges of TSS from certain mining operations), and permit conditions ensure that dilution will not be used as a substitute for treatment.
(2) Pollutants limited in terms of mass additionally may be limited in terms of other units of measurement, and the permit shall require the permittee to comply with both limitations.
[122.45(g) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(g) Pollutants in intake water.
(1) Upon request of the discharger, technology-based effluent limitations or standards shall be adjusted to reflect credit for pollutants in the discharger's intake water if:
(i) The applicable effluent limitations and standards contained in 40 CFR Subchapter N specifically provide that they shall be applied on a net basis; or
(ii) The discharger demonstrates that the control system it proposes or uses to meet applicable technology-based limitations and standards would, if properly installed and operated, meet the limitations and standards in the absence of pollutants in the intake waters.
(2) Credit for generic pollutants such as biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) or total suspended solids (TSS) should not be granted unless the permittee demonstrates that the constituents of the generic measure in the effluent are substantially similar to the constituents of the generic measure in the intake water or unless appropriate additional limits are placed on process water pollutants either at the outfall or elsewhere.
(3) Credit shall be granted only to the extent necessary to meet the applicable limitation or standard, up to a maximum value equal to the influent value. Additional monitoring may be necessary to determine eligibility for credits and compliance with permit limits.
(4) Credit shall be granted only if the discharger demonstrates that the intake water is drawn from the same body of water into which the discharge is made. The Director may waive this requirement if he finds that no environmental degradation will result.
(5) This section does not apply to the discharge of raw water clarifier sludge generated from the treatment of intake water.
[122.45(h) deleted and
(i) redesignated as
(h) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(h) Internal waste streams. (1) When permit effluent limitations or standards imposed at the point of discharge are impractical or infeasible, effluent limitations or standards for discharges of pollutants may be imposed on internal waste streams before mixing with other waste streams or cooling water streams. In those instances, the monitoring required by § 122.44(i) shall also be applied to the internal waste streams.
(2) Limits on internal waste streams will be imposed only when the fact sheet under § 124.56 sets forth the exceptional circumstances which make such limitations necessary, such as when the final discharge point is inaccessible (for example, under 10 meters of water), the wastes at the point of discharge are so diluted as to make monitoring impracticable, or the interferences among pollutants at the point of discharge would make detection or analysis impracticable.
(i) Disposal of pollutants into wells, into POTWs or by land application. Permit limitations and standards shall be calculated as provided in § 122.50.
[122.45(j) redesignated as
(i) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(b) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0077).
[122.45 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.46 Duration of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25).
(a) NPDES permits shall be effective for a fixed term not to exceed 5 years.
(b) Except as provided in § 122.6, the term of a permit shall not be extended by modification beyond the maximum duration specified in this section.
[122.46(b) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(c) The Director may issue any permit for a duration that is less than the full allowable term under this section.
(d) A permit may be issued to expire on or after the statutory deadline set forth in section 301(b)(2) (A), (C), and (E) (July 1, 1984), if the permit includes effluent limitations to meet the requirements of sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), (D), (E), and (F), whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated or approved.
[Former 122.46(d) removed and former
(e) revised and redesignated as
(d) by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(e) A determination that a particular discharger falls within a given industrial category for purposes of setting a permit expiration date under paragraph
(d) of this section is not conclusive as to the discharger's inclusion in that industrial category for any other purposes, and does not prejudice any rights to challenge or change that inclusion at the time that a permit based on that determination is formulated.
[Former 122.46
(f) revised and redesignated as
(e) by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
8 122.47 Schedules of compliance.
(a) General (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25). The permit may, when appropriate, specify a schedule of compliance leading to compliance with CWA and regulations.
(1) Time for compliance. Any schedules of compliance under this section shall require compliance as soon as possible, but not later than the applicable statutory deadline under the CWA.
(2) The first NPDES permit issued to a new source or a new discharger shall contain a schedule of compliance only when necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with requirements issued or revised after commencement of construction but less than three years before commencement of the relevant discharge. For recommencing dischargers, a schedule of compliance shall be available only
[Sec. 122.47(a)(2)]
When necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with requirements issued or revised less than three years before recommencement of discharge.
(122.47(a)(3) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984)
(3) Interim dates. Except as provided in paragraph
(b) (1)(ii), if a permit establishes a schedule of compliance which exceeds 1 year from the date of permit issuance, the schedule shall set forth interim requirements and the dates for their achievement.
(i) The time between interim dates shall not exceed 1 year.
(ii) If the time necessary for completion of any interim requirement (such as the construction of a control facility) is more than 1 year and is not readily divisible into stages for completion, the permit shall specify interim dates for the submission of reports of progress toward completion of the interim requirements and indicate a projected completion date.
Note: Examples of interim requirements include:
(a) submit a complete Step 1 construction grant (for POTWs);
(b) let a contract for construction of required facilities;
(c) commence construction of required facilities;
(d) complete construction of required facilities.
(4) Reporting. The permit shall be written to require that no later than 14 days following each interim date and the final date of compliance, the permittee shall notify the Director in writing of its compliance or noncompliance with the interim or final requirements, or submit progress reports if paragraph
(a) (3)(ii) is applicable.
(122.47(a)(4) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(b) Alternative schedules of compliance. An NPDES permit applicant or permittee may cease conducting regulated activities (by terminating of direct discharge for NPDES sources) rather than continuing to operate and meet permit requirements as follows:
(1) If the permittee decides to cease conducting regulated activities at a given time within the term of a permit which has already been issued:
(i) The permit may be modified to contain a new or additional schedule leading to timely cessation of activities; or
(ii) The permittee shall cease conducting permitted activities before non-compliance with any interim or final compliance schedule requirement already specified in the permit.
(2) If the decision to cease conducting regulated activities is made before issuance of a permit whose term will include the termination date, the permit shall contain a schedule leading to termination which will ensure timely compliance with applicable requirements no later than the statutory deadline.
(3) If the permittee is undecided whether to cease conducting regulated activities, the Director may issue or modify a permit to contain two schedules as follows:
(i) Both schedules shall contain an identical interim deadline requiring a final decision on whether to cease conducting regulated activities no later than a date which ensures sufficient time to comply with applicable requirements in a timely manner if the decision is to continue conducting regulated activities;
(ii) One schedule shall lead to timely compliance with applicable requirements, no later than the statutory deadline;
(iii) The second schedule shall lead to cessation of regulated activities by a date which will ensure timely compliance with applicable requirements no later than the statutory deadline.
(iv) Each permit containing two schedules shall include a requirement that after the permittee has made a final decision under paragraph
(b) (3)(i) of this section it shall follow the schedule leading to compliance if the decision is to continue conducting regulated activities, and follow the schedule leading to termination if the decision is to cease conducting regulated activities.
(4) The applicant's or permittee's decision to cease conducting regulated activities shall be evidenced by a firm public commitment satisfactory to the Director, such as a resolution of the board of directors of a corporation.
All permits shall specify:
(a) Requirements concerning the proper use, maintenance, and installation, when appropriate, of monitoring equipment or methods (including biological monitoring methods when appropriate);
(b) Required monitoring including type, intervals, and frequency sufficient to yield data which are representative of the monitored activity including, when appropriate, continuous monitoring;
(c) Applicable reporting requirements based upon the impact of the regulated activity and as specified in § 122.44. Reporting shall be no less frequent than specified in the above regulation.
(122.48(c) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(122.49 introductory paragraph revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983)
The following is a list of Federal laws that may apply to the issuance of permits under these rules. When any of these laws is applicable, its procedures must be followed. When the applicable law requires consideration or adoption of particular permit conditions or requires the denial of a permit, those requirements also must be followed.
(a) The Wild and Scenic Rivers Act, 16 U.S.C. 1273 et seq. Section 7 of the Act prohibits the Regional Administrator from assisting by license or otherwise the construction of any water resources project that would have a direct, adverse effect on the values for which a national wild and scenic river was established.
(b) The National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, 16 U.S.C. 470 et seq. Section 106 of the Act and implementing regulations (36 CFR Part 800) require the Regional Administrator, before issuing a license, to adopt measures when feasible to mitigate potential adverse effects of the licensed activity and properties listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places. The Act's requirements are to be implemented in cooperation with State Historic Preservation Officers and upon notice to, and when appropriate, in consultation with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation.
(c) The Endangered Species Act, 16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq. Section 7 of the Act and implementing regulations (50 CFR Part 402) require the Regional Administrator to ensure, in consultation with the Secretary of the Interior or Commerce, that any action authorized by EPA is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or adversely affect its critical habitat.
(d) The Coastal Zone Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1451 et seq. Section 307(c) of the Act and implementing regulations
[Sec. 122.49(d)]
131:1026
(15 CFR Part 930) prohibit EPA from issuing a permit for an activity affecting land or water use in the coastal zone until the applicant certifies that the proposed activity complies with the State Coastal Zone Management program, and the State or its designated agency concurs with the certification (or the Secretary of Commerce overrides the State's nonconcurrence).
(e) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act, 16 U.S.C. 661 et seq., requires that the Regional Administrator, before issuing a permit proposing or authorizing the impoundment (with certain exemptions), diversion, or other control or modification of any body of water, consult with the appropriate State agency exercising jurisdiction over wildlife resources to conserve those resources.
(f) Executive orders. [Reserved.]
(g) The National Environmental Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq., may require preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement and consideration of EIS-related permit conditions (other than effluent limitations) as provided in § 122.29(c).
[122.49(g) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
§ 122.50 Disposal of pollutants into wells, into publicly owned treatment works or by land application (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
(a) When part of a discharger's process wastewater is not being discharged into waters of the United States or contiguous zone because it is disposed into a well, into a POTW, or by land application thereby reducing the flow or level of pollutants being discharged into waters of the United States, applicable effluent standards and limitations for the discharge in an NPDES permit shall be adjusted to reflect the reduced raw waste resulting from such disposal. Effluent limitations and standards in the permit shall be calculated by one of the following methods:
(1) If none of the waste from a particular process is discharged into waters of the United States, and effluent limitations guidelines provide separate allocation for wastes from that process, all allocations for the process shall be eliminated from calculation of permit effluent limitations or standards.
[122.50(a)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) In all cases other than those described in paragraph
(a) (1) of this section, effluent limitations shall be adjusted by multiplying the effluent limitation derived by applying effluent limitation guidelines to the total waste stream by the amount of wastewater flow to be treated and discharged into waters of the United States, and dividing the result by the total wastewater flow. Effluent limitations and standards so calculated may be further adjusted under Part 125, Subpart D to make them more or less stringent if discharges to wells, publicly owned treatment works, or by land application change the character or treatability of the pollutants being discharged to receiving waters. This method may be algebraically expressed as:
$$p = \frac{E imes N}{T}$$
where P is the permit effluent limitation, E is the limitation derived by applying effluent guidelines to the total wastewaters, N is the wastewater flow to be treated and discharged to waters of the United States, and T is the total wastewater flow.
(b) Paragraph
(a) of this section does not apply to the extent that promulgated effluent limitations guidelines:
(1) Control concentrations of pollutants discharged but not mass; or
(2) Specify a different specific technique for adjusting effluent limitations to account for well injection, land application, or disposal into POTWs.
(c) Paragraph
(a) of this section does not alter a discharger's obligation to meet any more stringent requirements established under §§ 122.41, 122.42, 122.43, and 122.44.
Subpart D—Transfer, Modification, Revocation and Reissuance, and Termination of Permits
§ 122.61 Transfer of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Transfers by modification. Except as provided in paragraph
(b) of this section, a permit may be transferred by the permittee to a new owner or operator only if the permit has been modified or revoked and reissued (under § 122.62(b)(2)), or a minor modification made (under § 122.63(d)), to identify the new permittee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary under CWA.
(b) Automatic transfers. As an alternative to transfers under paragraph
(a) of this section, any NPDES permit may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if:
(1) The current permittee notifies the Director at least 30 days in advance of the proposed transfer date in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section;
(2) The notice includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and
(3) The Director does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of his or her intent to modify or revoke and reissue the permit. A modification under the subparagraph may also be a minor modification under § 122.63. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the date specified in the agreement mentioned in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section.
§ 122.62 Modification or revocation and reissuance of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
When the Director receives any information (for example, inspects the facility, receives information submitted by the permittee as required in the permit (see § 122.41), receives a request for modification or revocation and reissuance under § 124.5, or conducts a review of the permit file) he or she may determine whether or not one or more of the causes listed in paragraphs
(a) and
(b) of this section for modification or revocation and reissuance or both exist. If cause exists, the Director may modify or revoke and reissue the permit accordingly, subject to the limitations of paragraph
(c) of this section, and may request an updated application if necessary. When a permit is modified, only the conditions subject to modification are reopened. If a permit is revoked and reissued, the entire permit is reopened and subject to revision and the permit is reissued for a new term. See §124.5(c)(2). If cause does not exist under this section or §122.63, the Director shall not modify or revoke and reissue the permit. If a permit modification satisfies the criteria in §122.63 for "minor modifications" the permit may be modified without a draft permit or public review. Otherwise, a draft permit must be prepared and other procedures in Part 124 (or proceed).
dures of an approved State program) followed.
(a) Causes for modification. The following are causes for modification but not revocation and reissuance of permits except when the permittee requests or agrees.
(1) Alterations. There are material and substantial alteration or additions to the permitted facility or activity which occurred after permit issuance which justify the application of permit conditions that are different or absent in the existing permit.
[Note. - Certain reconstruction activities may cause the new source provisions of §122.29 to be applicable.]
(2) Information. The Director has received new information. Permits may be modified during their terms for this cause only if the information was not available at the time of permit issuance (other than revised regulations, guidance, or test methods) and would have justified the application of different permit conditions at the time of issuance. For NPDES general permits (§122.28) this cause includes any information indicating that cumulative effects on the environment are unacceptable.
(3) New regulations. The standards or regulations on which the permit was based have been changed by promulgation of amended standards or regulations or by judicial decision after the permit was issued. Permits may be modified during their terms for this cause only as follows:
(i) For promulgation of amended standards or regulations, when:
(A) The permit condition requested to be modified was based on a promulgated effluent limitation guideline, EPA approved or promulgated water quality standards, or the Secondary Treatment Regulations under Part 133; and
[122.62(a)(3)(ii)A] amended by 49 FR 37009, September 20, 1984]
(B) EPA has revised, withdrawn, or modified that portion of the regulation or effluent limitation guideline on which the permit condition was based, or has approved a State action with regard to a water quality standard on which the permit condition was based; and
(C) A permittee requests modification in accordance with §124.5 within ninety (90) days after Federal Register notice of the action on which the request is based.
(ii) For judicial decisions, a court of competent jurisdiction has remanded and stayed EPA promulgated regulations or effluent limitation guidelines, if the remand and stay concern that portion of the regulations or guidelines on which the permit condition was based and a request is filed by the permittee in accordance with §124.5 within ninety (90) days of judicial remand.
(iii) For changes based upon modified State certifications of NPDES permits, see §124.55(b).
(4) Compliance schedules. The Director determines good cause exists for modification of a compliance schedule, such as an act of God, strike, flood, or materials shortage or other events over which the permittee has little or no control and for which there is no reasonably available remedy. However, in no case may an NPDES compliance schedule be modified to extend beyond an applicable CWA statutory deadline. See also §122.63(c) (minor modifications) and paragraph
(a) (14) of this section (NPDES innovative technology).
(5) When the permittee has filed a request for a variance under CWA section 301(c), 301(h), 301(i), 301(k), or 316(a) or for "fundamentally different factors" within the time specified in §§122.21 or 125.27(a).
[122.62(a)(5) revised by 49 FR 25981, June 25, 1984]
(6) 307(a) toxics. When required to incorporate an applicable 307(a) toxic effluent standard or prohibition (see §122.44(b)).
(7) Re:penet. When required by the "reopenet" conditions in a permit, which are established in the permit under §122.44(b) (for CWA toxic effluent limitations) or 40 CFR 403.10(d) (pretreatment program), except that when a modification clause established under 40 CFR 403.10(d) relates to the incorporation in a POTW's permit of a pretreatment program approved in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR 403.11, such modification shall be deemed a minor modification subject to the procedures in §122.63.
[122.62(a)(7) revised by 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986]
(8)(i) Net limits. Upon request of a permittee who qualifies for effluent limitation, as provided in §122.45(b)(1)(ii)(B).
(9) Pretreatment. As necessary under 40 CFR 403.8(e) (compliance schedule for development of pretreatment program).
(10) Failure to notify. Upon failure of an approved State to notify, as required by section 402(b)(3), another State whose waters may be affected by a discharge from the approved State.
(11) Non-limited pollutants. When the level of discharge of any pollutant which is not limited in the permit exceeds the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under §125.3(c).
[122.62(a)(12) removed and (13)-(15) redesignated as (12)-(14) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(12) Notification levels. To establish a "notification level" as provided in §122.44(f).
(13) Compliance schedules. To modify a schedule of compliance to reflect the time lost during construction of an innovative or alternative facility, in the case of a POTW which has received a grant under section 202(a)(3) of CWA for 100% of the costs to modify or replace facilities constructed with a grant for innovative and alternative wastewater technology under section 202(a)(2). In no case shall the compliance schedule be modified to extend beyond an applicable CWA statutory deadline for compliance.
(14) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after August 19, 1981, if the permittee shows good cause for the modification, to conform to changes respecting the following regulations issued under the Settlement Agreement dated November 16, 1981, in connection with Natural Resources Defense Council v. EPA, No. 80-1607 and consolidated cases: §122.41(c) and
(d) .
[122.62(a)(15) added by 49 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; redesignated as (14) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
[New 122.62(a)(15)-(18) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(15) When the permittee's effluent limitations were imposed under section 402(a)(1) of the CWA and the permittee demonstrates operation and maintenance costs that are totally disproportionate from the operation and maintenance costs considered in the development of a subse
[Sec. 122.62(a)(15)]
7-11-86
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
181
131:1028
guideline, but in no case may the limitations be made less stringent than the subsequent guideline.
(16) To correct technical mistakes, such as errors in calculation, or mistaken interpretations of law made in determining permit conditions.
(17) When the discharger has installed the treatment technology considered by the permit writer in setting effluent limitations imposed under section 402(a)(1) of the CWA and has properly operated and maintained the facilities but nevertheless has been unable to achieve those effluent limitations. In this case, the limitations in the modified permit may reflect the level of pollutant control actually achieved (but shall not be less stringent than required by a subsequently promulgated effluent limitations guideline).
(18) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after March 9, 1982, and the permittee applies for the modification no later than January 24, 1985, if the permittee shows good cause in its request and that it qualifies for the modification, to conform to changes respecting the following regulations issued under that Settlement Agreement:
(b) Causes for modification or revocation and reissuance. The following are causes to modify or, alternatively, revoke and reissue a permit:
(1) Cause exists for termination under § 122.64, and the Director determines that modification or revocation and reissuance is appropriate.
(2) The Director has received notification (as required in the permit, see § 122.41(i)(3)) of a proposed transfer of the permit. A permit also may be modified to reflect a transfer after the effective date of an automatic transfer (§ 122.61(b)) but will not be revoked and reissued after the effective date of the transfer except upon the request of the new permittee.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0058)
[122.62 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
§ 122.63 Minor modifications of permits.
Upon the consent of the permittee, the Director may modify a permit to make the corrections or allowances for changes in the permitted activity listed in this section, without following the procedures of Part 124. Any permit modification, not processed as a minor modification under this section, must be made for cause and with Part 124 draft permit and public notice as required in § 122.62. Minor modifications may only:
(a) Correct typographical errors;
(b) Require more frequent monitoring or reporting by the permittee;
(c) Change an interim compliance date in a schedule of compliance, provided the new date is not more than 120 days after the date specified in the existing permit and does not interfere with attainment of the final compliance date requirement; or
(d) Allow for a change in ownership or operational control of a facility where the Director determines that no other change in the permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between the current and new permittees has been submitted to the Director.
(e) (1) Change the construction schedule for a discharger which is a new source. No such change shall affect a discharger's obligation to have all pollution control equipment installed and in operation prior to discharge under § 122.29.
(2) Delete a point source outfall when the discharge from that outfall is terminated and does not result in discharge of pollutants from other outfalls except in accordance with permit limits.
(f) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after March 9, 1982, conform to changes respecting §§ 122.41(e), 122.41(m)(4)(i)(B), 122.41(n)(3)(i) and 122.42(a) issued September 26, 1984.
[122.63(f) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(c) Incorporate conditions of a POTW pre-treatment program that has been approved in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR 40.11 as enforceable conditions of the POTW's permit.
[122.63(g) added by 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986]
§ 122.64 Termination of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) The following are causes for terminating a permit during its term, or for denying a permit renewal application:
(1) Noncompliance by the permittee with any condition of the permit;
(2) The permittee's failure in the application or during the permit issuance process to disclose fully all relevant facts or the permittee's misrepresentation of any relevant facts at any time:
[122.64(a)(2), (3) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(3) A determination that the permitted activity endangers human health or the environment and can only be regulated to acceptable levels by permit modification or termination; or
(4) A change in any condition that requires either a temporary or a permanent reduction or elimination of any discharge controlled by the permit (for example, plant closure or termination of discharge by connection to a POTW).
(b) The Director shall follow the applicable procedures in Part 124 or State procedures in terminating any NPDES permit under this section.
APPENDIX A—NPDES PRIMARY INDUSTRY CATEGORIES
Any permit issued after June 30, 1981 to dischargers in the following categories shall include effluent limitations and a compliance schedule to meet the requirements of section 301(b)(2)(A), (C), (D), (E) and (F) of CWA, whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated. See §§ 122.44 and 122.46.
Industry Category
Adhesives and sealants
Aluminum forming
Auto and other laundries
Battery manufacturing
Coal mining
Coil coating
Copper forming
Electrical and electronic components
Electroplating
Explosives manufacturing
Foundries
Gum and wood chemicals
Inorganic chemicals manufacturing
Iron and steel manufacturing
Lenther tanning and finishing
Mechanical products manufacturing
Nonferrous metals manufacturing
Ore mining
Organic chemicals manufacturing
Paint and ink formulation
Pesticides
Petroleum refining
Pharmaceutical preparations
Photographic equipment and supplies
Plastics processing
Plastic and synthetic materials manufacturing
Porcelain enameling
Printing and publishing
Pulp and paper mills
Rubber processing
Susp and detergent manufacturing
Steam electric power plants
Environment Reporter
[Appendix A]
182
Timber Products Processing
An animal feeding operation is a concentrated animal feeding operation for purposes of $122.23 if either of the following criteria are met.
(a) More than the numbers of animals specified in any of the following categories are confined: (1) 1,000 slaughter and feeder cattle, (2) 700 mature dairy cattle (whether milked or dry cows), (3) 2,500 swine each weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds), (4) 500 horses, (5) 10,000 sheep or lambs, (6) 55,000 turkeys, (7) 100,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has continuous overflow watering), (8) 30,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has a liquid manure system), (9) 5,000 ducks, or (10) 1,000 animal units; or
(b) More than the following number and types of animals are confined: (1) 300 slaughter or feeder cattle, (2) 200 mature dairy cattle (whether milked or dry cows), (3) 750 swine each weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds), (4) 150 horses, (5) 3,000 sheep or lambs, (6) 16,500 turkeys, (7) 30,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has continuous overflow watering), (8) 9,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has a liquid manure handling system), (9) 1,500 ducks, or (10) 300 animal units; and either one of the following conditions are met: pollutants are discharged into navigable waters through a manmade ditch, flushing system or other similar man-made device; or pollutants are discharged directly into waters of the United States which originate outside of and pass over, across, or through the facility or otherwise come into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation. Provided, however, that no animal feeding operation is a concentrated animal feeding operation as defined above if such animal feeding operation discharges only in the event of a 25 year, 24 -hour storm event. The term "animal unit" means a unit of measurement for any animal feeding operation calculated by adding the following numbers: the number of slaughter and feeder cattle multiplied by 1.0 , plus the number of mature dairy cattle multiplied by 1.4 , plus the number of swine weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds) multiplied by 0.4 , plus the number of sheep multiplied by 0.1 , plus the number of horses multiplied by 2.0 . The term "manmade" means constructed by man and used for the purpose of transporting wastes.
A hatchery, fish farm, or other facility is a concentrated aquatic animal production facility for purposes of $122.24 if it contains, grows, or holds aquatic animals in either of the following categories:
(a) Cold water fish species or other cold water aquatic animals in ponds, raceways, or other similar structures which discharge at least 30 days per year but does not include: (1) Facilities which produce less than 9,090 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 20,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year; and (2) Facilities which feed less than 2,272 kilograms (approximately 5,000 pounds) of food during the calendar month of maximum feeding.
(b) Warm water fish species or other warm water aquatic animals in ponds, raceways, or other similar structures which discharge at least 30 days per year, but does not include: (1) Closed ponds which discharge only during periods of excess runoff; or (2) Facilities which produce less than 45,454 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 100,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year. "Cold water aquatic animals" include, but are not limited to, the Salmonellae family of fish; e.g., trout and salmon. "Warm water aquatic animals" include, but are not limited to, the Ameiuride, Centrarchidae and Cyprinidae families of fish; e.g., respectively, catfish, sunfish and minnows.
Table I.-Testing Requirements for ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRIAL CATEGORY FOR EXISTING DISCHANGERS
Industrial category | GC/MS Fraction ¹ | |||
---|---|---|---|---|
Volatile | Acid | Base/ neutral | Peat- cida | |
Adhesives and Sealants | ||||
Aluminum Forming | * | * | * | |
Auto and Other | ||||
Launches | * | * | * | |
Battery Manufacturing | * | * | * | |
Coal Mining | * | * | * | |
Coil Coating | * | * | * | |
Copper Forming | * | * | * |
Table II.-Organic Toxic Pollutants in Each of Four Fractions in Analysis by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectroscopy (GS/ MS) [Appendix D - Table II corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
1V acrolein 2V acrylonitrile $3 V$ benzene $5 V$ bromoform $6 V$ carbon tetrachloride $7 V$ chlorobenzene $8 V$ chlorodibromomethane $9 V$ chloroethane $10 V$ 2-chloroethylvinyl ether $11 V$ chloroform $12 V$ dichlorobromomethane $14 V$ 1,1-dichloroethane $15 V$ 1,2-dichloroethane $16 V$ 1,1-dichloroethylene $17 V$ 1,2-dichloropropane $18 V$ 1,3-dichloropropylene $19 V$ ethylbenzene
Table II.-Organic Toxic Pollutants in Each of Four Fractions in Analysis by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectroscopy (GS/ MS)
20 V methyl bromide 21 V methyl chloride 22 V methylene chloride 23 V 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane 24 V tetrachloroethylene 25 V toluene 26 V 1,2-trans-dichloroethylene / 27 V 1,1,1-trichloroethane 28 V 1,1,2-trichloroethane 29 V trichloroethylene 31 V vinyl chloride
1A 2-chlorophenol 2A 2,4-dichlorophenol 3A 2,4-dimethylphenol 4A 4,6-dinitro-o-cresol 5A 2,4-dinitrophenol 6A 2-nitrophenol 7A 4-nitrophenol 8A p-chloro-m-cresol 9A pentachlorophenol 10A phenol 11A 2,4,6-trichlorophenol
1B acenaphthene 2B acenaphthylene 3B anthracene 4B benzidine 5B benzo(a)anthracene 6B benzo(a)pyrene 7B 3,4-benzofluoranthene 8B benzo(ghi)perylene 9B benzo(k)fluoranthene 10B bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane 11B bis(2-chloroethyl)ether 12B bis(2-chloroisopropyl)ether 13B bis (2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 14B 4-bromophenyl phenyl ether 15B butylbenzyl phthalate 16B 2-chloronaphthalene 17B 4-chlorophenyl phenyl ether 18B chrysene 19B dibenzo(a,h)anthracene 20B 1,2-dichlorobenzene 21B 1,3-dichlorobenzene 22B 1,4-dichlorobenzene 23B 3,3'-dichlorobenzidine 24B diethyl phthalate 25B dimethyl phthalate 26B di-n-butyl phthalate 27B 2,4-dinitrotoluene 28B 2,6-dinitrotoluene 29B di-n-octyl phthalate 30B 1,2-diphenylhydrazine (as azobenzene) 31B furoranthene 32B fluorene 33B hexachlorobenzene 34B hexachlorobutadiene 35B hexachlorocyclopentadiene 36B hexachloroethane
37B indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 38B isophorone 39B napthalene 40B nitrobenzene 41B N -nitrosodimethylamine 42B N -nitrosodi-n-propylamine 43B N -nitrosodiphenylamine 44B phenanthrene 45B pyrene 46B 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene
1P aldrin 2P alpha-BHC 3P beta-BHC 4P gamma-BHC 5P delta-BHC 6P chlordane 7P 4,4'-DDT 8P 4,4'-DDE 9P 4,4'-DDD 10P dieldrin 11P alpha-endosulfan 12P beta-endosulfan 13P endosulfan sulfate 14P endrin 15P endrin aldehyde 16P 'eptechlor 17P heptachlor epoxide 18P PCB-1242 19P PCB-1254 20P PCB-1221 21P PCB-1232 22P PCB-1248 23P PCB-1260 24P PCB-1016 25P toxaphene Table III.-Other Toxic Pollutants: (Metals, Cyanide) and Total Phenols [Table III head amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984] Antimony, Total Arsenic, Total Beryllium, Total Cadmium, Total Chromium, Total Copper, Total Lead, Total Mercury, Total Nickel, Total Selenium, Total Silver, Total Thallium, Total Zinc, Total Cyanide, Total Phenols, Total Table IV.-Conventional and Nonconventional Pollutants Required To Be Tested by Existing Dischargers if Expected to be Present Bromide Chlorine, Total Residual Color Fecal Coliform Fluoride Nitrate-Nitrite
Nitrogen, Total Organic Oil and Grease Phosphorus, Total Radioactivity Sulfate Sulfide Sulfite Surfactants Aluminum, Total Barium, Total Boron, Total Cobalt, Total Iron, Total Magnesium, Total Molybdenum, Total Manganese, Total Tin, Total Titanium, Total Table V.-Toxic Pollutants and Hazardous Substances Required To Be Identified by Existing Dischargers if Expected To Be Present [Appendix D - Table V, corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
Asbestos Hazardous Substances Acetaldehyde Allyl alcohol Allyl chloride Amyl acetate Aniline Benzonitrile Benzyl chloride Butyl acetate Butylamine Cepian Carbaryl Carbofuran Carbon disulfide Chlorpyrifos Coumaphos Cresol Crotonaldehyde Cyclohexane 2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) Diazinon Dicamba Dichlobenil Dichlone 2,2-Dichloropropionic acid Dichlorvos Diethyl amine Dimethyl amine Dintrobenzene Dipust Disulfoton Diuron Epichlorohydrin Ethion Ethylene diamine Ethylene dibromide Formaldehyde Furfural
Component | Value |
---|---|
Guthion | |
Isoprene | |
Isopropanolamine | Dodecylbenzenesulfonate |
Keldhane | |
Kepone | |
Malathion | |
Mercapiodimethor | |
Methoxychlor | |
Methyl mercaptan | |
Methyl methacrylate | |
Methyl parathion | |
Mevinphos | |
Mexacarbate | |
Monoethyl amine | |
Monomethyl amine | |
Naled | |
Napthenic acid | |
Nitrotoluene | |
Parathion | |
Phenolsulfonate | |
Phosgene | |
Propargite | |
Propylene oxide | |
Pyrethrins | |
Quinoline | |
Resorcinol | |
Stronium | |
Strychnine | |
Styrene | |
2,4,5-T (2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy acetic acid) | |
TDE (Tetrachlorodiphenylethane) | |
2,4,5-TP [2-(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid] | |
Trichlorofan | |
Triethanolamine dodecylbenzenesulfonate | |
Triethylamine | |
Trimethylamine | |
Uronium | |
Vanadium | |
Vinyl acetate | |
Xylene | |
Xylenol | |
Zirconium |
Note: The Environmental Protection Agency has suspended the requirements of §122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and Table I of Appendix D as they apply to certain industrial categories. The suspensions are as follows:
This revision continues these suspensions.
For the duration of the suspensions, therefore, Table I effectively reads:
TABLE I—TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRY CATEGORY
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Adhesives and sealants | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Aluminum forming | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Auto and other aluminies | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Battery manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Coal mining | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Coal coating | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Copper forming | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Electric and electronic compounds | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Electroplating | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Explosives manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Foundries | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Gum and wood (all subparts except D and F) | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
TABLE II—TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRY CATEGORY
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Phernal | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Subpart D—tail oil rosin | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Subpart F—rosin-based derivatives | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Inorganic chemicals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Iron and steel manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Leather tanning and finishing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Mechanical products manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Nonferrous metals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Ore mining supplies to the base and precious metals/subpart B | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Organic chemicals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Paint and ink formulation | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Pesticides | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Petroleum refining | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Testing required. The portions in each fraction are listed in Item V-C.
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Pharmaceutical preparations | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Photographic equipment and supplies | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Plastic and synthetic materials manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Plastic processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Porcelain enameling | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Printing and publishing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Pulp and paperboard | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Holes—see footnote 1 | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Rubber processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Soap and detergent manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Steam electric power plants | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Textile mills (subpart C—Greige Mills are exempt from this table) | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Timber products processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Pulp and Paperboard Mills
Subpart # | VOC-MS | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|
A | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
B | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
C | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
D | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
E | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
F | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
G | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
H | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
I | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
J | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
K | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
L | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
M | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
N | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
O | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
P | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Q | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
R | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
S | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
T | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
U | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Must test. Do not test unless "reason to believe" is in the category. # Subparts are defined in 40 CFR Part 430.
[Appendix D]
ANEJO C-7 Subtítulo A Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) General Provisions Section 1004 (Definitions)
land or water so that such solid waste or hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including ground waters.
(4) The term 'Federal agency' means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the Federal Government, any independent agency or establishment of the Federal Government including any Government corporation, and the Government Printing Office.
(5) The term 'hazardous waste' means a solid waste, or combination of solid wastes, which because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics may—
(A) cause, or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapaciting reversible, illness; or
(B) pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed.
(6) The term 'hazardous waste generation' means the act or process of producing hazardous waste.
(7) The term 'hazardous waste management' means the systematic control of the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of hazardous wastes.
(8) For purposes of Federal financial assistance (other than rural communities assistance), the term 'implementation' does not include the acquisition, leasing, construction, or modification of facilities or equipment or the acquisition, leasing, or improvement of land.
(9) The term 'intermunicipal agency' means an agency established by two or more municipalities with responsibility for planning or administration of solid waste.
(10) The term 'interstate agency' means an agency of two or more municipalities in different States, or an agency established by two or more States, with authority to provide for the management of solid wastes and serving two or more municipalities located in different States.
(11) The term 'long-term contract' means, when used in relation to solid waste supply, a contract of sufficient duration to assure the viability of a resource recovery facility (to the extent that such viability depends upon solid waste supply).
(12) The term 'manifest' means the form used for identifying the quantity, composition, and the origin, routing, and destination of hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.
(13) The term 'municipality' (A) means a city, town, borough, county, parish, district, or other public body created by or pursuant to State law, with responsibility for the planning or administration of solid waste management, or an Indian tribe or authorized tribal organization or Alaska Native village or organization, and (B) includes any rural community or unincorporated town or village or any other public entity for which an application for assistance is made by a State or political subdivision thereof.
(14) The term 'open dump' means any facility or site where solid waste is disposed of which is not a sanitary landfill which meets the criteria promulgated under section 4004 and which is not a facility for disposal of hazardous waste.
[1004(14) revised by PL 96-482]
(15) The term 'person' means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, corporation (including a government corporation), partnership, association, State, municipality, commission, political subdivision of a State, or any interstate body.
(16) The term 'procurement item' means any device, good, substance, material, product, or other item whether real or personal property which is the subject of any purchase, barter, or other exchange made to procure such item.
(17) The term 'procuring agency' means any Federal agency, or any State agency or agency of a political subdivision of a State which is using appropriated Federal funds for such procurement, or any person contracting with any such agency with respect to work performed under such contract.
(18) The term 'recoverable' refers to the capability and likelihood of being recovered from solid waste for a commercial or industrial use.
(19) The term 'recovered material' means waste material and byproducts which have been recovered or diverted from solid waste, but such terms does not include those materials and byproducts generated from, and commonly reused within, an original manufacturing process.
[1004(19) revised by PL 96-482]
(20) The term 'recovered resources' means material or energy recovered from solid waste.
(21) The term 'resource conservation' means reduction of the amounts of solid waste that are generated, reduction of overall resource consumption, and utilization of recovered resources.
(22) The term 'resource recovery' means the recovery of material or energy from solid waste.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
71:3106
"(23) The term 'resource recovery system' means a solid waste management system which provides for collection, separation, recycling, and recovery of solid wastes, including disposal of nonrecoverable waste residues.
"(24) The term 'resource recovery facility' means any facility at which solid waste is processed for the purpose of extracting, converting to energy, or otherwise separating and preparing solid waste for reuse.
"(25) The term 'regional authority' means the authority established or designated under section 4006.
"(26) The term 'sanitary landfill' means a facility for the disposal of solid waste which meets the criteria published under section 4004.
"(26A) The term 'sludge' means any solid, semisolid or liquid waste generated from a municipal, commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such waste having similar characteristics and effects.
"(27) The term 'solid waste' means any garbage, refuse, sludge from a waste treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility and other discarded material, including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural operations, and from community activities, but does not include solid or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved materials in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges which are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (86 Stat. 880), or source, special nuclear, or byproduct material as defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 923).
"(28) The term 'solid waste management' means the systematic administration of activities which provide for the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, transfer, processing, treatment, and disposal of solid waste.
"(29) The term 'solid waste management facility' includes (A) any resource recovery system or component thereof, (B) any system, program, or facility for resource conservation, and (C) any facility for the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, transfer, processing, treatment or disposal of solid wastes including hazardous wastes, whether such facility is associated with facilities generating such wastes or otherwise.
"(30) The terms 'solid waste planning,' 'solid waste management,' and 'comprehensive planning' include planning or management respecting resource recovery and resource conservation.
"(31) The term 'State' means any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
"(32) The term 'State authority' means the agency established or designated under section 4007.
"(33) The term 'storage,' when used in connection with hazardous waste, means the containment of hazardous waste, either on a temporary basis or for a period of years, in such a manner as not to constitute disposal of such hazardous waste.
"(34) The term 'treatment', when used in connection with hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize such waste or so as to render such waste nonhazardous, safer for transport, amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or reduced in volume. Such term includes any activity or processing designed to change the physical form or chemical composition of hazardous waste so as to render it nonhazardous.
"(35) The term 'virgin material' means a raw material, including previously unused copper, aluminum, lead, zinc, iron, or other metal or metal ore, any undeveloped resource that is, or with new technology will become, a source of raw materials.
"(36) The term 'used oil' means any oil which has been—
"(A) refined from crude oil,
"(B) used, and
"(C) as a result of such use, contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
"(37) The term 'recycled oil' means any used oil which is reused, following its original use, for any purpose (including the purpose for which the oil was originally used). Such term includes oil which is re-refined, reclaimed, burned, or reprocessed.
"(38) The term 'lubricating oil' means the fraction of crude oil which is sold for purposes of reducing friction in any industrial or mechanical device. Such term includes re-refined oil.
"(39) The term 're-refined oil' means used oil from which the physical and chemical contaminants acquired through previous use have been removed through a refining process.
(1004(36) through (39) added by PL 96-463]
"Governmental Cooperation
"Sec. 1005.
(a) Interstate Cooperation.—The provisions of this Act to be carried out by States may be car-
ANEJO C-8 Subtítulo C Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos
man shall not affect any procedures for grievances, appeals, or administrative matters in any other provision of this Act, any other provision of law, or any Federal regulation.
The Office of the Ombudsman shall cease to exist 4 years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
[2008 added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3001.
(a) Criteria for Identification or Listing—Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Administrator shall, after notice and opportunity for public hearing, and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, develop and promulgate criteria for identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste, and for listing hazardous waste, which should be subject to the provisions of this subtitle, taking into account toxicity, persistence, and degradability in nature, potential for accumulation in tissue, and other related factors such as flammability, corrosiveness, and other hazardous characteristics. Such criteria shall be revised from time to time as may be appropriate.
"(b)(1) Identification and Listing.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and after notice and opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste, and listing particular hazardous wastes (within the meaning of section 1004(5)), which shall be subject to the provisions of this subtitle. Such regulations shall be based on the criteria promulgated under subsection
(a) and shall be revised from time to time thereafter as may be appropriate. The Administrator, in cooperation with the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry and the National Toxicology Program, shall also identify or list those hazardous wastes which shall be subject to the provisions of this subtitle solely because of the presence in such wastes of certain constituents (such as identified carcinogens, mutagens, or teratagens) at levels in excess of levels which endanger human health.
[3001(b)(1) designated by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616]
"(2)(A) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil or natural gas or geothermal energy shall be subject only to existing State or Federal regulatory programs in lieu of subtitle C until at least 24 months after the date of enactment of the Solid Waste Disposal Act Amendments of 1980 and after promulgation of the regulations in accordance with subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this paragraph. It is the sense of the Congress that such State or Federal programs should include, for waste disposal sites which are to be closed, provisions requiring at least the following:
"(i) The identification through surveying, platting, or other measures, together with recordation of such information on the public record, so as to assure that the location where such wastes are disposed of can be located in the future; except however, that no such surveying, platting, or other measure identifying the location of a disposal site for drilling fluids and associated wastes shall be required if the distance from the disposal site to the surveyed or platted location to the associated well is less than two hundred lineal feet; and
"(ii) A chemical and physical analysis of a produced water and a composition of a drilling fluid suspected to contain a hazardous material, with such information to be acquired prior to closure and to be placed on the public record.
"(B) Not later than six months after completion and submission of the study required by section 8002(m) of this Act, the Administrator shall, after public hearings and opportunity for comment, determine either to promulgate regulations under this subtitle for drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil or natural gas or geothermal energy or that such regulations are unwarranted. The Administrator shall publish his decision in the Federal Register accompanied by an explanation and justification of the reasons for it. In making the decision under this paragraph, the Administrator shall utilize the information developed or accumulated pursuant to the study required under section 8002(m).
"(C) The Administrator shall transmit his decision, along with any regulations, if necessary, to both Houses of Congress. Such regulations shall take effect only when authorized by Act of Congress.
[3001(b)(2) added by PL 96-482]
"(3)(A) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, each waste listed below shall, except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, be subject only to regulation under other applicable provisions of Federal or State law in lieu of this subtitle until at least six months after the date of submission of the applicable study required to be conducted
under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) of section 8002 of this Act and after promulgation of regulations in accordance with subparagraph (C) of this paragraph: "(i) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels. "(ii) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals, including phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium ore. "(iii) Cement kiln dust waste. "(B)(i) Owners and operators of disposal sites for wastes listed in subparagraph (A) may be required by the Administrator, through regulations prescribed under authority of section 2002 of this Act- "(1) as to disposal sites for such wastes which are to be closed, to identify the locations of such sites through surveying, platting, or other measures, together with recordation of such information on the public record, to assure that the locations where such wastes are disposed of are known and can be located in the future, and "(II) to provide chemical and physical analysis and composition of such wastes, based on available information, to be placed on the public record. "(ii)(1) In conducting any study under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) , of section 8002 of this Act, any officer, employee, or authorized representative of the Environmental Protection Agency, duly designated by the Administrator, is authorized, at reasonable times and as reasonably necessary for the purposes of such study, to enter any establishment where any waste subject to such study is generated, stored, treated, disposed of, or transported from; to inspect, take samples, and conduct monitoring and testing; and to have access to and copy records relating to such waste. Each such inspection shall be commenced and completed with reasonable promptness. If the officer, employee, or authorized representative obtains any samples prior to leaving the premises, he shall give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the sample obtained and if requested a portion of each such sample equal in volume or weight to the portion retained. If any analysis is made of such samples, or monitoring and testing performed, a copy of the results shall be furnished promptly to the owner, operator, or agent in charge. "(II) Any records, reports, or information obtained from any person under subclause (I) shall be available to the public, except that upon a showing satisfactory to the Administrator by any person that records, reports, or information, or particular part thereof, to which the Administrator has access under this subparagraph if made public, would divulge information entitled to protection under section 1905 of title 18 of the United
States Code, the Administrator shall consider such information or particular portion thereof confidential in accordance with the purposes of that section, except that such record, report, document, or information may be disclosed to other officers, employees, or authorized representatives of the United States concerned with carrying out this Act. Any person not subject to the provisions of section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code who knowingly and willfully divulges or discloses any information entitled to protection under this subparagraph shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 or to imprisonment not to exceed one year, or both. "(iii) The Administrator may prescribe regulations, under the authority of this Act, to prevent radiation exposure which presents an unreasonable risk to human health from the use in construction or land reclamation (with or without revegetation) of (I) solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of phosphate rock or (II) overburden from the mining of uranium ore. "(iv) Whenever on the basis of any information the Administrator determines that any person is in violation of any requirement of this subparagraph, the Administrator shall give notice to the violator of his failure to comply with such requirement. If such violation extends beyond the thirtieth day after the Administrator's notification, the Administrator may issue an order requiring compliance within a specified time period or the Administrator may commence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the violation occurred for appropriate relief, including a temporary or permanent injunction. "(C) Not later than six months after the date of submission of the applicable study required to be conducted under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) , of section 8002 of this Act, the Administrator shall, after public hearings and opportunity for comment, either determine to promulgate regulations under this subtitle for each waste listed in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or determine that such regulations are, unwarranted. The Administrator shall publish his determination, which shall be based on information developed or accumulated pursuant to such study, publichearings, and comment, in the Federal Register accompanied by an explanation and justification of the reasons for it. [3001(b)(3) added by PL 96-482] "(c) Petition by State Governor.-At any time after the date eighteen months after the enactment of this title, the Governor of any State may petition the Administrator to identify or list a material as a hazardous waste. The Administrator shall act upon such petition
71:3114
within ninety days following his receipt thereof and shall notify the Governor of such action. If the Administrator denies such petition because of financial considerations, in providing such notice to the Governor he shall include a statement concerning such considerations.
[3001(d) added by PL 98-616]
(d) SMALL QUANTITY GENERATOR WASTE.-(1) By March 31, 1986, the Administrator shall promulgate standards under sections 3002, 3003, and 3004 for hazardous waste generated by a generator in a total quantity of hazardous waste greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month.
(2) The standards referred to in paragraph (1), including standards applicable to the legitimate use, reuse, recycling, and reclamation of such wastes, may vary from the standards applicable to hazardous waste generated by larger quantity generators, but such standards shall be sufficient to protect human health and the environment.
(3) Not later than two hundred and seventy days after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 any hazardous waste which is part of a total quantity generated by a generator generating greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during one calendar month and which is shipped off the premises on which such waste is generated shall be accompanied by a copy of the Environmental Protection Agency Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest form signed by the generator. This form shall contain the following information:
(A) the name and address of the generator of the waste;
(B) the United States Department of Transportation description of the waste, including the proper shipping name, hazard class, and identification number (UN/NA), if applicable;
(C) the number and type of containers;
(D) the quantity of waste being transported; and
(E) the name and address of the facility designated to receive the waste.
If subparagraph (B) is not applicable, in lieu of the description referred to in such subparagraph (B), the form shall contain the Environmental Protection Agency identification number, or a generic description of the waste, or a description of the waste by hazardous waste characteristic. Additional requirements related to the manifest form shall apply only if determined necessary by the Administrator to protect human health and the environment.
(4) The Administrator's responsibility under this subtitle to protect human health and the environment may require the promulgation of standards under this subtitle for hazardous wastes which are generated by any generator who does not generate more than one hundred kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month.
(5) Until the effective date of standards required to be promulgated under paragraph (1), any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 generated by any generator during any calendar month in a total quantity greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms, which is not treated, stored, or disposed of at a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility with a permit under section 3005, shall be disposed of only in a facility which is permitted, licensed, or registered by a State to manage municipal or industrial solid waste.
(6) Standards promulgated as provided in paragraph (1) shall, at a minimum, require that all treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous wastes generated by generators referred to in paragraph (1) shall occur at a facility with interim status or a permit under this subtitle, except that onsite storage of hazardous waste generated by a generator generating a total quantity of hazardous waste greater than one hundred kilograms, but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month, may occur without the requirement of a permit for up to one hundred and eighty days. Such onsite storage may occur without the requirement of a permit for not more than six thousand kilograms for up to two hundred and seventy days if such generator must ship or haul such waste over two hundred miles.
(7)(A) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the validity of regulations promulgated by the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act.
(B) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect, modify, or render invalid any requirements in regulations promulgated prior to January 1, 1983 applicable to any acutely hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 which is generated by any generator during any calendar month in a total quantity less than one thousand kilograms.
(B) Effective March 31, 1986, unless the Administrator promulgates standards as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection prior to such date, hazardous waste generated by any generator in a total quantity greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month shall be subject to the following requirements until the standards referred to in paragraph (1) of this subsection have become effective:
(A) the notice requirements of paragraph (3) of this subsection shall apply and in addition, the information provided in the form shall include the name of the waste transporters and the name and address of the facility designated to receive the waste;
(B) except in the case of the onsite storage referred to in paragraph (6) of this subsection, the treatment, storage, or disposal of such waste shall occur at a facility with interim status or a permit under this subtitle;
(C) generators of such waste shall file manifest exception reports as required of generators producing greater amounts of hazardous waste per month except that such reports shall be filed by January 31, for any waste shipment occurring in the last half of the preceding calendar year, and by July 31, for any waste shipment occurring in the first half of the calendar year; and
(D) generators of such waste shall retain for three years a copy of the manifest signed by the designated facility that has received the waste.
Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as a determination of the standards appropriate under paragraph (1).
(9) The last sentence of section 3010(b) shall not apply to regulations promulgated under this subsection.
[Editor's note: Sections 221(b) through
(f) of PL 98-616 provides the following concerning responsibilities of the EPA Administrator:
(b) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall undertake activities to inform and educate the waste generators of their responsibilities under the amendments made by this section during the period within thirty months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 to help assure compliance.
(c) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency in cooperation with the States shall conduct a study of hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act which is generated by individual generators in total quantities for each generator during any calendar month of less than one thousand kilograms. The Administrator may require from such generators information as may be necessary to conduct the study. Such study shall include a characterization of the number and type
*(j) There is authorized to be appropriated for purposes of section 221(b) of this Act $500,000 for each of the fiscal years 1985 through 1987.
Environment Reporter
16
of such generators, the quantity and characteristics of hazardous waste generated by such generators. State requirements applicable to such generators, the individual and industry waste management practices of such generators, the potential costs of modifying those practices and the impact of such modifications on national treatment and disposal facility capacity, and the threat to human health and the environment and the employees of transporters or others involved in solid waste management posed by such hazardous wastes are such management practices. Such study shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1985.
(4) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall cause to be studied the existing manifest system for hazardous wastes as it applies to small quantity generators and recommend whether the current system shall be retained or whether a new system should be introduced. The study shall include an analysis of the cost versus the benefits of the system studied as well as an analysis of the ease of retrieving and collating information and identifying a given substance. Finally, any new proposal shall include a list of those standards that are necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such study shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1987.
(a) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, in conjunction with the Secretary of Transportation, shall prepare and submit to the Congress a report on the feasibility of easing the administrative burden on small quantity generators, increasing compliance with statutory and regulatory requirements, and simplifying enforcement efforts through a program of licensing hazardous waste transporters to assume the responsibilities of small quantity generators relating to the preparation of manifests and associated recordkeeping and reporting requirements. The report shall examine the appropriate licensing requirements under such a program including the need for financial assurances by licensed transporters and shall make recommendations on provisions and requirements for such a program including the appropriate division of responsibilities between the Department of Transportation and the Environmental Protection Administration. Such report shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1987.
(b) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall, in consultation with the Secretary of Education, the States, and appropriate educational associations, conduct a comprehensive study of problems associated with the accumulation, storage and disposal of hazardous wastes from educational institutions. The study shall include an investigation of the feasibility and availability of environmentally sound methods for the treatment, storage or disposal of hazardous waste from such institutions, taking into account the types and quantities of such waste which are generated by these institutions, and the nonprofit nature of these institutions.
(2) The Administrator shall submit a report to the Congress containing the findings of the study carried out under paragraph (1) not later than April 1, 1987.
(3) For purposes of this subsection—
(A) the term "hazardous waste" means hazardous waste which is listed or identified under Section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act;
(B) the term "educational institution" includes, but shall not be limited to,
(i) secondary schools as defined in section 198(a)(7) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965; and
(ii) institutions of higher education as defined in section 198(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.
[3001(c) -
(i) added by PL 98-616]
"(e) SECTION WASTES.—(1) Not later than 6 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, where appropriate, list under subsection
(b) (1), additional wastes containing chlorinated dioxins or chlorinated dibenzofurans. Not later than one year after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, where appropriate, list under subsection
(b) (1) wastes containing remaining halogenated dioxins and halogenated dibenzofurans.
"(2) Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall make a determination of whether or not to list under subsection
(b) (1) the following wastes: Chlorinated Aliphatics, Dioxin, Dimethyl Hydrazine, TDI (toluene dioxins), Carbamates, Bromacil, Linuron, Organo-bromines, solvents, refining wastes, chlorinated aromatics, dyes and pigments, inorganic chemical industry wastes, lithium batteries, coke byproducts, paint production wastes, and coal slurry pipeline effluent.
"(f) DELIVING PROCEDURES.—(1) When evaluating a petition to exclude a waste generator at a particular facility from listing under this section, the Administrator shall consider factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed if the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that such additional factors could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste. The Administrator shall provide notice and opportunity for comment on these additional factors before granting or denying such petition.
"(2)(A) To the maximum extent practicable the Administrator shall publish in the Federal Register a proposal to grant or deny a petition referred to in paragraph (1) within twelve months after receiving a complete application to exclude a waste generated at a particular facility from being regulated as a hazardous waste and shall grant or deny such a petition within twenty-four months after receiving a complete application.
"(3) The temporary granting of such a petition prior to the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 without the opportunity for public comment and the full consideration of such comments shall not continue for more than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. If a final decision to grant or deny such a petition has not been promulgated after notice and opportunity for public comment within the time limit prescribed by the preceding sentence, any such temporary granting of such petition shall cease to be in effect.
"(g) EP Toxicity.—Not later than twenty-eight months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 the Administrator shall examine the deficiencies of the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic as a predictor of the leaching potential of wastes and make changes in the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic, including changes in the leaching media, as are necessary to ensure that it accurately predicts the leaching potential of wastes which pose a threat to human health and the environment when mismanaged.
"(h) ADDITIONAL CHARACTERISTICS.—Not later than two years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations under this section identifying additional characteristics of hazardous waste, including measures or indicators of toxicity.
"(i) CLARIFICATION OF HOUSEHOLD WASTE EXCLUSION.—A resource recovery facility recovering energy from the mass burning of municipal solid waste shall not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of regulation under this subtitle, if—
"(1) such facility—
(A) receives and burns only—
(i) household waste (from single and multiple dwellings, hotels, motels, and other residential sources), and
(ii) solid waste from commercial or industrial sources that does not contain hazardous waste identified or listed under this section, and
(B) does not accept hazardous wastes identified or listed under this section, and
(C) the owner or operator of such facility has established contractual requirements or other appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in such facility.
"Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste
"Sec. 3002.
(a) In General.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this section, and after notice and opportunity for public hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such standards, applicable to generators of
hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards shall establish requirements respecting-
[3002(a) designated by PL 98-616]
"(1) recordkeeping practices that accurately identify the quantities of such hazardous waste generated, the constituents thereof which are significant in quantity or in potential harm to human health or the environment, and the disposition of such wastes;
"(2) labeling practices for any containers used for the storage, transport, or disposal of such hazardous waste such as will identify accurately such waste;
"(3) use of appropriate containers for such hazardous waste;
"(4) furnishing of information on the general chemical composition of such hazardous waste to persons transporting, treating, storing, or disposing of such wastes;
"(5) use of a manifest system and any other reasonable means necessary to assure that all such hazardous waste generated is designated for treatment, storage, or disposal in, and arrives at treatment, storage, or disposal facilities (other than facilities on the premises where the waste is generated) for which a permit has been issued as provided in this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052); and
"(6) submission of reports to the Administrator for the State agency in any case in which such agency carries out a permit program pursuant to this subtitle) at least once every two years, setting out-
"(A) the quantities and nature of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle that he has generated during the year;
"(B) the disposition of all hazardous waste reported under subparagraph (A);
"(C) the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce the volume and toxicity of waste generated; and
"(D) the changes in volume and toxicity of waste actually achieved during the year in question in comparison with previous years, to the extent such information is available for years prior to enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
[3002(a)(6) revised by PL 98-616]
"(b) Waste Minimization.—Effective September 1, 1985, the manifest required by subsection
(a) (5) shall contain a certification by the generator that—
"(1) the generator of the hazardous waste has a program in place to reduce the volume or quantity and toxicity of such waste to the degree determined by the generator to be economically practicable, and
"(2) the proposed method of treatment, storage, or disposal is that practicable method currently available to the generator which minimizes the present and future threat to human health and the environment.
[3002(b) added by PL 98-616]
"Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste
"Sec. 3003.
(a) Standards.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and after opportunity for public hearings the Administrator, after consultation with the Secretary of Transportation and the States, shall promulgate regulations establishing such standards, applicable to transporters of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards shall include but need not be limited to requirements respecting—
"(1) recordkeeping concerning such hazardous waste transported, and their source and delivery points;
"(2) transportation of such waste only if properly labeled;
"(3) compliance with the manifest system referred to in section 3002(5); and
"(4) transportation of all such hazardous waste only to the hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities which the shipper designates on the manifest form to be a facility holding a permit issued under this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052).
"(b) Coordination With Regulations of Secretary of Transportation.—In case of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle which is subject to the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (88 Stat. 2156; 49 U.S.C. 1801 and following), the regulations promulgated by the Administrator under this section shall be consistent with the requirements of such Act and the regulations thereunder. The Administrator is authorized to make recommendations to the Secretary of Transportation respecting the regulations of such hazardous waste under the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act and for addition of materials to be covered by such Act.
"(c) Fuel From Hazardous Waste.—Not later than two years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and after opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing standards, applicable to transporters of fuel produced (1) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or (2) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards may include any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection
(a) as may be appropriate.
[3003(c) added by PL 98-616]
"Standards Applicable to Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities
"Sec. 3004.
(a) In General.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and
after opportunity for public hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such performance standards, applicable to owners and operators of facilities for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. In establishing such standards the Administrator shall, where appropriate, distinguish in such standards between requirements appropriate for new facilities and for facilities in existence on the date of promulgation of such regulations. Such standards shall include, but need not be limited to, requirements respecting—
[3004 amended by PL 96-482;
(a) designated by PL 98-616]
"(1) maintaining records of all hazardous wastes identified or listed under this title which is treated, stored, or disposed of, as the case may be, and the manner in which such wastes were treated, stored, or disposed of;
"(2) satisfactory reporting, monitoring, and inspection and compliance with the manifest system referred to in section 3002(5);
"(3) treatment, storage, or disposal of all such waste received by the facility pursuant to such operating methods, techniques, and practices as may be satisfactory to the Administrator;
"(4) the location, design, and construction of such hazardous waste treatment, disposal, or storage facilities;
"(5) contingency plans for effective action to minimize unanticipated damage from any treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste;
"(6) the maintenance of operation of such facilities and requiring such additional qualifications as to ownership, continuity of operation, training for personnel, and financial responsibility (including financial responsibility for corrective action) as may be necessary or desirable; and 1
[3004(a)(6) amended by PL 98-616]
"(7) compliance with the requirements of section 3005 respecting permits for treatment, storage, or disposal.
No private entity shall be precluded by reason of criteria established under paragraph (6) from the ownership or operation of facilities providing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal services where such entity can provide assurances of financial responsibility and continuity of operation consistent with the degree and duration of risks associated with the treatment, storage, or disposal of specified hazardous waste.
[3004(b) -
(x) added by PL 98-616]
"(b) SALY DOME FORMATIONS. SALT BED FORMATIONS, UNDERGROUND MINES AND CAVES.—(1) Effective on the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any noncontainerized or bulk liquid hazardous waste in any salt dome formation, salt bed formation, underground mine, or cave is prohibited until such time as—
"(A) the Administrator has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearings on the record in the affected areas, that such placement is protective of human health and the environment;
"(B) the Administrator has promulgated performance and permitting standards for such facilities under this subtitle, and;
"(C) a permit has been issued under section 3005(c) for the facility concerned.
"(2) Effective on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any hazardous waste other than a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (1) in a salt dome formation, salt bed formation, underground mine, or cave is prohibited until such time as a permit has been issued under section 3005(c) for the facility concerned.
"(3) No determination made by the Administrator under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of this section regarding any hazardous waste to which such subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) applies shall affect the prohibition contained in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection.
"(4) Nothing in this subsection shall apply to the Department of Energy Waste Isolation Pilot Project in New Mexico.
"(c) LIQUIDS IN LANDFILLE.—(1) Effective 6 months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste or free liquids contained in hazardous waste (whether or not absorbents have been added) in any landfill is prohibited. Prior to such date the requirements (as in effect on April 30, 1983) promulgated under this section by the Administrator regarding liquid hazardous waste shall remain in force and effect to the extent such requirements are applicable to the placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste, or free liquids contained in hazardous waste, in landfills.
"(2) Not later than fifteen months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate final regulations which—
"(A) minimize the disposal of containerized liquid hazardous waste in landfills, and
"(B) minimize the presence of free liquids in containerized hazardous waste to be disposed of in landfills.
Such regulations shall also prohibit the disposal in landfills of liquids that have been absorbed in materials that biodegrade or that release liquids when compressed as might occur during routine landfill operations. Prior to the date on which such final regulations take effect, the requirements (as in effect on April 30, 1983) promulgated under this section by the Administrator shall remain in force and effect to the extent such requirements are applicable to the disposal of containerized liquid hazardous waste, or free liquids contained in hazardous waste, in landfills.
"(3) Effective twelve months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any liquid which is not a hazardous waste in a landfill for which a permit is required under section 3005(c) or which is operating pursuant to interim status granted under section 3005(c) is prohibited unless the owner or operator of such landfill demonstrates to the Administrator, or the Administrator determines, that—
"(A) the only reasonably available alternative to the placement in such landfill is placement in a landfill or unlined surface impoundment, whether or not permitted under section 3005(c) or operating pursuant to interim status under section 3005(c), which contains, or may reasonably be anticipated to contain, hazardous waste; and
"(B) placement in such owner or operator's landfill will not present a risk of contamination of any underground source of drinking water.
As used in subparagraph (B), the term "underground source of drinking water" has the same meaning as provided in regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act (title XIV of the Public Health Service Act).
"(4) No determination made by the Administrator under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of this section regarding any hazardous waste to which such subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) applies shall affect the prohibition contained in paragraph (1) of this subsection.
"(d) PROHIBITIONS ON LAND DISPOSAL OF SPECIFIED WASTES.-(1) Effective 32 months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (except as provided in subsection
(f) with respect to underground injection into deep injection wells), the land disposal of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) is prohibited unless the Administrator determines the prohibition on one or more methods of land disposal of such waste is not required in order to protect human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account-
"(A) the long-term uncertainties associated with land disposal,
"(B) the goal of managing hazardous waste in an appropriate manner in the first instance, and
"(C) the persistence, toxicity, mobility, and propensity to bioaccumulate of such hazardous wastes and their hazardous constituents.
For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment for a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) (other than a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(m) ), unless, upon application by an interested person, it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous.
"(2) Paragraph (1) applies to the following hazardous wastes listed or identified under section 3001:
"(A) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid or sludge, containing free cyanides at concentrations greater than or equal to 1,000 mg/l.
"(B) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid or sludge, containing the following metals (or elements) or compounds of these metals (or elements) at concentrations greater than or equal to those specified below:
"(i) arsenic and/or compounds (as As) 500 mg/l;
"(ii) cadmium and/or compounds (as Cd) 100 mg/l;
"(iii) chromium (VI and/or compounds (as Cr VI)) 500 mg/l;
"(iv) lead and/or compounds (as Pb) 500 mg/l;
"(v) mercury and/or compounds (as Hg) 20 mg/l;
"(vi) nickel and/or compounds (as Ni) 134 mg/l;
"(vii) selenium and/or compounds (as Se) 100 mg/l; and
"(viii) thallium and/or compounds (as Th) 130 mg/l.
"(C) Liquid hazardous waste having a pH less than or equal to two (2.0).
"(D) Liquid hazardous wastes containing polychlorinated biphenyls at concentrations greater than or equal to 50 ppm.
"(E) Hazardous wastes containing halogenated organic compounds in total concentration greater than or equal to 1,000 mg/kg.
When necessary to protect human health and the environment, the Administrator shall substitute more stringent concentration levels than the levels specified in subparagraphs (A) through (E).
"(3) During the period ending forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, this subsection shall not apply to any disposal of contaminated soil or debris resulting from a response action taken under section 104 or 106 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 or a corrective action required under this subtitle.
"(e) SOLVENTS AND DISPOLS.-(1) Effective twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (except as provided in subsection
(f) with respect to underground injection into deep injection wells), the land disposal of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) is prohibited unless the Administrator determines the prohibition of one or more methods of land disposal of such waste is not required in order to protect human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraph (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment for a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) (other than a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(m) ), unless upon application by an interested person it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous.
"(2) The hazardous wastes to which the prohibition under paragraph (1) applies are as follows-
"(A) dioxin-containing hazardous wastes numbered F020, F021, F022, and F023 (as referred to in the proposed rule published by the Administrator in the Federal Register for April 4, 1983), and
"(B) those hazardous wastes numbered F001, F002, F003, F004, and F005 in regulations promulgated by the Administrator under section 3001 (40 C.F.R. 261.31 (July 1, 1983)), as those regulations are in effect on July 1, 1983.
"(3) During the period ending forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, this subsection shall not apply to any disposal of contaminated soil or debris resulting from a response action taken under section 104 or 106 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 or a corrective action required under this subtitle.
"(f) DISPOSAL INTO DEEP INJECTION WELLS; SPECIFIED SUBSECTION
(d) WASTES; SOLVENTS AND DISPOLS.-(1) Not later than forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall complete a review of the disposal of all hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) and in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) by underground injection into deep injection wells.
"(2) Within forty-five months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall make a determination regarding the disposal by underground injection into deep injection wells of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) and the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) . The Administrator shall promulgate final regulations prohibiting the disposal of such wastes into such wells if it may reasonably be determined that such disposal may not be protective of human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). In promulgating such regulations, the Administrator shall consider each hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) or in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) which is prohibited from disposal into such wells by any State.
"(3) If the Administrator fails to make a determination under paragraph (2) for any hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) or in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) within forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such hazardous waste shall be prohibited from disposal into any deep injection well.
"(4) As used in this subsection, the term 'deep injection well' means a well used for the underground injection of hazardous waste other than a well in which section 701(b)(1) applies.
"(g) ADDITIONAL LAND DISPOSAL PROHIBITION DETERMINATIONS.-(1) Not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall submit a schedule to Congress for-
"(A) reviewing all hazardous wastes listed (as of the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) under section 3001 other than those wastes which are referred to in subsection
(d) or
(e) ; and
"(B) taking action under paragraph (5) of this subsection with respect to each such hazardous waste. "(2) The Administrator shall base the schedule on a ranking of such listed wastes considering their intrinsic hazard and their volume such that decisions regarding the land disposal of high volume hazardous wastes with high intrinsic hazard shall, to the maximum extent possible, be made by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. Decisions regarding low volume hazardous wastes with lower intrinsic hazard shall be made by the date sixty-six months after such date of enactment. "(3) The preparation and submission of the schedule under this subsection shall not be subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980. No hearing on the record shall be required for purposes of preparation or submission of the schedule. The schedule shall not be subject to judicial review. "(4) The schedule under this subsection shall require that the Administrator shall promulgate regulations in accordance with paragraph (5) or make a determination under paragraph (5)- "(A) for at least one-third of all hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (1) by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; "(B) for at least two-thirds of all such listed wastes by the date fifty-five months after the date of enactment of such Amendments; and "(C) for all such listed wastes and for all hazardous wastes identified under 3001 by the date sixty-six months after the date of enactment of such Amendments. In the case of any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall determine whether such waste shall be prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal in accordance with paragraph (5) within six months after the date of such identification or listing. "(5) Not later than the date specified in the schedule published under this subsection, the Administrator shall promulgate final regulations prohibiting one or more methods of land disposal of the hazardous wastes listed on such schedule except for methods of land disposal which the Administrator determines will be protective of human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraph (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment (except with respect to a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(a) unless, upon application by an interested person, it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous. "(5)(A) If the Administrator fails (by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) to promulgate regulations or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste which is included in the first one-third of the schedule published under this subsection, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if- "(i) such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) which are applicable to new facilities (relating to minimum technological requirements); and "(ii) prior to such disposal, the generator has certified to the Administrator that such generator has investigated the availability of treatment capacity and has determined that the use of such landfill or surface impoundment is the only practical alternative to treatment currently available to the generator. The prohibition contained in this subparagraph shall continue to apply until the Administrator promulgates regulations or makes a determination under paragraph (5) for the waste concerned. "(B) If the Administrator fails (by the date 55 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) to promulgate regulations or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste which is included in the first two-thirds of the schedule published under this subsection, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if- "(i) such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) which are applicable to new facilities (relating to minimum technological requirements); and "(ii) prior to such disposal, the generator has certified to the Administrator that such generator has investigated the availability of treatment capacity and has determined that the use of such landfill or surface impoundment is the only practical alternative to treatment currently available to the generator. The prohibition contained in this subparagraph shall continue to apply until the Administrator promulgates regulations or makes a determination under paragraph (5) for the waste concerned. "(C) If the Administrator fails to promulgate regulations, or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (1) within 66 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such hazardous waste shall be prohibited from land disposal. "(b) Variances From Land Disposal Prohibitions.-(1) A prohibition in regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) shall be effective immediately upon promulgation. "(2) The Administrator may establish an effective date different from the effective date which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) with respect to a specific hazardous waste which is subject to a prohibition under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) or under regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) . Any such other effective date shall be established on the basis of the earliest date on which adequate alternative treatment, recovery, or disposal capacity which protects human health and the environment will be available. Any such other effective date shall in no event be later than 2 years after the effective date of the prohibition which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) . "(3) The Administrator, after notice and opportunity for comment and after consultation with appropriate State agencies in all affected States, may on a case-by-case basis grant an extension of the effective date which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) or under paragraph (2) for up to one year, where the applicant demonstrates that there is a binding contractual commitment to construct or otherwise provide such alternative capacity but due to circumstances beyond the control of such applicant such alternative capacity cannot reasonably be made available by such effective date. Such extension shall be renewable once for no more than one additional year. "(4) Whenever another effective date (hereinafter referred to as a "variance") is established under paragraph (2), or an extension is granted under paragraph (3), with respect to any hazardous waste, during the period for which such variance or extension is in effect, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) . "(i) Publication of Determination.-If the Administrator determines that a method of land disposal will be protective of human health and the environment, he shall promptly publish in the Federal Register notice of such determination, together with an explanation of the basis for such determination. "(j) Storage of Hazardous Waste Prohibited From Land Disposal.-In the case of any hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under this section (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under any provision of this section) the storage of such hazardous waste is prohibited unless such storage is solely for the purpose of the accumulation of such quantities of hazardous waste as are necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment or disposal. "(k) Definition of Land Disposal.-For the purposes of this section, the term 'land disposal', when used with respect to a specified hazardous waste, shall be deemed to include, but not be limited to, any placement of such hazardous waste in a landfill, surface impoundment, waste pile, injection well, land treatment facility, soil dome formation, salt bed formation, or underground mine or cave. "(l) Ban on Dust Suppression.-The use of waste or used oil or other material, which is contaminated or mixed with dioxin or any other hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 (other than a waste identified solely on the basis of ignitability), for dust suppression or road treatment is prohibited. "(m) Treatment Standards for Wastes Subject to Land Disposal Prohibition.-(1) Simultaneously with the promulgation of
regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) prohibiting one or more methods of land disposal of a particular hazardous waste, and as appropriate thereafter, the Administrator shall, after notice and an opportunity for hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, promulgate regulations specifying those levels or methods of treatment, if any, which substantially diminish the toxicity of the waste or substantially reduce the likelihood of migration of hazardous constituents from the waste so that short- terms and long-term threats to human health and the environment are minimized.
"(2) If such hazardous waste has been treated to the level or by a method specified in regulations promulgated under this subsection, such waste or residue thereof shall not be subject to any prohibition promulgated under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) and may be disposed of in a land disposal facility which meets the requirements of this subtitle. Any regulation promulgated under this subsection for a particular hazardous waste shall become effective on the same date as any applicable prohibition promulgated under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) .
"(a) ANE Emissions.-Not later than thirty months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate such regulations for the monitoring and control of air emissions at hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities, including but not limited to open tanks, surface impoundments, and landfills, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment.
"(c) MINIMUM TECHNOLOGICAL REQUIREMENTS.-(1) The regulations under subsection
(a) of this section shall be revised from time to time to take into account improvements in the technology of control and measurement. At a minimum, such regulations shall require, and a permit issued pursuant to section 3005(c) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 by the Administrator or a State shall require-
"(A) for each new landfill or surface impoundment, each new landfill or surface impoundment unit at an existing facility, each replacement of an existing landfill or surface impound- ment unit, and each lateral expansion of an existing landfill or surface impoundment unit, for which an application for a final determination regarding issuance of a permit under section 3005(c) is received after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984-
"(i) the installation of two or more liners and a leachate collection system above (in the case of a landfill) and between such liners; and
"(ii) ground water monitoring; and
"(B) for each incinerator which receives a permit under section 3005(c) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the attainment of the minimum destruction and removal efficiency required by regulations in effect on June 24, 1982.
The requirements of this paragraph shall apply with respect to all waste received after the issuance of the permit.
"(2) Paragraph (19A)(i) shall not apply if the owner or operator demonstrates to the Administrator, and the Administrator finds for such landfill or surface impoundment, that alternative design and operating practices, together with location characteristics, will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents into the ground water or surface water at least as effectively as such liners and leachate collection systems.
"(B) The double-liner requirement set forth in paragraph (19A)(i) may be waived by the Administrator for any monofill, if-
"(A) such monofill contains only hazardous wastes from foundry furnace emission controls or metal casting molding sand.
"(B) such wastes do not contain constituents which would render the wastes hazardous for reasons other than the Extrac- tion Procedure ("EP") toxicity characteristics set forth in regulations under this subtitle, and
"(C) such monofill meets the same requirements as are applicable in the case of a waiver under section 3005(j)(2) or (4).
"(4)(A) Not later than thirty months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate standards requiring that new landfill units, surface impoundment units, waste piles, underground tanks and land treatment units for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 shall be required to utilize approved leak detection systems.
"(B) For the purposes of subparagraph (A)-
"(i) the term 'approved leak detection system' means a system or technology which the Administrator determines to be capable of detecting leaks of hazardous constituents at the earliest practicable time; and
"(ii) the term 'new units' means units on which construction commences after the date of promulgation of regulations under this paragraph.
"(5)(A) The Administrator shall promulgate regulations or issue guidance documents implementing the requirements of paragraph (19A) within two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
"(B) Until the effective date of such regulations or guidance documents, the requirement for the installation of two or more liners may be satisfied by the installation of a top liner designed, operated, and constructed of materials to prevent the migration of any constituent into such liner during the period such facility remains in operation (including any post-closure monitoring period), and a lower liner designed, operated and constructed to prevent the migration of any constituent through such liner during such period. For the purpose of the preceding sentence, a lower liner shall be deemed to satisfy such requirement if it is constructed of at least a 3-foot thick layer of recompacted clay or other natural material with a permeability of no more than 1x10⁻¹ centimeter per second.
"(6) Any permit under section 3005 which is issued for a landfill located within the State of Alabama shall require the installation of two or more liners and a leachate collection system above and between such liners, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act.
"(7) In addition to the requirements set forth in this subsection, the regulations referred to in paragraph (1) shall specify criteria for the acceptable location of new and existing treatment, storage, or disposal facilities as necessary to protect human health and the environment. Within 18 months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall publish guidance criteria identifying areas of vulnerable hydro- geology.
GROUND WATER MONITORING
"(p) GROUND WATER MONITORING.-The standards under this section concerning ground water monitoring which are applicable to surface impoundments, waste piles, land treatment units, and land- fills shall apply to such a facility whether or not-
"(1) the facility is located above the seasonal high water table;
"(2) two liners and a leachate collection system have been installed at the facility; or
"(3) the owner or operator inspects the liner (or liners) which has been installed at the facility.
This subsection shall not be construed to affect other exemptions or waivers from such standards provided in regulations in effect on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 or as may be provided in revisions to those regulations, to the extent consistent with this subsection. The Administrator is authorized on a case-by-case basis to exempt from ground water monitoring requirements under this section (including subsection
(a) ) any engineered structure which the Administrator finds does not receive or contain liquid waste (nor waste containing free liquids), is designed and operated to exclude liquid from precipitation or other runoff, utilizes multiple leak detection systems within the outer layer of containment, and provides for continuing operation and maintenance of these leak detection systems during the operating period, closure, and the period required for post-closure monitoring and for which the Administrator concludes on the basis of such
findings that there is a reasonable certainty hazardous constituents will not migrate beyond the outer layer of containment prior to the end of the period required for post-closure monitoring.
(q) HAZARDOUS WASTE USED AS FUEL.-(1) Not later than two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and after notice and opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such—
(A) standards applicable to the owners and operators of facilities which produce a fuel—
(i) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or
(ii) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material;
(B) standards applicable to the owners and operators of facilities which burn, for purposes of energy recovery, any fuel produced as provided in subparagraph (A) or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001; and
**(C) standards applicable to any person who distributes or markets any fuel which is produced as provided in subparagraph (A) or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards may include any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection
(a) as may be appropriate. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the provisions of section 3001(b)(3). For purposes of this subsection, the term 'hazardous waste listed under section 3001' includes any commercial chemical product which is listed under section 3001 and which, in lieu of its original intended use, is
(i) produced for use as a component of a fuel, (ii) distributed for use as a fuel, or (iii) burned as a fuel.**
**(2)(A) This subsection, subsection
(r) , and subsection
(s) shall not apply to petroleum refinery wastes containing oil which are converted into petroleum coke at the same facility at which such wastes were generated, unless the resulting coke product would exceed one or more characteristics by which a substance would be identified as a hazardous waste under section 3001.**
**(B) The Administrator may exempt from the requirements of this subsection, subsection
(r) , or subsection
(s) facilities which burn de minimis quantities of hazardous waste as fuel, as defined by the Administrator, if the wastes are burned at the same facility at which such wastes are generated; the waste is burned to recover useful energy, as determined by the Administrator on the basis of the design and operating characteristics of the facility and the heating value and other characteristics of the waste; and the waste is burned in a type of device determined by the Administrator to be designed and operated at a destruction and removal efficiency sufficient such that protection of human health and environment is assured.**
(C)(i) After the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 and until standards are promulgated and in effect under paragraph (2) of this subsection, no fuel which contains any hazardous waste may be burned in any cement kiln which is located within the boundaries of any incorporated municipality with a population greater than five hundred thousand (based on the most recent census statistics) unless such kiln fully complies with regulations to be in effect on the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) under this subtitle which are applicable to incinerators.
**(ii) Any person who knowingly violates the prohibition contained in clause
(i) shall be deemed to have violated section 3009(d)(2).**
**(c) LABELING.-(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, until such time as the Administrator promulgates standards under subsection
(q) specifically superseding this requirement, it shall be unlawful for any person who is required to file a notification in accordance with paragraph (1) or (3) of section 3010 to distribute or market any fuel which is produced from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 if the invoice or the bill of sale fails—**
(A) to bear the following statement: 'WARNING: THIS FUEL CONTAINS HAZARDOUS WASTES', and
(B) to list the hazardous wastes contained therein. Beginning ninety days after the enactment of the Hazardous and
Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such statement shall be located in a conspicuous place on every such invoice or bill of sale and shall appear in conspicuous and legible type in contrast by typography, layouts, or color with other printed matter on the invoice or bill of sale.
(2) Unless the Administrator determines otherwise as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, this subsection shall not apply to fuels produced from petroleum refining waste containing oil if—
(A) such materials are generated and reinserted onsite into the refining process;
(B) contaminants are removed; and
(C) such refining waste containing oil is converted along with normal process streams into petroleum-derived fuel products at a facility at which crude oil is refined into petroleum products and which is classified as a number SIC 2917 facility under the Office of Management and Budget Standard Industrial Classification Manual.
(3) Unless the Administrator determines otherwise as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, this subsection shall not apply to fuels produced from oil materials, resulting from normal petroleum refining, production and transportation practices, if (A) contaminants are removed; and (B) such oil materials are converted along with normal process streams into petroleum-derived fuel products at a facility at which crude oil is refined into petroleum products and which is classified as a number SIC 2917 facility under the Office of Management and Budget Standard Classification Manual.
(b) RECOMMENDING.-Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations requiring that any person who is required to file a notification in accordance with subparagraph (1), (2), or (3), of section 3010(a) shall maintain such records regarding fuel blending, distribution, or use as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment.
**(1) FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY PROVISIONS.-(1) Financial responsibility required by subsection
(a) of this section may be established in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator by any one, or any combination, of the following: insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. In promulgating requirements under this section, the Administrator is authorized to specify policy or other contractual terms, conditions, or defenses which are necessary or are unacceptable in establishing such evidence of financial responsibility in order to effectuate the purposes of this Act.**
(2) In any case where the owner or operator is in bankruptcy, reorganization, or arrangement pursuant to the Federal Bankruptcy Code or where (with reasonable diligence) jurisdiction in any State court or any Federal Court cannot be obtained over an owner or operator likely to be solvent at the time of judgment, any claim arising from conduct for which evidence of financial responsibility must be provided under this section may be asserted directly against the guarantor providing such evidence of financial responsibility. In the case of any action pursuant to this subsection, such guarantor shall be entitled to invoke all rights and defenses which would have been available to the owner or operator if any action had been brought against the owner or operator by the claimant and which would have been available to the guarantor if an action had been brought against the guarantor by the owner or operator.
(3) The total liability of any guarantor shall be limited to the aggregate amount which the guarantor has provided as evidence of financial responsibility to the owner or operator under this Act. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit any other State or Federal statutory, contractual or common law liability of a guarantor to its owner or operator including, but not limited to, the liability of such guarantor for bad faith either in negotiating or in failing to negotiate the settlement of any claim. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to diminish the liability of any person under section 107 or 111 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1950 or other applicable law.
(4) For the purpose of this subsection, the term 'guarantor' means any person, other than the owner or operator, who provides evidence of financial responsibility for an owner or operator under this section.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
"(u) Continuing Releases at Permitted Facilities-Standards promulgated under this section shall require, and a permit issued after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 by the Administrator or a State shall require, corrective action for all releases of hazardous waste or constituents from any solid waste management unit at a treatment, storage, or disposal facility seeking a permit under this subtitle, regardless of the time at which waste was placed in such unit. Permits issued under section 3005 shall contain schedules of compliance for such corrective action (where such corrective action cannot be completed prior to issuance of the permit) and assurances of financial responsibility for completing such corrective action. "(v) Corrective Actions Beyond Facility Boundary-As promptly as practicable after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall amend the standards under this section regarding corrective action required at facilities for the treatment, storage, or disposal, of hazardous waste listed or identified under section 3001 to require that corrective action be taken beyond the facility boundary where necessary to protect human health and the environment unless the owner or operator of the facility concerned demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Administrator that, despite the owner or operator's best efforts, the owner or operator was unable to obtain the necessary permission to undertake such action. Such regulations shall take effect immediately upon promulgation, notwithstanding section 3010(h), and shall apply to- "(1) all facilities operating under permits issued under subsection
(c) , and "(2) all landfills, surface impoundments, and waste pile units (including any new units, replacements of existing units, or lateral expansions of existing units) which receive hazardous waste after July 26, 1982. Funding promulgation of such regulations, the Administrator shall issue corrective action orders for facilities referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2), on a case-by-case basis, consistent with the purposes of this subsection. "(w) Unperground Tanks.-Not later than March 1, 1985, the Administrator shall promulgate final permitting standards under this section for underground tanks that cannot be entered for inspection. Within forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such standards shall be modified, if necessary, to cover at a minimum all requirements and standards described in section 9003. "(x) If (1) solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation or processing of ores and minerals, including phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium, (2) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels, or (3) cement kiln dust waste, is subject to regulation under this subtitle, the Administrator is authorized to modify the requirements of subsections
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) ,
(g) ,
(o) , and
(u) and section 3005(j), in the case of landfills or surface impoundments receiving such solid waste, to take into account the special characteristics of such wastes, the practical difficulties associated with implementation of such requirements, and site-specific characteristics, including but not limited to the climate, geology, hydrology and soil chemistry of the site, so long as such modified requirements assure protection of human health and the environment. "Permits for Treatment, Storage, or Disposal of Hazardous Waste "Sec. 3005.
(a) Permit Requirements.-Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this section, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations requiring each person owning or operating an existing facility or planning to construct a new facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle to have a permit issued pursuant to this section. Such regulations shall take effect on the date provided in section 3010 and upon and after such date the treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste and the construction of any new facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste is prohibited except in accordance with such a permit. No permit shall be required under this section in order to construct a facility if such facility is constructed pursuant to an approval issued by the Administrator under section 6(e) of the Toxic Substances Control Act for the incineration of polycholorinated biphenyls and any person owning or operating such a facility may, at any time after operation or construction of such facility has begun, file an application for a permit pursuant to this section authorizing such facility to incinerate hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle. [3005(a) amended by PL 98-616] "(b) Requirements of Permit Application.-Each application for a permit under this section shall contain such information as may be required under regulations promulgated by the Administrator, including information respecting- "(1) estimates with respect to the composition, quantities, and concentrations of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, or combinations of any such hazardous waste and any other solid waste, proposed to be disposed of, treated, transported, or stored, and the time, frequency, or rate of which such waste is proposed to be disposed of, treated, transported, or stored; and "(2) the site at which such hazardous waste or the products of treatment of such hazardous waste will be disposed of, treated, transported to, or stored. "(c) Permit Issuance.-(1) Upon a determination by the Administrator (or a State, if applicable), of compliance by a facility for which a permit is applied for under this section with the requirements of this section and section 3004, the Administrator (or the State) shall issue a permit for such facilities. In the event permit applicants propose modification of their facilities, or in the event the Administrator (or the State) determines that modifications are necessary to conform to the requirements under this section and section 3004, the permit shall specify the time allowed to complete the modifications. [3005(c)(1) designated by PL 98-616] "(2)(A)(i) Not later than the date four years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application under this subsection for a permit for a land disposal facility which was submitted before such date, the Administrator shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application. "(ii) Not later than the date five years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application for a permit under this subsection for an incinerator facility which was submitted before such date, the Administrator
shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application.
(B) Not later than the date eight years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application for a permit under this subsection for any facility other than a facility referred to in subparagraph (A) which was submitted before such date, the Administrator shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application.
(C) The time periods specified in this paragraph shall also apply in the case of any State which is administering an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006. Interim status under subsection
(a) shall terminate for each facility referred to in subparagraph (A)(ii) or (B) on the expiration of the five- or eight-year period referred to in subparagraph (A) or (B), whichever is applicable, unless the owner or operator of the facility applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under this subsection within—
(i) two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (in the case of a facility referred to in subparagraph (A)(ii), or
(ii) four years after such date of enactment (in the case of a facility referred to in subparagraph (B)).
[3005(c)(2) added by PL 98-616].
(3) Any permit under this section shall be for a fixed term, not to exceed 10 years in the case of any land disposal facility, storage facility, or incinerator or other treatment facility. Each permit for a land disposal facility shall be reviewed five years after date of issuance or reinsurance and shall be modified as necessary to assure that the facility continues to comply with the currently applicable requirements of this section and section 3004. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Administrator from reviewing and modifying a permit at any time during its term. Review of any application for a permit renewal shall consider improvements in the state of control and measurement technology as well as changes in applicable regulations. Each permit issued under this section shall contain such terms and conditions as the Administrator (or the State) determines necessary to protect human health and the environment.
[3005(c)(3) added by PL 98-616]
(d) Permit Revocation.—Upon a determination by the Administrator (or by a State, in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006) of noncompliance by a facility having a permit under this title with the requirements of this section or section 3004, the Administrator (or State, in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006) shall revoke such permit.
(e) Interim Status.—(1) Any person who—
[3005(e)(1) designated by PL 98-616]
(A) owns or operates a facility required to have a permit under this section which facility—
(i) was in existence on November 19, 1980, or
(ii) is in existence on the effective date of statutory or regulatory changes under this Act that render the facility subject to the requirement to have a permit under this section.
[Former 3005(e)(1) amended and redesignated as (A) by PL 98-616]
(B) has complied with the requirements of section 3010(a), and
[Former 3005(e)(2) redesignated as (B) by PL 98-616]
(C) has made an application for a permit under this section shall be treated as having been issued such permit until such time as final administrative disposition of such application is made, unless the Administrator or other plaintiff proves that final administrative disposition of such application has not been made because of the failure of the applicant to furnish information reasonably required or requested in order to process the application.
[Former 3005(e)(3) amended and redesignated as (C) by PL 98-616]
This paragraph shall not apply to any facility which has been previously denied a permit under this section or if authority to operate the facility under this section has been previously terminated.
(2) In the case of each land disposal facility which has been granted interim status under this subsection before the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, interim status shall terminate on the date twelve months after the date of the enactment of such Amendments unless the owner or operator of such facility—
(A) applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) for such facility before the date twelve months after the date of the enactment of such Amendments; and
(B) certifies that such facility is in compliance with all applicable groundwater monitoring and financial responsibility requirements.
[New 3005(e)(2) added by PL 98-616]
(3) In the case of each land disposal facility which is in existence on the effective date of statutory or regulatory changes under this Act that render the facility subject to the requirement to have a permit under this section and which is granted interim status under this subsection, interim status shall terminate on the date twelve months after the date on which the facility first becomes subject to such permit requirement unless the owner or operator of such facility—
(A) applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) for such facility before the date twelve months after the date on which the facility first becomes subject to such permit requirement; and
(B) certifies that such facility is in compliance with all applicable groundwater monitoring and financial responsibility requirements.
[New 3005(e)(3) added by PL 98-616]
(f) Coal Mining Wastes and Reclamation Permits.—Notwithstanding subsection
(a) through
(e) of this section, any surface coal mining and reclamation permit covering any coal mining wastes or overburden which has been issued or approved under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 shall be deemed to be a permit issued pursuant to this section with respect to the treatment, storage, or disposal of such wastes or overburden. Regulations promulgated by the Administrator under this subtitle shall not be applicable to treatment, storage, or disposal of coal mining wastes and overburden which are covered by such a permit.
[3005(f) added by PL 96-482]
(g) RESEARCH, DEVELOPMENT, AND DEMONSTRATION PERMITS.—(1)
The Administrator may issue a research, development, and demonstration permit for any hazardous waste treatment facility which proposes to utilize an innovative and experimental hazardous waste treatment technology or process for which permit standards for such experimental activity have not been promulgated under this subtitle. Any such permit shall include such terms and conditions as will assure protection of human health and the environment. Such permits—
(A) shall provide for the construction of such facilities, as necessary, and for operation of the facility for not longer than one year (unless renewed as provided in paragraph (4)), and
(B) shall provide for the receipt and treatment by the facility of only those types and quantities of hazardous waste which the Administrator deems necessary for purposes of determining the efficacy and performance capabilities of the technology or process and the effects of such technology or process on human health and the environment, and
(C) shall include such requirements as the Administrator deems necessary to protect human health and the environment (including, but not limited to, requirements regarding monitoring, operation, insurance or bonding, financial responsibility, closure, and remedial action), and such requirements as the Administrator deems necessary regarding testing and providing of information to the Administrator with respect to the operation of the facility.
The Administrator may apply the criteria set forth in this paragraph in establishing the conditions of each permit without separate establishment of regulations implementing such criteria.
(2) For the purpose of expediting review and issuance of permits under this subsection, the Administrator may, consistent with the protection of human health and the environment, modify or waive permit application and permit issuance requirements established in the Administrator's general permit regulations except that there may be no modification or waiver of regulations regarding financial responsibility (including insurance) or of procedures established under section 7004(b)(2) regarding public participation.
(3) The Administrator may order an immediate termination of all operations at the facility at any time he determines that termination is necessary to protect human health and the environment.
(4) Any permit issued under this subsection may be renewed not more than three times. Each such renewal shall be for a period of not more than 1 year.
(h) WASTE MINIMIZATION.—Effective September 1, 1985, it shall be a condition of any permit issued under this section for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste on the premises where such waste was generated that the permittee certify, no less often than annually, that—
(1) the generator of the hazardous waste has a program in place to reduce the volume or quantity and toxicity of such waste to the degree determined by the generator to be economically practicable; and
(2) the proposed method of treatment, storage, or disposal is that practicable method currently available to the generator which minimizes the present and future threat to human health and the environment.
(i) INTERIM STATUS FACILITIES RECEIVING WASTES AFTER JULY 26, 1982.—The standards concerning ground water monitoring, unsaturated zone monitoring, and corrective action, which are applicable under section 3004 to new landfills, surface impoundments, land treatment units, and waste-pile units required to be permitted under subsection
(c) shall also apply to any landfill, surface impoundment, land treatment unit, or waste-pile unit qualifying for the authorization to operate under subsection
(a) which receives hazardous waste after July 26, 1982.
(a) of this section shall not receive, store, or treat hazardous waste after the date four years after such date of enactment unless such surface impoundment is in compliance with the requirements of section 3004(o)(1)(A) which would apply to such impoundment if it were new.
(2) Paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to any surface impoundment which (A) has at least one liner, for which there is no evidence that such liner is leaking; (B) is located more than one-quarter mile from an underground source of drinking water; and (C) is in compliance with generally applicable ground water monitoring requirements for facilities with permits under subsection
(c) of this section.
(3) Paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to any surface impoundment which (A) contains treated waste water during the secondary or subsequent phases of an aggressive biological treatment facility subject to a permit issued under section 402 of the Clean Water Act (or which holds such treated waste water after treatment and prior to discharge); (B) is in compliance with generally applicable ground water monitoring requirements for facilities with permits under subsection
(c) of this section; and (C)(i) is part of a facility in compliance with section 301(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, or (ii) in the case of a facility for which no effluent guidelines required under section 304(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act are in effect and no permit under section 402(a)(1) of such Act implementing section 301(b)(2) of such Act has been issued, is part of a facility in compliance with a permit under section 402 of such Act, which is achieving significant degradation of toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents contained in the untreated waste stream and which has identified those toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents in the untreated waste stream to the appropriate permitting authority.
(4) The Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program), after notice and opportunity for comment, may modify the requirements of paragraph (1) for any surface impoundment if the owner or operator demonstrates that such surface impoundment is located, designed and operated so as to assure that there will be no migration of any hazardous constituent into ground water or surface water at any future time. The Administrator or the State shall take into account locational criteria established under section 3004(o)(7).
(5) The owner or operator of any surface impoundment potentially subject to paragraph (1) who has reason to believe that on the basis of paragraph (2), (3), or (4) such surface impoundment is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraph (1), shall apply to the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 for a determination of the applicability of paragraph (1) (in the case of paragraph (2) or (3)) or for a modification of the requirements of paragraph (1) (in the case of paragraph (4)), with respect to such surface impoundment. Such owner or operator shall provide, with such application, evidence pertinent to such decision, including:
(A) an application for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) of this section for such facility, if not previously submitted;
(B) evidence as to compliance with all applicable ground water monitoring requirements and the information and analysis from such monitoring;
(C) all reasonably ascertainable evidence as to whether such surface impoundment is leaking; and
"(D) in the case of applications under paragraph (2) or (3), a certification by a registered professional engineer with academic training and experience in ground water hydrology that—
"(i) under paragraph (2), the liner of such surface impoundment is designed, constructed, and operated in accordance with applicable requirements, such surface impoundment is more than one-quarter mile from an underground source of drinking water and there is no evidence such liner is leaking; or
"(ii) under paragraph (3), based on analysis of those toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents that are likely to be present in the untreated waste stream, such impoundment satisfies the conditions of paragraph (3).
In the case of any surface impoundment for which the owner or operator fails to apply under this paragraph within the time provided by this paragraph or paragraph (6), such surface impoundment shall comply with paragraph (1) notwithstanding paragraph (2), (3), or (4). Within twelve months after receipt of such application and evidence and not later than thirty-six months after such date of enactment, and after notice and opportunity to comment, the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) shall advise such owner or operator on the applicability of paragraph (1) to such surface impoundment or as to whether and how the requirements of paragraph (1) shall be modified and applied to such surface impoundment.
"(6)(A) In any case in which a surface impoundment becomes subject to paragraph (1) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 due to the promulgation of additional listings or characteristics for the identification of hazardous waste under section 3001, the period for compliance in paragraph (1) shall be four years after the date of such promulgation, the period for demonstrations under paragraph (4) and for submission of evidence under paragraph (5) shall be not later than twenty-four months after the date of such promulgation, and the period for the Administrator (or if appropriate, the State) to advise such owners or operators under paragraph (5) shall be not later than thirty-six months after the date of promulgation.
"(B) In any case in which a surface impoundment is initially determined to be excluded from the requirements of paragraph (1) but due to a change in condition (including the existence of a leak) no longer satisfies the provisions of paragraph (2), (3), or (4) and therefore becomes subject to paragraph (1), the period for compliance in paragraph (1) shall be two years after the date of discovery of such change of condition, or in the case of a surface impoundment excluded under paragraph (3) three years after such date of discovery.
"(7)(A) The Administrator shall study and report to the Congress on the number, range of size, construction, likelihood of hazardous constituents migrating into ground water, and potential threat to human health and the environment of existing surface impoundments excluded by paragraph (3) from the requirements of paragraph (1). Such report shall address the need, feasibility, and estimated costs of subjecting such existing surface impoundments to the requirements of paragraph (1).
"(B) In the case of any existing surface impoundment or class of surface impoundments from which the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) determines hazardous constituents are likely to migrate into ground water, the Administrator (or if appropriate, the State) is authorized to impose such requirements as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, including the requirements of section 3004(c) which would apply to such impoundments if they were new.
"(C) In the case of any surface impoundment excluded by paragraph (3) from the requirements of paragraph (1) which is subsequently determined to be leaking, the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) shall require compliance with paragraph (1), unless the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) determines that such compliance is not necessary to protect human health and the environment.
"(8) In the case of any surface impoundment in which the liners and leak detection system have been installed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (1) and in good faith compliance with section 3004(c) and the Administrator's regulations and guidance documents governing liners and leak detection systems, no liner or leak detection system which is different from that which was so installed pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be required for such unit by the Administrator when issuing the first permit under this section to such facility. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude the Administrator from requiring installation of a new liner when the Administrator has reason to believe that any liner installed pursuant to the requirements of this subsection is leaking.
"(9) In the case of any surface impoundment which has been excluded by paragraph (2) on the basis of a liner meeting the definition under paragraph (12)(A)(ii), at the closure of such impoundment the Administrator shall require the owner or operator of such impoundment to remove or decontaminate all waste residues, all contaminated liner material, and contaminated soil to the extent practicable. If all contaminated soil is not removed or decontaminated, the owner or operator of such impoundment shall be required to comply with appropriate post-closure requirements, including but not limited to ground water monitoring and corrective action.
"(10) Any incremental cost attributable to the requirements of this subsection or section 3004(c) shall not be considered by the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program under section 402 of the Clean Water Act)—
"(A) in establishing effluent limitations and standards under section 301, 304, 306, 307, or 402 of the Clean Water Act based on effluent limitations guidelines and standards promulgated any time before twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; or
"(B) in establishing any other effluent limitations to carry out the provisions of section 301, 307, or 402 of the Clean Water Act on or before October 1, 1986.
"(11)(A) If the Administrator allows a hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of section 3004 (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under such subsection) to be placed in a surface impoundment (which is operating pursuant to interim status) for storage or treatment, such impoundment shall meet the requirements that are applicable to new surface impoundments under section 3004(c)(1), unless such impoundment meets the requirements of paragraph (2) or (4).
"(B) In the case of any hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of section 3004 (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under such subsection) the placement or maintenance of such hazardous waste in a surface impoundment for treatment is prohibited as of the effective date of such prohibition unless the treatment residues which are hazardous are, at a minimum, removed for subsequent management within one year of the entry of the waste into the surface impoundment.
"(12)(A) For the purposes of paragraph (2)(A) of this subsection, the term 'liner' means—
"(i) a liner designed, constructed, installed, and operated to prevent hazardous waste from passing into the liner at any time during the active life of the facility; or
"(ii) a liner designed, constructed, installed, and operated to prevent hazardous waste from migrating beyond the liner to adjacent subsurface soil, ground water, or surface water at any time during the active life of the facility.
"(B) For the purposes of this subsection, the term 'aggressive biological treatment facility' means a system of surface impoundments in which the initial impoundment of the secondary treatment segment of the facility utilizes intense mechanical aeration to enhance biological activity to degrade waste water pollutants and
"(i) the hydraulic retention time in such initial impoundment is no longer than 6 days under normal operating conditions, on an annual average basis;
"(ii) the hydraulic retention time in such initial impoundment is no longer than thirty days under normal operating conditions, on an annual average basis: Provided, That the sludge in such impoundment does not constitute a hazardous waste as identified by the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic in effect on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; or
"(iii) such system utilizes activated sludge treatment in the first portion of secondary treatment.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
27
"10) For the purposes of this subsection, the term 'underground source or drinking water' has the same meaning as provided in regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act (title XIV of the Public Health Service Act). "(18) The Administrator may modify the requirements of paragraph (1) in the case of a surface impoundment for which the owner or operator, prior to October 1, 1984, has entered into, and is in compliance with, a consent order, decree, or agreement with the Administrator or a State with an authorized program mandating corrective action with respect to such surface impoundment that provides a degree of protection of human health and the environment which is at a minimum equivalent to that provided by paragraph (1).
"Sec. 3006.
(a) Federal Guidelines.-Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this Act, the Administrator, after consultation with State authorities, shall promulgate guidelines to assist States in the development of State hazardous waste programs. "(b) Authorization of State Program.-Any State which seeks to administer and enforce a hazardous waste program pursuant to this subtitle may develop and, after notice and opportunity for public hearing, submit to the Administrator an application, in such form as he shall require, for authorization of such program. Within ninety days following submission of an application under this subsection, the Administrator shall issue a notice as to whether or not he expects such program to be authorized, and within ninety days following such notice (and after opportunity for public hearing) he shall publish his findings as to whether or not the conditions listed in items (1), (2), and (3) below have been met. Such State is authorized to carry out such program in lieu of the Federal program under this subtitle in such State and to issue and enforce permits for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste (and to enforce permits deemed to have been issued under section 3012(d)(1)) unless, within ninety days following submission of the application the Administrator notifies such State that such program may not be authorized and, within ninety days following such notice and after opportunity for public hearing, he finds that (1) such State program is not equivalent to the Federal program under this subtitle, (2) such program is not consistent with the Federal or State programs applicable in other States, or (3) such program does not provide adequate enforcement of compliance with the requirements of this subtitle. In authorizing a State program, the Administrator may base his findings on the Federal program in effect one year prior to submission of a State's application or in effect on January 26, 1983, whichever is later. [3006(b) amended by PL 98-616] "(c) Interim Authorization.- (1) Any State which has in existence a hazardous waste program pursuant to State law before the date ninety days after the date of promulgation of regulations under sections 3002, 3003, 3004, and 3005, may submit to the Administrator evidence of such existing program and may request a temporary authorization to carry out such program under this subtitle. The Administrator shall, if the evidence submitted shows the existing State program to be substantially equivalent to the Federal program under this subtitle, grant an interim authorization to the State to carry out such program in lieu of the Federal program pursuant to this subtitle for a period ending no later than January 31, 1986. [3006(c)(1) designated and amended by PL 98-616] [3006(c)(2)-(4) added by PL 98-616] "(2) The Administrator shall, by rule, establish a date for the expiration of interim authorization under this subsection. "(3) Pending interim or final authorization of a State program for any State which reflects the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the State may enter into an agreement with the Administrator under which the State may assist in the administration of the requirements and prohibitions which take effect pursuant to such Amendments. "(4) In the case of a State permit program for any State which is authorized under subsection
(b) or under this subsection, until such program is amended to reflect the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 and such program amendments receive interim or final authorization, the Administrator shall have the authority in such State to issue or deny permits or those portions of permits affected by the requirements and prohibitions established by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. The Administrator shall coordinate with States the procedures for issuing such permits. "(d) Effect of State Permit.-Any action taken by a State under a hazardous waste program authorized under this section shall have the same force and effect as action taken by the Administrator under this subtitle. "(e) Withdrawal of Authorization.-Whenever the Administrator determines after public hearing that a State is not administering and enforcing a program authorized under this section in accordance with requirements of this section, he shall so notify the State and, if appropriate corrective action is not taken within a reasonable time, not to exceed ninety days, the Administrator shall withdraw authorization of such program and establish a Federal program pursuant to this subtitle. The Administrator shall not withdraw authorization of any such program unless he shall first have notified the State; and made public, in writing, the reasons for such withdrawal.
[3006(f) added by PL 98-616]
(f) AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION.—No State program may be authorized by the Administrator under this section unless—
(1) such program provides for the public availability of information obtained by the State regarding facilities and sites for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste; and
(2) such information is available to the public in substantially the same manner, and to the same degree, as would be the case if the Administrator was carrying out the provisions of this subtitle in such State.
[Editor's note: Section 226(b) of PL 98-616 provides:
**(b) The amendment made by subsection
(a) shall apply with respect to State programs authorized under section 3006 before, on, or after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.**
(a) added 3006(f) of RCRA.]
(g) AMENDMENTS MADE BY 1984 ACT.—(1) Any requirement or prohibition which is applicable to the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste and which is imposed under this subtitle pursuant to the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 shall take effect in each State having an interim or finally authorized State program on the same date as such requirement takes effect in other States. The Administrator shall carry out such requirement directly in each such State unless the State program is finally authorized for its granted interim authorization as provided in paragraph (2) with respect to such requirement.
(2) Any State which, before the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 has an existing hazardous waste program which has been granted interim or final authorization under this section may submit to the Administrator evidence that such existing program contains or has been amended to include any requirement which is substantially equivalent to a requirement referred to in paragraph (1) and may request interim authorization to carry out that requirement under this subtitle. The Administrator shall, if the evidence submitted shows the State requirement to be substantially equivalent to the requirement referred to in paragraph (1), grant an interim authorization to the State to carry out such requirement in lieu of direct administration in the State by the Administrator of such requirement.
[3006(g) added by PL 98-616]
Sec. 3007.
(a) Access Entry.—For purposes of developing or assisting in the development of any regulation or enforcing the provisions of this title, any person who generates, stores, treats, transports, disposes of, or otherwise handles or has handled hazardous wastes shall, upon request of any officer, employee or representative of the Environmental Protection Agency, duly designated by the Administrator, or upon request of any duly designated officer, employee or representative of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program, furnish information relating to such wastes and permit such person at all reasonable times to have access to, and to copy all records relating to such wastes. For the purposes of developing or assisting in the development of any regulation or enforcing the provisions of this title, such officers, employees or representatives are authorized—
(1) to enter at reasonable times any establishment or other place where hazardous wastes are or have been generated, stored, treated, disposed of, or transported from;
(2) to inspect and obtain samples from any person of any such wastes and samples of any containers or labeling for such wastes.
Each such inspection shall be commenced and completed with reasonable promptness. If the officer, employee or representative obtains any samples, prior to leaving the premises, he shall give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the sample obtained and if requested a portion of each such sample equal in volume or weight to the portion retained. If any analysis is made of such samples, a copy of the results of such analysis shall be furnished promptly to the owner, operator, or agent in charge.
[3007(a) amended by PL 96-482]
(b) Availability to Public.—(1) Any records, reports, or information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) obtained from any person under this section shall be available to the public, except that upon a showing satisfactory to the Administrator (or the State, as the case may be) by any person that records, reports, or information, (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) or particular part thereof, to which the Administrator (or the State, as the case may be) or any officer, employee or representative thereof has access under this section if made public, would divulge information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) entitled to protection under section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code, such information or particular portion thereof shall be considered confidential in accordance with the purposes of that section, except that such record, report, document, or information may be disclosed to other officers, employees, or authorized representatives of the United States concerned with carrying out this Act, or when relevant in any proceeding under this Act.
(2) Any person not subject to the provisions of section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code who knowingly and willfully divulges or discloses any information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) entitled to protection under this subsection shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 or to imprisonment not to exceed one year, or both.
(3) In submitting data under this Act, a person required to provide such data may—
"(A) designate the data which such person believes is entitled to protection under this subsection, and "(B) submit such designated data separately from other data submitted under this Act. A designation under this paragraph shall be made in writing and in such manner as the Administrator may prescribe. "(4) Notwithstanding any limitation contained in this section or any other provision of law, all information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) reported to, or otherwise obtained by, the Administrator (or any representative of the Administrator) under this Act shall be made available, upon written request of any duly authorized committee of the Congress, to such committee (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency).
"(c) Federal Facility Inspections.-Beginning twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, or in the case of a State with an authorized hazardous waste program the State may, undertake on an annual basis a thorough inspection of each facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste which is owned or operated by a Federal agency to enforce its compliance with this subtitle and the regulations promulgated thereunder. The records of such inspections shall be available to the public as provided in subsection
(b) . [3007(c) added by PL 98-616]
"(d) State-Operated Facilities.-The Administrator shall annually undertake a thorough inspection of every facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste which is operated by a State or local government for which a permit is required under section 3005 of this title. The records of such inspection shall be available to the public as provided in subsection
(b) . [3007(d) added by PL 98-616] "(e) Mandatory Inspections.-(1) The Administrator (or the State in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under this subtitle) shall commence a program to thoroughly inspect every facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste for which a permit is required under section 3005 no less often than every two years as to its compliance with this subtitle (and the regulations promulgated under this subtitle). Such inspections shall commence not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. The Administrator shall, after notice and opportunity for public comment, promulgate regulations governing the minimum frequency and manner of such inspections, including the manner in which records of such inspections shall be maintained and the manner in which reports of such inspections shall be filed. The Administrator may distinguish between classes and categories of facilities commensurate with the risks posed by each class or category. "(2) Not later than six months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall submit to the Congress a report on the potential for inspections of hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities by nongovernmental inspectors as a supplement to inspections conducted by officers, employees, or representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency or States having authorized hazardous waste programs or operating under a cooperative agreement with the Administrator. Such report shall be prepared in cooperation with the States, insurance companies offering environmental impairment insurance, independent companies providing inspection services, and other such groups as appropriate. Such report shall contain recommendations on provisions and requirements for a program of private inspections to supplement governmental inspections. [3007(e) added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3008.
(a) Compliance Orders.- (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), whenever on the basis of any information the Administrator determines that any person has violated or is in violation of any requirement of this subtitle, the Administrator may issue an order assessing a civil penalty for any past or current violation, requiring compliance immediately or within a specified time period, or both, or the Administrator may commence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the violation occurred for appropriate relief, including a temporary or permanent injunction. [3008(a)(1) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(2) In the case of a violation of any requirement of this subtitle where such violation occurs in a State which is authorized to carry out a hazardous waste program under section 3006, the Administrator shall give notice to the State in which such violation has occurred prior to issuing an order or commencing a civil action under this section. [3008(a)(2) amended by PL 96-482] "(3) Any order issued pursuant to this subsection may include a suspension or revocation of any permit issued by the Administrator or a State under this subtitle and shall state with reasonable specificity the nature of the violation. Any penalty assessed in the order shall not exceed $25,000 per day of noncompliance for each violation of a requirement of this subtitle. In assessing such a penalty, the Administrator shall take into account the seriousness of the violation and any good faith efforts to comply with applicable requirements. [3008(a)(3) revised by PL 98-616] "(b) Public Hearing.-Any order issued under this section shall become final unless, no later than thirty days after the order is served, the person or persons named therein request a public hearing. Upon such request the Administrator shall promptly conduct a public hearing. In connection with any proceeding under
this section the Administrator may issue subpoenas for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevent papers, books, and documents, and may promulgate rules for discovery procedures. [3008(b) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(c) Violation of Compliance Orders.-If a violator fails to take corrective action within the time specified in a compliance order, the Administrator may assess a civil penalty of not more than $25,000 for each day of continued noncompliance with the order and the Administrator may suspend or revoke any permit issued to the violator (whether issued by the Administrator or the State). [3008(c) amended by PL 96-482; revised by PL 98-616] "(d) Criminal Penalties.-Any person who- "(1) knowingly transports or causes to be transported any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle to a facility which does not have a permit under this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052). "(2) knowingly treats, stores, or disposes of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle- "(A) without a permit under this subtitle or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052); or "(B) in knowing violation of any material condition or requirement of such permit; or "(C) in knowing violation of any material condition or require- ment of any applicable interim status regulations or stand- ards: "(3) knowingly omits material information or makes any false material statement or representation in any application, label, manifest, record, report, permit, or other document filed, maintained, or used for purposes of compliance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator (or by a State in the case of an authorized State program) under this subtitle; "(4) knowingly generates, stores, treats, transports, disposes of, exports, or otherwise handles any hazardous waste (whether such activity took place before or takes place after the date of the enactment of this paragraph) and who knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or fails to file any record, application, manifest, report, or other document required to be maintained or filed for purposes of compliance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator (or by a State in the case of an authorized State program) under this subtitle; "(5) knowingly transports without a manifest, or causes to be transported without a manifest, any hazardous waste required by regulations promulgated under this subtitle (or by a State in the case of a State program authorized under this subtitle) to be accompanied by a manifest, or "(6) knowingly exports a hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle (A) without the consent of the receiving country or, (B) where there exists an international agreement between the United States and the government of the receiving country establishing notice, export, and enforcement procedures for the transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes, in a manner which is not in conformance with such agreement shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $50,000 for each day of violation, or imprisonment not to exceed two years (five years in the case of a violation of paragraph (1) or (2)), or both. If the conviction is for a violation committed after a first conviction of such person under this paragraph, the maximum punishment under the respective paragraph shall be doubled with respect to both fine and imprisonment. [3008(d) revised by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(e) Knowing Endangerment.-Any person who knowingly transports, treats, stores, disposes of, or exports any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle in violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of subsection
(d) of this section who knows at that time that he thereby places another person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury, shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $250,000 or imprisonment for not more than fifteen years, or both. A defendant that is an organization shall, upon conviction of violating this subsection, be subject to a fine of not more than $1,000,000. [3008(e) added by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616] "(f) Special Rules.-For the purposes of subsection
(e) - "(1) A person's state of mind is knowing with respect to- "(A) his conduct, if he is aware of the nature of his conduct; "(B) an existing circumstance, if he is aware or believes that the circumstance exists; or "(C) a result of his conduct, if he is aware or believes that his conduct is substantially certain to cause danger of death or serious bodily injury. "(2) In determining whether a defendant who is a natural person knew that his conduct placed another person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury- "(A) the person is responsible only for actual awareness or actual belief that he possessed; and "(B) knowledge possessed by a person other than the defendant but not by the defendant himself may not be attributed to the defendant;
Provided, That in proving the defendant's possession of actual knowledge, circumstantial evidence may be used, including evidence that the defendant took affirmative steps to shield himself from relevant information. "(3) It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution that the conduct charged was consented to by the person endangered and that the danger and conduct charged were reasonably foreseeable hazards of- "(A) an occupation, a business, or a profession; or
"(B) medical treatment or medical or scientific experimentation conducted by professionally approved methods and such other person had been made aware of the risks involved prior to giving consent. The defendant may establish an affirmative defense under this subsection by a preponderance of the evidence. "(4) All general defenses, affirmative defenses, and bars to prosecution that may apply with respect to other Federal criminal offenses may apply under subsection
(e) and shall be determined by the courts of the United States according to the principles of common law as they may be interpreted in the light of reason and experience. Concepts of justification and excuse applicable under this section may be developed in the light of reason and experience. "(5) The term 'organization' means a legal entity, other than a government, established or organized for any purpose, and such term includes a corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, joint stock company, foundation, institution, trust, society, union, or any other association of persons. "(6) The term 'serious bodily injury' means- "(A) bodily injury which involves a substantial risk of death; "(B) unconsciousness; "(C) extreme physical pain; "(D) protracted and obvious disfigurement; or "(E) protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty. "(g) Civil Penalty.-Any person who violates any requirement of this subtitle shall be liable to the United States for a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $25,000 for each such violation. Each day of such violation shall, for purposes of this subsection, constitute a separate violation. [3008(g) added by PL 96-482] "O) Intense Statios Conncictive Actios Oasens.-(1) Whonowr on the haste of any information the Administrear detormines that there is or has been a release of hasardous waste into the environment from a facility authorized to operate under section 3008(a) of this subtitle, the Administrator may issue an order requiring corrective action or such other response measure as be deems necessary to protect human health or the environment or the Administrator may cmeasence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the facility is located for appropriate relief, including a temporary or parmenent injunction. "(2) Any order issued under this subsection may include a suspension or revocation of authorization to operate under section 3008(a) of this subtitle, shall state with reasonable specificity the nature of the required corrective action or other response measure, and shall specify a time for compliance. If any person named in an order fails to comply with the order, the Administrator may cmeas, and such person shall be liable to the United States for, a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $25,000 for each day of noncompliance with the order. [3008(h) added by PL 98-616] "Retention of State Authority "Sec. 3009. Upon the effective date of regulations under this subtitle no State or political subdivision may impose any requirements less stringent than those authorized under this subtitle respecting the same matter as governed by such regulations, except that if application of a regulation with respect to any matter under this subtitle is postponed or enjoined by the action of any court, no State or political subdivision shall be prohibited from acting with respect to the same aspect of such matter until such time as such regulation takes effect. Nothing in this title shall be construed to prohibit any State or political subdivision thereof from imposing any requirements, including those for site selection, which are more stringent than those imposed by such regulations. Nothing in this title (or in any regulation adopted under this title) shall be construed to prohibit any State from requiring that the State be provided with a copy of each manifest used in connection with hazardous waste which is generated within that State or transported to a treatment, storage, or disposal facility within that State. [3009 amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3010.
(a) Preliminary Notification.-Not later than ninety days after promulgation of regulations under section 3001 identifying by its characteristics or listing any substance as hazardous waste subject to this subtitle, any person generating or transporting such substance or owning or operating a facility for treatment, storage, or disposal of such substance shall file with the Administrator (or with States having authorized hazardous waste permit programs under section 3006) a notification stating the location and general description of such activity and the identified or listed hazardous wastes handled by such person. Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984- "(1) The owner or operator of any facility which produces a fuel (A) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, (B) from such hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material, (C) from used oil, or (D) from used oil and any other material:
poset of energy recovery any fuel produced as provided in paragraph (1) or any fuel which otherwise contains used oil or any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001; and
(3) any person who distributes or markets any fuel which is produced as provided in paragraph (1) or any fuel which otherwise contain used oil or any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 shall file with the Administrator (and with the State in the case of a State with an authorized hazardous waste program) a notification stating the location and general description of the facility, together with a description of the identified or listed hazardous waste involved and, in the case of a facility referred to in paragraph (1) or (2), a description of the production or energy recovery activity carried out at the facility and such other information as the Administrator deems necessary. For purposes of the preceding provisions, the term "hazardous waste listed under section 3001" also includes any commercial chemical product which is listed under section 3001 and which, in lieu of its original intended use, is
(i) produced for use as (or as a component of) a fuel, (ii) distributed for use as a fuel, or (iii) burned as a fuel. Notification shall not be required under the second sentence of this subsection in the case of facilities (such as residential builders) where the Administrator determines that such notification is not necessary in order for the Administrator to obtain sufficient information respecting current practices of facilities using hazardous waste for energy recovery. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the provisions of section 3001(b)(3). Nothing in this subsection shall affect regulatory determinations under section 3014. In revising any regulation under section 3001 identifying additional characteristics of hazardous waste or listing any additional substance as hazardous waste subject to this subtitle, the Administrator may require any person referred to in the preceding provisions to file with the Administrator (or with States having authorized hazardous waste permit programs under section 3006) the notification described in the preceding provisions. Not more than one such notification shall be required to be filed with respect to the same substance. No identified or listed hazardous waste subject to this subtitle may be transported, treated, stored, or disposed of unless notification has been given as required under this subsection.
[3010(a) amended by PL 96-482; revised by PL 98-616]
"(b) Effective Date of Regulation.—The regulations under this subtitle respecting requirements applicable to the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, or
posal) shall take effect on the date six months after the date of promulgation thereof (or six months after the date of revision in the case of any regulation which is revised after the date required for promulgation thereof). At the time a regulation is promulgated, the Administrator may provide for a shorter period prior to the effective date, or an immediate effective date for:
(1) a regulation with which the Administrator finds the regulated community does not need six months to come into compliance;
(2) a regulation which responds to an emergency situation; or
(3) other good cause found and published with the regulation.
[3010(b) amended by PL 98-616]
"Authorization of Assistance to States
"Sec. 3011.
(a) Authorization.—There is authorized to be appropriated $25,000,000 for each of the fiscal years 1978 and 1979, $20,000,000 for fiscal year 1980, $35,000,000 for fiscal year 1981, $40,000,000 for the fiscal year 1982, $55,000,000 for the fiscal year 1985, $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1986, $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1987, and $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1988 to be used to make grants to the States for purposes of assisting the States in the development and implementation of authorized State hazardous waste programs.
[3011(a) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
"(b) Allocation.—Amounts authorized to be appropriated under subsection
(a) shall be allocated among the States on the basis of regulations promulgated by the Administrator, after consultation with the States, which take into account, the extent to which hazardous waste is generated, transported, treated, stored, and disposed of within such State, the extent of exposure of human beings and the environment within such State to such waste, and such other factors as the Administrator deems appropriate.
"(c) Activities Included.—State hazardous waste programs for which grants may be made under subsection
(a) may include (but shall not be limited to) planning for hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facilities, and the development and execution of programs to protect health and the environment from inactive facilities which may contain hazardous waste.
[3011(c) added by PL 96-482]
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
33
"Sec. 3012.
(a) State Inventory Programs.-Each State shall, as expeditiously as practicable, undertake a continuing program to compile, publish, and submit to the Administrator an inventory describing the location of each site within such State at which hazardous waste has at any time been stored or disposed of. Such inventory shall contain- "(1) a description of the location of the sites at which any such storage or disposal has taken place before the date on which permits are required under section 3005 for such storage or disposal; " (2) such information relating to the amount, nature, and toxicity of the hazardous waste at each such site as may be practicable to obtain and as may be necessary to determine the extent of any health hazard which may be associated with such site; " (3) the name and address, or corporate headquarters of, the owner of each such site, determined as of the date of preparation of the inventory; "(4) an identification of the types or techniques of waste treatment or disposal which have been used at each such site; and "(5) information concerning the current status of the site, including information respecting whether or not hazardous waste is currently being treated or disposed of at such site (and if not, the date on which such activity ceased) and information respecting the nature of any other activity currently carried out at such site. For purposes of assisting the States in compiling information under this section, the Administrator shall make available to each State undertaking a program under this section such information as is available to him concerning the items specified in paragraphs (1) through (5) with respect to the sites within such State, including such information as the Administrator is able to obtain from other agencies or departments of the United States and from surveys and studies carried out by any committee or subcommittee of the Congress. Any State may exercise the authority of section 3007 for purposes of this section in the same manner and to the same extent as provided in such section in the case of States having an authorized hazardous waste program, and any State may by order require any person to submit such information as may be necessary to compile the data referred to in paragraphs (1) through (5). "
(b) Environmental Protection Agency Program.-If the Administrator determines that any State program under subsection
(a) is not adequately providing information respecting the sites in such State referred to in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall notify the State. If within ninety days following such notification, the State program has not been revised or amended in such manner as will adequately provide such information, the Administrator shall carry out the inventory program in such State. In any such case- "(1) the Administrator shall have the authorities provided with respect to State programs under subsection
(a) ; (2) the funds allocated under subsection
(c) for grants to States under this section may be used by the Administrator for carrying out such program in such State; and "(3) no further expenditure may be made for grants to such State under this section until such time as the Administrator determines that such State is carrying out, or will carry out, an inventory program which meets the requirements of this section. "(c) Grants.-(1) Upon receipt of an application submitted by any State to carry out a program under this section, the Administrator may make grants to the States for purposes of carrying out such a program. Grants under this section shall be allocated among the several States by the Administrator based upon such regulations as he prescribes to carry out the purposes of this section. The Administrator may make grants to any State which has conducted an inventory program which effectively carried out the purposes of this section before the date of the enactment of the Solid Waste Disposal Act Amendments of 1980 to reimburse such State for all, or any portion of, the costs incurred by such State in conducting such program. "(2) There are authorized to be appropriated to carry out this section $25,000,000 for each of the fiscal years 1985 through 1988. [3012(c)(2) amended by PL 98-616] "(d) No Impediment to Immediate Remedial Action. -Nothing in this section shall be construed to provide that the Administrator or any State should, pending completion of the inventory required under this section, postpone undertaking any enforcement or remedial action with respect to any site at which hazardous waste has been treated, stored, or disposed of. [3012 added by PL 96-482]
"Sec. 3013.
(a) Authority of Administrators.-If the Administrator determines, upon receipt of any information, that- "(1) the presence of any hazardous waste at a facility or site at which hazardous waste is, or has been, stored, treated, or disposed of, or
"(2) the release of any such waste from such facility or site may present a substantial hazard to human health or the environment, he may issue an order requiring the owner or operator of such facility or site to conduct such monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting with respect to such facility or site as the Administrator deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of such hazard. "(b) Previous Owners and Operators.-In the case of any facility or site not in operation at the time a determination is made under subsection
(a) with respect to the facility or site, if the Administrator finds that the owner of such facility or site could not reasonably be expected to have actual knowledge of the presence of hazardous waste at such facility or site and of its potential for release, he may issue an order requiring the most recent previous owner or operator of such facility or site who could reasonably be expected to have such actual knowledge to carry out the actions referred to in subsection
(a) . "(c) Proposal.-An order under subsection
(a) or
(b) shall require the person to whom such order is issued to submit to the Administrator within 30 days from the issuance of such order a proposal for carrying out the required monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting. The Administrator may, after providing such person with an opportunity to confer with the Administrator respecting such proposal, require such person to carry out such monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting in accordance with such proposal, and such modifications in such proposal as the Administrator deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of the hazard. "(d) Monitoring, Etc., Carried Out by Administrator.-(1) If the Administrator determines that no owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) is able to conduct monitoring, testing, analysis, or reporting satisfactory to the Administrator, if the Administrator deems any such action carried out by an owner or operator to be unsatisfactory, or if the Administrator cannot initially determine that there is an owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) who is able to conduct such monitoring, testing, analysis, or reporting, he may- "(A) conduct monitoring, testing, or analysis (or any combination thereof) which he deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of the hazard associated with the site concerned, or "(B) authorize a State or local authority or other $\mathbf{r}$ erson to carry out any such action, and require, by order, the owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) to reimburse the Administrator or other authority or person for the costs of such activity. "(2) No order may be issued under this subsection requiring reimbursement of the costs of any action carried out by the Administrator which confirms the results of an order issued under subsection
(a) or
(b) . "(3) For purposes of carrying out this subsection, the Administrator or any authority or other person authorized under paragraph (1), may exercise the authorities set forth in section 3007. "(e) Enforcement.-The Administrator may commence a civil action against any person who fails or refuses to comply with any order issued under this section. Such action shall be brought in the United States district court in which the defendant is located, resides, or is doing business. Such court shall have jurisdiction to require compliance with such order and to assess a civil penalty of not to exceed $5,000 for each day during which such failure or refusal occurs. [3013 added by PL 96-482]
"Sec. 3014.
(a) In General-Not later than one year after the date of the enactment of this section, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such performance standards and other requirements as may be necessary to protect the public health and the environment from hazards associated with recycled oil. In developing such regulations, the Administrator shall conduct an analysis of the economic impact of the regulations on the oil recycling industry. The Administrator shall ensure that such regulations do not discourage the recovery or recycling of used oil, consistent with the protection of human health and the environment. [3012 added by PL 96-463; amended and redesignated as 3014(a) by PL 98-616]
The Deuntification of Lestons of Ured OU as Hazardous Waste.-Not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 the Administrator shall propose whether to list or identify used automobile and truck crankcase oil as hazardous waste under section 3001. Not later than twenty-four months after such date of enactment, the Administrator shall make a final determination whether to list or identify used automobile and truck crankcase oil and other used oil as hazardous wastes under section 3001. [3014(b) and
(c) added by PL 98-616] "(c) Ured On. Wace is Recycles.-(1) With respect to generators and transporters of used oil identified or lined as a humedous waste under section 3001, the mandarits promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 of this subtitle shall not apply to such used oil if such used oil is recycled. "(2)(A) In the case of used oil which is exempt under paragraph (1), not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate such mandarits under this subsection regarding the generation and transportation of used oil which is recycled as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. In
promulgating such regulations with respect to generators, the Administrator shall take into account the effect of such regulations on environmentally acceptable types of used oil recycling and the effect of such regulations on small quantity generators and generators which are small businesses (as defined by the Administrator). "(B) The regulations promulgated under this subsection shall provide that no generator of used oil which is exempt under paragraph (1) from the standards promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 shall be subject to any manifest requirement or any associated recordkeeping and reporting requirement with respect to such used oil if such generator- "(i) either- "(I) enters into an agreement or other arrangement (including an agreement or arrangement with an independent transporter or with an agent of the recycler) for delivery of such used oil to a recycling facility which has a permit under section 3005(c) (or for which a valid permit is deemed to be in effect under subsection
(d) ), or "(II) recycles such used oil at one or more facilities of the generator which has such a permit under section 3005 of this subtitle (or for which a valid permit is deemed to have been issued under subsection
(d) of this section); "(ii) such used oil is not mixed by the generator with other types of hazardous wastes; and "(iii) the generator maintains such records relating to such used oil, including records of agreements or other arrangements for delivery of such used oil to any recycling facility referred to in clause
(i) (1), as the Administrator deems necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(3) The regulations under this subsection regarding the transportation of used oil which is exempt from the standards promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 under paragraph (1) shall require the transporters of such used oil to deliver such used oil to a facility which has a valid permit under section 3005 of this subtitle or which is deemed to have a valid permit under subsection
(d) of this section. The Administrator shall also establish other standards for such transporters as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(d) Permits.-(1) The owner or operator of a facility which recycles used oil which is exempt under subsection
(c) (1), shall be deemed to have a permit under this subsection for all such treatment or recycling (and any associated tank or container storage) if such owner and operator comply with standards promulgated by the Administrator under section 3004; except that the Administrator may require such owners and operators to obtain an individual permit under section 3005(c) if he determines that an individual permit is necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any generator who recycles used oil which is exempt under subsection
(c) (1) shall not be required to obtain a permit under section 3005(c) with respect to such used oil until the Administrator has promulgated standards under section 3004 regarding the recycling of such used oil.
"SEC. 3015.
(a) Waste Ples.-The owner or operator of a waste pile qualifying for the authorization to operate under section 3005(a) shall be subject to the same requirements for liners and leachate collection systems or equivalent protection provided in regulations promulgated by the Administrator under section 3004 before October 1, 1982, or revised under section 3004(o) (relating to minimum technological requirements), for new facilities receiving individual permits under subsection
(c) of section 3005, with respect to each new unit, replacement of an existing unit, or lateral expansion of an existing unit that is within the waste management area identified in the permit application submitted under section 3005, and with respect to waste received beginning six months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. "(b) Landfills and Surface Impoundments.-(1) The owner or operator of a landfill or surface impoundment qualifying for the authorization to operate under section 3005(a) shall be subject to the requirements of section 3004(o) (relating to minimum technological requirements), with respect to each new unit, replacement of an existing unit, or lateral expansion of an existing unit that is within the waste management area identified in the permit application submitted under this section, and with respect to waste received beginning 6 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. "(2) The owner or operator of each unit referred to in paragraph (1) shall notify the Administrator (or the State, if appropriate) at least sixty days prior to receiving waste. The Administrator (or the State) shall require the filing, within six months of receipt of such notice, of an application for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit for each facility submitting such notice. "(3) In the case of any unit in which the liner and leachate collection system has been installed pursuant to the requirements of this section and in good faith compliance with the Administrator's regulations and guidance documents governing liners and leachate collection systems, no liner or leachate collection system which is different from that which was so installed pursuant to this section shall be required for such unit by the Administrator when issuing the first permit under section 3005 to such facility, except that the Administrator shall not be precluded from requiring installation of a new liner when the Administrator has reason to believe that any liner installed pursuant to the requirements of this section is leaking. The Administrator may, under section 3004, amend the requirements for liners and leachate collection systems required under this section as may be necessary to provide additional protection for human health and the environment.
"SEC. 3016.
(a) Each Federal agency shall undertake a continuing program to compile, publish, and submit to the Administrator (and to the State in the case of sites in States having an authorized hazardous waste program) an inventory of each site which the Federal agency owns or operates or has owned or operated at which hazardous waste is stored, treated, or disposed of or has been disposed of at any time. The inventory shall be submitted every two years beginning January 31, 1986. Such inventory shall be available to the public as provided in section 3007(b). Information previously submitted by a Federal agency under section 103 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, or under section 3005 or 3010 of this Act, or under this section need not be readmitted except that the agency shall update any previous submission to reflect the latest available data and information. The inventory shall include each of the following: "(1) A description of the location of each site at which any such treatment, storage, or disposal has taken place before the date on which permits are required under section 3006 for such storage, treatment, or disposal, and where hazardous waste has been disposed, a description of hydrogeology of the site and the location of withdrawal wells and surface water within one mile of the site. "(2) Such information relating to the amount, nature, and toxicity of the hazardous waste in each site as may be necessary to determine the extent of any health hazard which may be associated with any site. "(3) Information on the known nature and extent of environmental contamination at each site, including a description of the monitoring data obtained. "(4) Information concerning the current status of the site, including information respecting whether or not hazardous waste is currently being treated, stored, or disposed of at such site (and if not, the date on which such activity ceased) and information respecting the nature of any other activity currently carried out at such site.
(5) A description of the types of techniques of waste treatment, storage, or disposal which have been used at each site.
(6) The name and address and responsible Federal agency for each site, determined as of the date of preparation of the inventory.
(b) Environmental Protection Agency Program.—If the Administrator determines that any Federal agency under subsection
(a) is not adequately providing information respecting the sites referred to in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall notify the chief official of such agency. If within ninety days following such notification, the Federal agency has not undertaken a program to adequately provide such information, the Administrator shall carry out the inventory program for such agency.
**SEC. 3017.
(a) IN GENERAL.**—Beginning twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, no person shall export any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle unless:
"(A) such person has provided the notification required in subsection
(c) of this section,
"(B) the government of the receiving country has consented to accept such hazardous waste,
"(C) a copy of the receiving country's written consent is attached to the manifest accompanying each waste shipment, and
"(D) the shipment conforms with the terms of the consent of the government of the receiving country required pursuant to subsection
(e) , or
"(E) the United States and the government of the receiving country have entered into an agreement as provided for in subsection
(f) and the shipment conforms with the terms of such agreement.
(b) Regulations.—Not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, the Administrator shall promulgate the regulations necessary to implement this section. Such regulations shall become effective one hundred and eighty days after promulgation.
(c) Notification.—Any person who intends to export a hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle beginning twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, shall, before such hazardous waste is scheduled to leave the United States, provide notification to the Administrator. Such notification shall contain the following information:
"(1) the name and address of the exporter;
"(2) the types and estimated quantities of hazardous waste to be exported;
"(3) the estimated frequency or rate at which such waste is to be exported; and the period of time over which such waste is to be exported;
"(4) the parts of entry;
"(5) a description of the manner in which such hazardous waste will be transported to and treated, stored, or disposed in the receiving country; and
"(6) the name and address of the ultimate treatment, storage or disposal facility.
(d) Procedures for Requiring Consent of the Receiving Country.—Within thirty days of the Administrator's receipt of a complete notification under this section, the Secretary of State, acting on behalf of the Administrator, shall—
"(1) forward a copy of the notification to the government of the receiving country;
"(2) the export of hazardous waste unless the receiving country consents to accept the hazardous waste;
"(3) request the government to provide the Secretary with a written consent or objection to the terms of the notification; and
"(4) forward to the government of the receiving country a description of the Federal regulations which would apply to the treatment, storage, and disposal of the hazardous waste in the United States.
(e) Convergence of Written Consent to Exporter.—Within thirty days of receipt by the Secretary of State of the receiving country's written consent or objection (or any subsequent communication withdrawing a prior consent or objection), the Administrator shall forward such a consent, objection, or other communication to the exporter.
(f) International Agreements.—Where there exists an international agreement between the United States and the government of the receiving country establishing notice, export, and enforcement procedures for the transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes, only the requirements of subsections
(a) (2) and
(g) shall apply.
(g) Exports.—After the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, any person who exports any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 of this subtitle shall file with the Administrator no later than March 1 of each year, a report summarizing the types, quantities, frequency, and ultimate destination of all such hazardous waste exported during the previous calendar year.
(h) Other Standards.—Nothing in this section shall preclude the Administrator from establishing other standards for the export of hazardous wastes under section 3002 or section 3003 of this subtitle.
**SEC. 3018.
(a) REPORT.**—The Administrator shall, not later than 15 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, submit a report to the Congress concerning those substances identified or listed under section 3001 which are not regulated under this subtitle by reason of the exclusion for mixtures of domestic sewage and other wastes that pass through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works. Such report shall include the types, size and number of generators which dispose of such substances in this manner, the types and quantities disposed of in this manner, and the identification of significant generators, wastes, and waste constituents not regulated under existing Federal law or regulated in a manner sufficient to protect human health and the environment.
(b) Review of Regulations.—Within eighteen months after submitting the report specified in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall review existing regulations and promulgate such additional regulations pursuant to this subtitle (or any other authority of the Administrator, including section 307 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act) as are necessary to assure that substances identified or listed under section 3001 which pass through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works are adequately controlled to protect human health and the environment.
(c) Report on Wastewater Logs.—The Administrator shall, within thirty-six months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, submit a report to the Congress concerning wastewater logs at publicly owned treatment works and their effect on groundwater quality. Such report shall include—
"(1) the number and size of such logs;
"(2) the types and quantities of waste contained in such logs;
"(3) the extent to which such waste has been or may be released from such logs and contaminates the ground water; and
"(4) available alternatives for preventing or controlling such releases.
The Administrator may utilize the authority of sections 3007 and 3013 for the purpose of completing such report.
"(d) APPLICATION OF SECTION 3010 AND SECTION 3007.-The provisions of sections 3007 and 3010 shall apply to solid or dissolved materials in domestic sewage to the same extent and in the same manner as such provisions apply to hazardous waste.
"SEC. 3019.
(a) EXPOSURE INFORMATION.-Beginning on the date nine months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, each application for a final determination regarding a permit under section 3005(c) for a landfill or surface impoundment shall be accompanied by information reasonably as certainable by the owner or operator on the potential for the public to be exposed to hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents through releases related to the unit. At a minimum, such information must address: "(1) reasonably foreseeable potential releases from both normal operations and accidents at the unit, including releases associated with transportation to or from the unit; "(2) the potential pathways of human exposure to hazardous wastes or constituents resulting from the releases described under paragraph (1); and "(3) the potential magnitude and nature of the human exposure resulting from such releases.
The owner or operator of a landfill or surface impoundment for which an application for such a final determination under section 3005(c) has been submitted prior to the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 shall submit the information required by this subsection to the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) no later than the date nine months after such date of enactment. "(b) HEALTH ASSESSMENTS.-(1) The Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) shall make the information required by subsection
(a) , together with other relevant information, available to the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry established by section 104(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980. "(2) Whenever in the judgment of the Administrator, or the State (in the case of a State with an authorized program), a landfill or a surface impoundment poses a substantial potential risk to human health, due to the existence of releases of hazardous constituents, the magnitude of contamination with hazardous constituents which may be the result of a release, or the magnitude of the population exposed to such release or contamination, the Administrator or the State (with the concurrence of the Administrator) may request the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry to conduct a health assessment in connection with such facility and take other appropriate action with respect to such risks as authorized by section 104
(b) and
(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980. If funds are provided in connection with such request the Administrator of such Agency shall conduct such health assessment. "(c) MEMBERS OF THE PUBLIC.-Any member of the public may submit evidence of releases of or exposure to hazardous constituents from such a facility, or as to the risks or health effects associated with such releases or exposure, to the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry, the Administrator, or the State (in the case of a State with an authorized program). "(d) PRIORITY.-In determining the order in which to conduct health assessments under this subsection, the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry shall give priority to those facilities or sites at which there is documented evidence of release of hazardous constituents, at which the potential risk to human health appears highest, and for which in the judgment of the Administrator of such Agency existing health assessment data is inadequate to assess the potential risk to human health as provided in subsection
(f) . "(e) PERIODIC REPORTS.-The Administrator of such Agency shall issue periodic reports which include the results of all the assessments carried out under this section. Such assessments or other activities shall be reported after appropriate peer review. "(f) DEFINITION.-For the purposes of this section, the term 'health assessments' shall include preliminary assessments of the potential risk to human health posed by individual sites and facilities subject to this section, based on such factors as the nature and extent of contamination, the existence of potential for pathways of human exposure (including ground or surface water contamination), air emissions, and food chain contamination), the size and potential susceptibility of the community within the likely pathways of exposure, the comparison of expected human exposure levels to the short-term and long-term health effects associated with identified contaminants and any available recommended exposure or tolerance limits for such contaminants, and the comparison of existing morbidity and mortality data on diseases that may be associated with the observed levels of exposure. The assessment shall include an evaluation of the risks to the potentially affected population from all sources of such contaminants, including known point or nonpoint sources other than the site or facility in question. A purpose of such preliminary assessments shall be to help determine whether fullscale health or epidemiological studies and medical evaluations of exposed populations shall be undertaken. "(g) Cost Recovery.-In any case in which a health assessment performed under this section discloses the exposure of a population to the release of a hazardous substance, the costs of such health assessment may be recovered as a cost of response under section 107 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 from persons causing or contributing to such release of such hazardous substance or, in the case of multiple releases contributing to such exposure, to all such release.".
"Sec. 4001. The objectives of this subtitle are to assist in developing and encouraging methods for the disposal of solid waste which are environmentally sound and which maximize the utilization of valuable resources including energy and materials which are recoverable from solid waste and to encourage resource conservation. Such objectives are to be accomplished through Federal technical and financial assistance to States or regional authorities for comprehensive planning pursuant to Federal guidelines designed to foster cooperation among Federal, State, and local governments and private industry. In developing such comprehensive plans, it is the intention of this Act that in determining the size of the waste-to-energy facility, adequate provision shall be given to the present and reasonably anticipate future needs, including those needs created by thorough implementation of section 6003(1), of the recycling and resource recovery interest within the area encompassed by the planning process. [4001 amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
ANEJO C-9 Subtítulo G Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Miscellaneous Provisions Section 7003 (Imminent Hazard)
RESOURCE RECOVERY ACT " $(g)$ TRANSPORTERS.-A transporter shall not be deemed to have contributed or to be contributing to the handling, storage, treatment, or disposal, referred to in subsection
(a) (1)(B) taking place after such solid waste or hazardous waste has left the possession or control of such transporter, if the transportation of such waste was under a sole contractual arrangement arising from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by common carrier by rail and such transporter has exercised due care in the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation and disposal of such waste. [7002(g) added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 7003.
(a) Authority of Administrator.-Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, upon receipt of evidence that the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation or disposal of any solid waste or hazardous waste may present an imminent and substantial endangerment to health or the environment, the Administrator may bring suit on behalf of the United States in the appropriate district court against any person (including any past or present generator, past or present transporter, or past or present owner or operator of a treatment, storage or disposal facility) who has contributed or who is contributing to such handling, storage, treatment, transportation or disposal to restrain such person from such handling, storage, treatment, transportation, or disposal, to order such person to take such other action as may be necessary, or both. A transporter shall not be deemed to have contributed or to be contributing to such handling, storage, treatment, or disposal taking place after such solid waste or hazardous waste has left the possession or control of such transporter if the transportation of such waste was under a sole contractual arrangement arising from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by common carrier by rail and such transporter has exercised due care in the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation and disposal of such waste. The Administrator shall provide notice to the affected State of any such suit. The Administrator may also, after notice to the affected State, take other action under this section including, but not limited to, issuing such orders as may be necessary to protect public health and the environment. [7003(a) designated and amended by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616] "(b) Violations.-Any person who willfully violates, or fails or refuses to comply with, any order of the Administrator under subsection
(a) may, in an action brought in the appropriate United States district court to enforce such order, be fined not more than $5,000 for each day in which such violation occurs or such failure to comply continues. [7003(b) added by PL 96-482] "(c) Immediate Notice.-Upon receipt of information that there is hazardous waste at any site which has presented an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment, the Administrator shall provide immediate notice to the appropriate local government agencies. In addition, the Administrator shall require notice of such endangerment to be promptly posted at the site where the waste is located. [7003(c) added by PL 98-616] "(d) Public Participation in Settlements.-Whenever the United States or the Administrator proposes to covenant not to sue or to forbear from suit or to settle any claim arising under this section, notice, and opportunity for a public meeting in the affected area, and a reasonable opportunity to comment on the proposed settlement prior to its final entry shall be afforded to the public. The decision of the United States or the Administrator to enter into or not to enter into such Consent Decree, covenant or agreement shall not constitute a final agency action subject to judicial review under this Act or the Administrative Procedure Act. [7003(d) added by PL 98-616] "Petition for Regulations; Public Participation "Sec. 7004.
(a) Petition.-Any person may petition the Administrator for the promulgation, amendment, or repeal of any regulation under this Act. Within a reasonable time following receipt of such petition, the Administrator shall take action with respect to such petition and shall publish notice of such action in the Federal Register together with the reasons therefor. "(b)(1) Public Participation.-Public participation in the development, revision, implementation, and enforcement of any regulation, guideline, information, or program under this Act shall be provided for, encouraged, and assisted by the Administrator and the States. The Administrator, in cooperation with the States, shall develop and publish minimum guidelines for public participation in such processes. [7004(b)(1) designated by PL 96-482] "(2) Before the issuing of a permit to any person with any respect to any facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous wastes under section 3005, the Administrator shall- "(A) cause to be published in major local newspapers of general circulation and broadcast over local radio stations notice of the agency's intention to issue such permit, and "(B) transmit in writing notice of the agency's intention to issue such permit to each unit of local government having jurisdiction over the area in which such facility if proposed to be located and to each State agency having any authority under State law with respect to the construction or operation of such facility. If within 45 days the Administrator receives written notice of opposition to the agency's intention to issue such permit and a request for a hearing, or if the Administrator determines on his own initiative, he shall hold an informal public hearing (including an opportu-
ANEJO C-10 40 CFR Parte 112 011 Pollution Prevention
(40 CFR 112; 38 FR 34164, December 11, 1973; Amended by 39 FR 31602, August 29, 1974; 41 FR 12657, March 26, 1976)
AUTHORITY: Secs. 311(j)(1)(C), 311(j)(3), 501(a), Federal Water Pollution Control Act (Sec. 3, Pub. L. 92-600, 80 Stat. 816 et seq. (52 U.S.C. 1261 et seq.); Sec. 4(b), Pub. L. 92-600, 80 Stat. 807; 5 U.S.C. Reorg. Plan of 1970 No. 2 (1970), 38 FR 15623, 3 CFR 1966-1970 Comp.; E.O. 11755, 80 FR 31243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 1124
ance used, or capable of being used as a means of transportation on water, other than a public vessel.
(a) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore facilities in operation on or before the effective date of this part that have discharged or, due to their location, could reasonably be expected to discharge oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines, shall prepare a Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure Plan (hereinafter "SPCC Plan"), in writing and in accordance with section 112.7. Except as provided for in paragraph
(f) of this section, such SPCC Plan shall be prepared within six months after the effective date of this part and shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than one year after the effective date of this part.
(b) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore facilities that become operational after the effective date of this part, and that have discharged or could reasonably be expected to discharge oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines, shall prepare an SPCC Plan in accordance with § 112.7. Except as provided for in paragraph
(f) of this section, such SPCC Plan shall be prepared within six months after the date such facility begins operations and shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than one year after such facility begins operations.
(c) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore mobile or portable facilities, such as onshore drilling or workover rigs, large mounted offshore drilling or workover rigs, and portable fueling facilities shall prepare and implement an SPCC Plan as required by paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) and
(d) of this section. The owners or operators of such facility need not prepare a new SPCC Plan each time the facility is moved to a new site. The SPCC Plan may be a general plan, prepared in accordance with section 112.7, using good engineering practice. When the mobile or portable facility is moved, it must be located and installed using the spill prevention practices outlined in the SPCC Plan for the facility. No mobile or portable facility subject to this regulation shall operate unless the SPCC Plan has been implemented. The SPCC Plan shall only apply while the facility is in a fixed (non-transportation) operations mode.
(d) No SPCC Plan shall be effective to satisfy the requirements of this part unless it has been reviewed by a Registered Professional Engineer and certified to by such Professional Engineer. By means of this certification the engineer, having examined the facility and being familiar with the provisions of this part, shall attest that the SPCC Plan has been prepared in accordance with good engineering practices. Such certification shall in no way relieve the owner or operator of an onshore or offshore facility of his duty to prepare and fully implement such Plan in accordance with § 112.7, as required by paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) and
(c) of this section.
(e) Owners or operators of a facility for which an SPCC Plan is required pursuant to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section shall maintain a complete copy of the Plan at such facility if the facility is normally attended at least 8 hours per day, or at the nearest field office if the facility is not so attended, and shall make such Plan available to the Regional Administrator for on-site review during normal working hours.
(f) Extensions of time.
(1) The Regional Administrator may authorize an extension of time for the preparation and full implementation of an SPCC Plan beyond the time permitted for the preparation and implementation of an SPCC Plan pursuant to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section where he finds that the owner or operator of a facility subject to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section cannot fully comply with the requirements of this part as a result of either nonavailability of qualified personnel, or delays in construction or equipment delivery beyond the control and without the fault of such owner or operator or their respective agents or employees.
(2) Any owner or operator seeking an extension of time pursuant to paragraph
(f) (1) of this section may submit a letter of request to the Regional Administrator. Such letter shall include:
(i) A complete copy of the SPCC Plan, if completed;
(ii) A full explanation of the cause for any such delay and the specific aspects of the SPCC Plan affected by the delay;
(iii) A full discussion of actions being taken or contemplated to minimize or mitigate such delay;
(iv) A proposed time schedule for the implementation of any corrective actions being taken or contemplated, including interim dates for completion of tests or studies, installation and operation of any necessary equipment or other preventive measures.
In addition, such owner or operator may present additional oral or written statements in support of his letter of request.
(3) The submission of a letter of request for extension of time pursuant to paragraph
(f) (2) of this section shall in no way relieve the owner or operator from his obligation to comply with the requirements of § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) . Where an extension of time is authorized by the Regional Administrator for particular equipment or other specific aspects of the SPCC Plan, such extension shall in no way affect the owner's or operator's obligation to comply with the requirements of § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) with respect to other equipment or other specific aspects of the SPCC Plan for which an extension of time has not been expressly authorized.
(a) Notwithstanding compliance with § 112.3, whenever a facility subject to § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) has: Discharged more than 1,000 U.S. gallons of oil into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines in a single spill event, or discharged oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines in two spill events, reportable under section 311(b)(3) of the FWPCA, occurring within any twelve month period, the owner or operator of such facility shall submit to the Regional Administrator, within 90 days from the time such facility becomes subject to this section, the following:
(1) Name of the facility;
(2) Name(s) of the owner or operator of the facility;
(3) Location of the facility;
(4) Date and year of initial facility operation;
(5) Maximum storage or handling capacity of the facility and normal daily throughput;
(6) Description of the facility, including maps, flow diagrams, and topographical maps;
(7) A complete copy of the SPCC Plan with any amendments;
(8) The cause(s) of such spill, including a failure analysis of system or subsystem in which the failure occurred;
(9) The corrective actions and/or countermeasures taken, including an adequate description of equipment repairs and/or replacements;
(10) Additional preventive measures taken or contemplated to minimize the possibility of recurrence;
(11) Such other information as the Regional Administrator may reasonably require pertinent to the Plan or spill event.
(b) Section 112.4 shall not apply until the expiration of the time permitted for the preparation and implementation of an SPCC Plan pursuant to § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) ,
(c) and
(f) .
(c) A complete copy of all information provided to the Regional Administrator pursuant to paragraph
(a) of this section shall be sent at the same time to the State agency in charge of water pollution control activities in and for the State in which the facility is located. Upon receipt of such information such State agency may conduct a review and make recommendations to the Regional Administrator as to further procedures, methods, equipment and other requirements for equipment necessary to prevent and to contain discharges of oil from such facility.
(d) After review of the SPCC Plan for a facility subject to paragraph
(a) of this section, together with all other information submitted by the owner or operator of such facility, and by the State agency under paragraph
(c) of this section, the Regional Administrator may require the owner or operator of such facility to amend the SPCC Plan if he finds that the Plan does not meet the requirements of this part or that the amendment of the Plan is necessary.
sary to prevent and to contain discharges of oil from such facility.
(e) When the Regional Administrator proposes to require an amendment to the SPCC Plan, he shall notify the facility operator by certified mail addressed to, or by personal delivery to, the facility owner or operator, that he proposes to require an amendment to the Plan, and shall specify the terms of such amendment. If the facility owner or operator is a corporation, a copy of such notice shall also be mailed to the registered agent, if any, of such corporation in the State where such facility is located. Within 30 days from receipt of such notice, the facility owner or operator may submit written information, views, and arguments on the amendment. After considering all relevant material presented, the Regional Administrator shall notify the facility owner or operator of any amendment required or shall rescind the notice. The amendment required by the Regional Administrator shall become part of the Plan 30 days after such notice, unless the Regional Administrator, for good cause, shall specify another effective date. The owner or operator of the facility shall implement the amendment of the Plan as soon as possible, but not later than six months after the amendment becomes part of the Plan, unless the Regional Administrator specifies another date.
(f) An owner or operator may appeal a decision made by the Regional Administrator requiring an amendment to an SPCC Plan. The appeal shall be made to the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency and must be made in writing within 30 days of receipt of the notice from the Regional Administrator requiring the amendment. A complete copy of the appeal must be sent to the Regional Administrator at the time the appeal is made. The appeal shall contain a clear and concise statement of the issues and points of fact in the case. It may also contain additional information from the owner or operator, or from any other person. The Administrator or his designee may request additional information from the owner or operator, or from any other person. The Administrator or his designee shall render a decision within 60 days of receiving the appeal and shall notify the owner or operator of his decision. [41 FR 12637, March 26, 1976]
Control and Countermeasure Plans by owners or operators.
(a) Owners or operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) shall amend the SPCC Plan for such facility in accordance with $112.7 whenever there is a change in facility design, construction, operation or maintenance which materially affects the facility's potential for the discharge of oil into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines. Such amendments shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than six months after such change occurs.
(b) Notwithstanding compliance with paragraph
(a) of this section, owners and operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) shall complete a review and evaluation of the SPCC Plan at least once every three years from the date such facility becomes subject to this part. As a result of this review and evaluation, the owner or operator shall amend the SPCC Plan within six months of the review to include more effective prevention and control technology if: (1) Such technology will significantly reduce the likelihood of a spill event from the facility, and (2) If such technology has been field-proven at the time of the review.
(c) No amendment to an SPCC Plan shall be effective to satisfy the requirements of this section unless it has been certified by a Professional Engineer in accordance with $112.3(\mathrm{~d})$. § 112.6 Civil penalties for violation of Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations. Owners or operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) who violate the requirements of this Part 112 by failing 's refusing to comply with any of the provisions of $112.3, $ 112.4$ or $112.5 shall be liable for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each day such violation continues. Civil penalties shall be imposed in accordance with procedures set out in Part 114 of this subchapter D.
vention Control and Countermeasure Plan. The SPCC Plan shall be a carefully thought-out plan, prepared in accordance with good engineering practices, and which has the full approval of management at a level with authority to commit the necessary resources. If the plan calls for additional facilities or procedures, methods, or equipment not yet fully operational, these items should be discussed in separate paragraphs, and the details of installation and operational start-up should be explained separately. The complete SPCC Plan shall follow the sequence outlined below, and include a discussion of the facility's conformance with the appropriate guidelines listed:
(a) A facility which has experienced one or more spill events within twelve months prior to the effective date of this part should include a written description of each such spill, corrective action taken and plans for preventing recurrence.
(b) Where experience indicates a reasonable potential for equipment failure (such as tank overflow, rupture, or leakage), the plan should include a prediction of the direction, rate of flow, and total quantity of oil which could be discharged from the facility as a result of each major type of failure.
(c) Appropriate containment and/or diversionary structures or equipment to prevent discharged oil from reaching a navigable water course should be provided. One of the following preventive systems or its equivalent should be used as a minimum: (1) Onshore facilities. (1) Dikes, berms or retaining wells sufficiently impervious to contain spilled oil (ii) Curbing (iii) Culverting, gutters or other drainage systems (iv) Pairs, booms or other barriers
(v) Spill diversion ponds (vi) Retention ponds (vii) Sorbent materials (2) Offshore facilities.
(i) Curbing, drip pans (ii) Bumps and collection systems
(d) When it is determined that the installation of structures or equipment listed in $112.7(\mathrm{~d})$ to prevent discharged oil from reaching the navigable waters is not practicable from any onshore or offshore facility, the owner or operator should clearly demonstrate such impracticability and provide the following: (1) A strong oil spill contingency plan following the provision of 40 CFR Part 108. (2) A written commitment of manpower, equipment and materials required to expeditiously control and remove any harmful quantity of oil discharged.
(e) In addition to the minimal prevention standards listed under $112.7
(c) , sections of the Plan should include a complete discussion of conformance with the following applicable guidelines, other effective spill prevention and containment procedures (or, if more stringent, with State rules, regulations and guidelines): (1) Facility drainage (onshore): (excluding production facilities).
(i) Drainage from dined storage areas should be restrained by valves or other positive means to prevent a spill or other excessive leakage of oil into the drainage system or implant effluent treatment system, except where plan systems are designed to handle such leakage. Dined areas may be emptied by pumps or electors; however, these should be manually activated and the condition of the accumulation should be examined before starting to be sure no oil will be discharged into the water. (ii) Plopper-type drain valves should not be used to drain dined areas. Valves used for the drainage of dined areas should, as far as practical, be of manual, open-and-closed design. When plant drainage drains directly into water courses and not into wastewater treatment plants, retained storm water should be inspected as provided in paragraph
(e) (3) (iii) (B, C and D) before drainage. (iii) Plant drainage systems from undined areas should, if possible, flow into ponds, lagoons or catchment basins, designed to retain oil or return it to the facility. Catchment basins should not be located in areas subject to periodic flooding. (iv) If plant drainage is not engineered as above, the final discharge of all in-plant ditches should be equipped with a diversion system that could, in
the event of an uncontrolled spill, return the oil to the plant.
(v) Where drainage waters are treated in more than one treatment unit, natural hydraulic flow should be used. If pump transfer is needed, two "lift" pumps should be provided, and at least one of the pumps should be permanently installed when such treatment is continuous. In any event, whatever techniques are used facility drainage systems should be adequately engineered to prevent oil from reaching navigable waters in the event of equipment failure or human error at the facility. (2) Bulk storage tanks (onshore) ; (excluding production facilities). (1) No tank should be used for the storage of oil unless its material and construction are compatible with the material stored and conditions of storage such as pressure and temperature, etc. (ii) All bulk storage tank installations should be constructed so that a secondary means of containment is provided for the entire contents of the largest single tank plus sufficient freeboard to allow for precipitation. Diked areas should be sufficiently impervious to contain spilled oil. Dikes, containment curbs, and pits are commonly employed for this purpose, but they may not always be appropriate. An alternative system could consist of a complete drainage trench enclosure arranged so that a spill could terminate and be safely confined in an in-plant catchment basin or holding pond. (iii) Drainage of rainwater from the diked area into a storm drain or an effluent discharge that empties into an open water course, lake, or pond, and bypassing the in-plant treatment system may be acceptable if: (A) The bypass valve is normally sealed closed. (B) Inspection of the run-off rain water ensures compliance with applicable water quality standards and will not cause a harmful discharge as defined in 61 CFR 110. (C) The bypass valve is opened, and resealed following drainage under responsible supervision. (D) Adequate records are kept of such events. (iv) Buried metallic storage tanks represent a potential for undetected spills. A new buried installation should be protected from corrosion by coatings, cathodic protection or other effective methods compatible with local soil conditions. Such buried tanks should at least be subjected to regular pressure testing.
(v) Partially buried metallic tanks for the storage of oil should be avoided, unless the buried section of the shell is adequately coated, since partial burial in damp earth can cause rapid corrosion of metallic surfaces, especially at the earth/ air interface. (vi) Aboveground tanks should be subject to periodic integrity testing, taking into account tank design (floating roof, etc.) and using such techniques as hydrostatic testing, visual inspection or a system of non-destructive shell thickness testing. Comparison records should be kept where appropriate, and tank supports and foundations should be included in these inspections. In addition, the outside of the tank should frequently be observed by operating personnel for signs of deterioration, leaks which might cause a spill, or accumulation of oil inside diked areas. (vii) To control leakage through defective internal heating coils, the following factors should be considered and applied, as appropriate. (A) The steam return or exhaust lines from internal heating coils which discharge into an open water course should be monitored for contamination, or passed through a settling tank, skimmer, or other separation or retention system. (B) The feasibility of installing an external heating system should also be considered. (viii) New and old tank installations should, as far as practical, be fall-safe engineered or updated into a fall-safe engineered installation to avoid spills. Consideration should be given to providing one or more of the following devices: (A) High liquid level alarms with an audible or visual signal at a constantly manned operation or surveillance station; in smaller plants an audible air vent may suffice. (B) Considering size and complexity of the facility, high liquid level pump cutoff devices set to stop flow at a predetermined tank content level. (C) Direct audible or code signal communication between the tank gauger and the pumping station. (D) A fast response system for determining the liquid level of each bulk storage tank such as digital computers, telemules, or direct vision gauges on their equivalent. (B) Liquid level sensing devices should be regularly tested to insure proper operation. (ix) Plant effluents which are discharged into navigable waters should have disposal facilities observed frequently enough to detect possible system upsets that could cause an oil spill event.
(x) Visible oil leaks which result in a loss of oil from tank seams, gaskets, rivets and bolts sufficiently large to cause the accumulation of oil in diked areas should be promptly corrected. (xi) Mobile or portable oil storage tanks (onshore) should be positioned or located so as to prevent spilled oil from reaching navigable waters. A secondary means of containment, such as dikes or catchment basins, should be furnished for the largest single compartment or tank. These facilities should be located where they will not be subject to periodic flooding or washout. (3) Facility transfer operations, pumping, and in-plant process (onshore) ; (excluding production facilities). (1) Buried piping installations should have a protective wrapping and coating and should be cathodically protected if soil conditions warrant. If a section of buried line is exposed for any reason, it should be carefully examined for deterioration. If corrosion damage is found, additional examination and corrective action should be taken as indicated by the magnitude of the damage. An alternative would be the more frequent use of exposed pipe corridors or galleries. (ii) When a pipeline is not in service, or in standby service for an extended time the terminal connection at the transfer point should be capped or blank-funged, and marked as to origin. (iii) Pipe supports should be properly designed to minimize abrasion and corrosion and allow for expansion and contraction.
Environment Reporter (iv) All aboveground valves and pipelines should be subjected to regular examinations by operating personnel at which time the general condition of items, such as flange joints, expansion joints, valve glands and bodies, catch pans, pipeline supports, locking of valves, and metal surfaces should be assessed. In addition, periodic pressure testing may be warranted for piping in areas where facility drainage is such that a failure might lead to a spill event.
(v) Vehicular traffic granted entry into the facility should be warned verbally or by appropriate signs to be sure that the vehicle, because of its size, will not endanger above ground piping. (4) Facility tank car and tank truck loading/unloading rack (onshore). (1) Tank car and tank truck loading/unloading procedures should meet the minimum requirements and regulation established by the Department of Transportation. (iii) Where rack area drainage does not flow into a catchment basin or treatment facility designed to handle spills, a quick drainage system should be used for tank truck loading and unloading areas. The containment system should be designed to hold at least maximum capacity of any single compartment of a tank car or tank truck loaded or unloaded in the plant. (iii) An interlocked warning light or physical barrier system, or warning signs, should be provided in loading/unloading areas to prevent vehicular departure before complete disconnect of flexible or fixed transfer lines. (iv) Prior to filling and departure of any tank car or tank truck, the lewermost drain and all outlets of such vehicles should be closely examined for leakage, and if necessary, tightened, adjusted, or replaced to prevent liquid leakage while in transit. (5) Oil production facilities (onshore). (1) Definition. An onshore production facility may include all wells, fowlines, separation equipment, storage facilities, gathering lines, and auxiliary non-trans-portation-related equipment and facilities in a single geographical oil or gas field operated by a single operator. (iii) Oil production facility (onshore) drainage. (A) At tank batteries and central treating stations where an accidental discharge of oil would have a reasonable possibility of reaching navigable waters, the dikes or equivalent required under § 112.7(c) (1) should have drains closed and sealed at all times except when rainwater is being drained. Prior to drainage, the diked area should be inspected as provided in paragraph
(a) (2) (iii) (B), (1), and (D). Accumulated oil on the rainwater should be picked up and returned to storage or disposed of in accordance with approved methods. (B) Field drainage ditches, road ditches, and oil traps, sumps or skimmers. If such exist, should be inspected at regularly scheduled intervals for accumulation of oil that may have escaped from small leaks. Any such accumulations should be removed. (iii) Oil production facility (onshore) bulk storage tanks. (A) No tank should be used for the storage of oil unless its material and construction are compatible with the material stored and the conditions of storage. (See. 112.7(c)(5)(iii))
(B) All tank battery and central treating plant installations should be provided with a secondary means of containment for the entire contents of the largest single tank if feasible, or alternate systems such as those outlined in 113.7(c)(1). Drainage from undiked areas should be safely confined in a catchment basin or holding pond. (C) All tanks containing oil should be visually examined by a competent person for condition and need for maintenance on a scheduled periodic basis. Such examination should include the foundation and supports of tanks that are above the surface of the ground. (D) New and old tank battery installations should, as far as practical, be failsafe engineered or updated into a failsafe engineered installation to prevent spills. Consideration should be given to one or more of the following: (1) Adequate tank capacity to assure that a tank will not overfill should a pumper/gauder be delayed in making his regular rounds. (2) Overflow equalizing lines between tanks so that a full tank can overflow to an adjacent tank. (3) Adequate vacuum protection to prevent tank collapse during a pipeline run. (4) High level sensors to generate and transmit an alarm signal to the computer where facilities are a part of a computer production control system. (iv) Facility transfer operations, oil production facility (coahors). (A) All above ground valves and pipelines should be examined periodically on a scheduled basis for general condition of items such as flange joints, valve glands and bodies, drip pans, pipeline supports, pumping well polish rod stuffing boxes, blender and gauge valves. (B) Salt water (oil field brine) disposal facilities should be examined often, particularly following a sudden change in atmospheric temperature to detect possible system upsets that could cause an oil discharge. (C) Production facilities should have a program of flowline maintenance to prevent spills from this source. The program should include periodic examinations, corrosion protection, flowline replacement, and adequate records, as appropriate, for the individual facility. (6) Oil drilling and workover facilities (coahors) (1) Mobile drilling or workover equipment should be positioned or located so as to prevent spilled oil from reaching navigable waters. (11) Depending on the location, catchment basins or diversion structures may be necessary to intercept and contain spills of fuel, crude oil, or oily drilling fluids. (iii) Before drilling below any casing string or during workover operations, a blowout prevention (BOP) assembly and well control system should be installed that is capable of controlling any well head pressure that is expected to be encountered while that BOP assembly is on the well. Casing and BOP installations should be in accordance with State regulatory agency requirements. (7) Oil drilling, production, or workover facilities (ofahors). (1) Definition: "An oil drilling, production or workover facility (ofahors)" may include all drilling or workover equipment, wells, flowlines, gathering lines, platforms, and auxiliary nontransportation-related equipment and facilities in a single geographical oil or gas field operated by a single operator. (11) Oil drainage collection equipment should be used to prevent and control small oil spillage around pumps, glands, valves, flanges, expansion joints, boxes, drain lines, separators, treaters, tanks, and allied equipment. Drains on the facility should be controlled and directed toward a central collection sump or equivalent collection system sufficient to prevent discharges of oil into the navigable waters of the United States. Where drains and sumps are not practicable oil contained in collection equipment should be removed as often as necessary to prevent overflow. (iii) For facilities employing a sump system, sump and drains should be adequately sized and a spare pump or equivalent method should be available to remove liquid from the sump and assure that oil does not escape. A regular scheduled preventive maintenance inspection and testing program should be employed to assure reliable operation of the liquid removal system and pump start-up device. Redundant automatic sump pumps and control devices may be required on some installations. (iv) In areas where separators and treaters are equipped with dump valves whose predominant mode of failure is in the closed position and pollution risk is high, the facility should be specially equipped to prevent the escape of oil. This could be accomplished by extending the flare line to a diked area if the separator is near shore, equipping it with a high liquid level sensor that will automatically shut-in wells producing to the separator, parallel redundant dump valves, or other feasible alternatives to prevent oil discharges.
(v) Atmospheric storage or surge tanks should be equipped with high liquid level sensing devices or other acceptable alternatives to prevent oil discharges. (vi) Pressure tanks should be equipped with high and low pressure sensing devices to activate an alarm and/or control the flow or other acceptable alternatives to prevent oil discharges. (vii) Tanks should be equipped with suitable corrosion protection. (viii) A written procedure for inspecting and testing pollution prevention equipment and systems should be prepared and maintained at the facility. Such procedures should be included as part of the SPCC Plan. (ix) Testing and inspection of the pollution prevention equipment and systems at the facility should be conducted by the owner or operator on a scheduled periodic basis commensurate with the complexity, conditions and circumstances of the facility or other appropriate regulations.
(x) Surface and subsurface well shutin valves and devices in use at the facility should be sufficiently described to determine method of activation or control, e.g., pressure differential, change in fluid or flow conditions, combination of pressure and flow, manual or remote control mechanisms. Detailed records for each well, while not necessarily part of the plan should be kept by the owner or operator. (xi) Before drilling below any casing string, and during workover operations a blowout preventor (BOP) assembly and well control system should be installed that is capable of controlling any wellhead pressure that is expected to be encountered while that BOP assembly is on the well. Casing and BOP installations should be in accordance with State regulatory agency requirements. (xii) Extraordinary well control measures should be provided should emergency conditions, including fire, loss of control and other abnormal conditions, occur. The degree of control system redundancy should vary with hazard exposure and probable consequences of failure. It is recommended that surface shut-in systems have redundant or "fall close" valving. Subsurface safety valves may not be needed in producing wells that will not flow but should be installed as required by applicable State regulations. (xiii) In order that there will be no misunderstanding of joint and separate duties and obligations to perform work in a safe and pollution free manner, written instructions should be prepared by the owner or operator for contractors and subcontractors to follow whenever contract activities include servicing a well or systems appurtenant to a well or pressure vessel. Such instructions and procedures should be maintained at the offshore production facility. Under certain circumstances and conditions such contractor activities may require the presence at the facility of an authorized representative of the owner or operator who would intervene when necessary to prevent a spill event. (xiv) All manifolds (headers) should be equipped with check valves on individual flowlines. (xv) If the shut-in well pressure is greater than the working pressure of the flowline and manifold valves up to and including the header valves associated with that individual flowline, the flowline should be equipped with a high pressure sensing device and shutin valve at the wellhead unless provided with a pressure relief system to prevent over pressuring. (xvi) All pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be protected from corrosion. Methods used, such as protective coatings or cathodic protection, should be discussed. (xvii) Sub-marine pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be adequately protected against environmental stresses and other activities such as fishing operations. (xviii) Sub-marine pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be in good
operating condition at all times and inspected on a scheduled periodic basis for failures. Such inspections should be documented and maintained at the facility. (8) Inspections and records. Inspections required by this part should be in accordance with written procedures developed for the facility by the owner or operator. These written procedures and a record of the inspections, signed by the appropriate supervisor or inspector, should be made part of the SPCC Plan and maintained for a period of three years. (9) Security (excluding oil production facilities). (1) All plants handling, processing, and storing oil should be fully fenced, and entrance gates should be locked and/or guarded when the plant is not in production or is unattended. (ii) The master flow and drain valves and any other valves that will permit direct outward flow of the tank's content to the surface should be securely locked in the closed position when in non-operating or non-standby status. (iii) The starter control on all oil pumps should be locked in the "off" position or located at a site accessible only to authorized personnel when the pumps are in a non-operating or nonstandby status. (iv) The loading/unloading connections of oil pipelines should be securely capped or blank-flanged when not in service or standby service for an extended time. This security practice should also apply to pipelines that are emptied of liquid content either by draining or by inert gas pressure.
(v) Facility lighting should be commensurate with the type and location of the facility. Consideration should be given to: (A) Discovery of spills occurring during hours of darkness, both by operating personnel, if present, and by non-operating personnel (the general public, local police, etc.) and (B) prevention of spills occurring through acts of vandalism. (10) Personnel, training and spill prevention procedures. (1) Owners or operators are responsible for properly instructing their personnel in the operation and maintenance of equipment to prevent the discharges of oil and applicable pollution control laws, rules and regulations. (2) Each applicable facility should have a designated person who is accountable for oil spill prevention and who reports to line management. (11) Owners or operators should schedule and conduct spill prevention briefings for their operating personnel at intervals frequent enough to assure adequate understanding of the SPCC Plan for that facility. Such briefings should highlight and describe known spill events or failures, malfunctioning components, and recently developed precautionary measures.
Memorandum of Understanding between the Secretary of Transportation and the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency.
The Environmental Protection Agency and the Department of Transportation agree that for the purposes of Executive Order 11548, the term: (1) "Non-transportation-related onshore and offshore facilities" means: (A) Fixed onshore and offshore oil well drilling facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto used in drilling operations for exploratory or development wells, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (B) Mobile onshore and offshore oil well drilling platforms, barges, trucks, or other mobile facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto when such mobile facilities are fixed in position for the purpose of drilling operations for exploratory or development wells, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (C) Fixed onshore and offshore oil production structures, platforms, derricks, and rigs including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto, as well as completed wells and the wellhead separators, oil separators, and storage facilities used in the production of oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (D) Mobile onshore and offshore oil production facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as completed wells and wellhead equipment, piping from wellheads to oil separators, oil separators, and storage facilities used in the production of oil when such mobile facilities are fixed in position for the purpose of oil production operations, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (E) Oil refining facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as in-plant processing units, storage units, piping, drainage systems and waste treatment units used in the refining of oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (F) Oil storage facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as fixed bulk plant storage, terminal oil storage facilities, consumer storage, pumps and drainage systems used in the storage of oil, but excluding inline or breakout storage tanks needed for the continuous operation of a pipeline system and any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (G) Industrial, commercial, agricultural or public facilities which use and store oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (H) Waste treatment facilities including in-plant pipelines, offiand discharge lines, and storage tanks, but excluding waste treatment facilities located on vessels and terminal storage tanks and appurtenances for the reception of oily ballast water or tank washings from vessels and associated systems used for oil-loading vessels. (I) Loading racks, transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment which are appurtenant to a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are used to transfer oil in bulk to or from highway vehicles or railroad cars. (J) Highway vehicles and railroad cars which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce. (K) Pipeline systems which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce, but excluding pipeline systems used to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (3) "transportation-related onshore and offshore facilities" means: (A) Onshore and offshore terminal facilities including transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment and appurtenances used for the purpose of handling or transferring oil in bulk to or from a vessel as well as storage tanks and appurtenances for the reception of oily ballast water or tank washings from vessels, but excluding terminal waste treatment facilities and terminal oil storage facilities. (B) Transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment appurtenant to a non-transportation-related facility which is used to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (C) Interstate and intrastate onshore and offshore pipeline systems including pumps and appurtenances related thereto as well as in-line or breakout storage tanks needed for the continuous operation of a pipeline system, and pipelines from onshore and offshore oil production facilities, but excluding onshore and offshore piping from wellheads to oil separators and pipelines which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportationrelated facility or terminal facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce or to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (D) Highway vehicles and railroad cars which are used for the transport of oil in interstate or intrastate commerce and the equipment and appurtenances related thereto, and equipment used for the fueling of locomotive units, as well as the rights-of-way on which they operate. Excluded are highway vehicles and railroad cars and motive power used exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are not intended for use in interstate or intrastate commerce.
.
Appendix I Representative Sampling Methods
ANEJO B-2 Appendix I Representative Sampling Methods
The methods and equipment used for sampling waste materials will vary with the form and consistency of the waste materials to be sampled. Samples collected using the sampling protocols listed below, for sampling waste with properties similar to the indicated materials, will be considered by the Agency to be representative of the waste.
Extremely viscous liquid-ASTM Standard D140-70 Crushed or powdered material-ASTM Standard D346-75 Soil or rock-like material-ASTM Standard D420-69 Soil-like material-ASTM Standard D1452-65
Fly Ash-like material-ASTM Standard D2234-76 (ASTM Standards are available from ASTM, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19103)
Containerized liquid wastes-"COLIWASA" described in "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Solid Waste, Washington, D.C. 20460. (Copies may be obtained from Solid Waste Information, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 26 W. St. Clair St., Cincinnati, Ohio 45268)
Liquid waste in pits, ponds, lagoons, and similar reservoirs-"Pond Sampler" described in "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods."
This manual also contains additional information on application of these protocols.
ANEJO B-14 Appendix VII Basis for Listing Hazardous Waste
[Appendix VII amended by 45 FR 47833. July 16, 1980; revised by 45 FR 74890. November 12, 1980; 46 FR 4617. January 16, 1981; 49 FR 5312. February 10, 1984; 50 FR 1999. January 14, 1985; 50 FR 42942. October 23, 1985; 51 FR 5330. February 13, 1986; 51 FR 6541. February 25, 1986]
EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous constituents for which listed |
---|---|
F001 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons. |
F002 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, trichlorofluoromethane. |
F003 | N.A. |
F004 | Cresols and cresols: acid, nitrobenzene. |
F005 | Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, 2-ethyl-9-ethynol, benzene, 2-nitropropene. |
F006 | Cadmium, hexavalent chromium, nickel, cyanide (complexed). |
F007 | Cyanide (salts). |
F008 | Cyanide (salts). |
F009 | Cyanide (salts). |
F010 | Cyanide (salts). |
F011 | Cyanide (salts). |
F012 | Cyanide (complexed). |
F013 | Hexavalent chromium, cyanide (complexed). |
F014 | Tetra- and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins: tetra and pentachlorobenzofurans: tri- and tetrachloro-9-phenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F015 | Pentachlorophenol, phenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2,4-dimethylphenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2, |
K047 | N.A. |
---|---|
K048 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K049 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K050 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K051 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K052 | Lead. |
K060 | Cyanide, naphthalene, phenolic compounds, arsenic. |
K061 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K062 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K063 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K071 | Mercury. |
K073 | Chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, trichloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, dichloroethylene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K083 | Aniline, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K084 | Arsenic. |
K085 | Benzene, dichlorobenzene, trichlorobenzene, tetrachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, benzyl chloride. |
K086 | Lead, hexavalent chromium. |
K087 | Phenol, naphthalene. |
K093 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
K094 | Phthalic anhydride. |
K095 | 1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K096 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane. |
K097 | Chlordane, heptachlor. |
K098 | Tetrachloroethane. |
K099 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K100 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K101 | Arsenic. |
K102 | Arsenic. |
K103 | Aniline, nitrolutriene, phenylenediamine. |
K104 | Aniline, benzene, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K105 | Benzene, monochlorobenzene, dichlorobenzene, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K106 | Mercury. |
K111 | 2,4-Dimethylamine. |
K112 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K113 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K114 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine. |
K115 | 2,4-Toluenediamine. |
K116 | Carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, chloroform, phosgene. |
K117 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K118 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K136 | Ethylene dibromide. |
N.A. - Waste is hazardous because it fails the test for the characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
ANEJO B-15 Appendix A (Método 3) Gas Analysis for Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, Excess Air and Dry Molecular Weight
.
121:1574
and carbon monoxide (CO) concentrations are measured at the outlet. Then the ratio of total carbon at the incinerator inlet and outlet is multiplied by the inlet volume to determine the exhaust volume and volume flow rate.
2.1 Volume Meter. Equipment described in Method 2A.
2.2 Organic Analyzers (2). Equipment described in Method 25A or 25B.
[2.2 head corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
2.3 CO Analyzer. Equipment described in Method 10.
2.4 CO2 Analyzer. A nondispersive infrared (NDIR) CO2 analyzer and supporting equipment with comparable specifications as CO2 analyzer described in Method 10.
3.1 Inlet Installation. Install a volume meter in the vapor line to incinerator inlet according to the procedure in Method 2A. At the volume meter inlet, install a sample probe as described in Method 25A. Connect to the probe a leak-tight, heated (if necessary to prevent condensation) sample line (stainless steel or equivalent) and an organic analyzer system as described in Method 25A or 25B.
[3.1 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
3.2 Exhaust Installation. Three sample analyzers are required for the incinerator exhaust: CO2, CO, and organic analyzers. A sample manifold with a single sample probe may be used. Install a sample probe as described in Method 25A. Connect a leak-tight heated sample line to the sample probe. Heat the sample line sufficiently to prevent any condensation.
3.3 Recording Requirements. The output of each analyzer must be permanently recorded on an analog strip chart, digital recorder, or other recording device. The chart speed or number of readings per time unit must be similar for all analyzers so that data can be correlated. The minimum data recording requirement for each analyzer is one measurement value per minute.
3.4 Preparation. Prepare and calibrate all equipment and analyzers according to the procedures in the respective methods. For the CO2 analyzer, follow the procedures described in Method 10 for CO analysis substituting CO2 calibration gas where the method calls for CO calibration gas. The span value for the CO2 analyzer shall be 15 percent by volume. All calibration gases must be introduced at the connection between the probe and the sample line. If a manifold system is used for the exhaust analyzers, all the analyzers and sample pumps must be operating when the calibrations are done. Note: For the purposes of this test, methane should not be used as an organic calibration gas.
3.5 Sampling. At the beginning of the test period, record the initial parameters for the inlet volume meter according to the procedures in Method 2A and mark all of the recorder strip charts to indicate the start of the test. Continue recording inlet organic and exhaust CO2, CO, and organic concentrations throughout the test. During periods of process interruption and halting of gas flow, stop the timer and mark the recorder strip charts so that data from this interruption are not included in the calculations. At the end of the test period, record the final parameters for the inlet volume meter and mark the end on all of the recorder strip charts.
3.6 Post Test Calibrations. At the conclusion of the sampling period, introduce the calibration gases as specified in the respective reference methods. If an analyzer output does not meet the specifications of the method, invalidate the test data for the period. Alternatively, calculate the volume results using initial calibration data and using final calibration data and report both resulting volumes. Then, for emissions calculations, use the volume measurement resulting in the greatest emission rate or concentration.
Carry out the calculations, retaining at least one extra decimal figure beyond that of the acquired data. Round off figures after the final calculation.
4.1 Nomenclature
[4.1 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ ext{CO}_2 = ext{Mean carbon monoxide concentration in system exhaust, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{CO}_2 = ext{Mean carbon dioxide concentration in system exhaust, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{HC}_2 = ext{Mean organic concentration in system exhaust as defined by the calibration gas, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{HC}_2 = ext{Mean organic concentration in system inlet as defined by the calibration gas, ppmv.} $$
[Corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ ext{K} = ext{Calibration gas factor} $$
$$ = 2 ext{ for ethane calibration gas.} $$
[4.1 "K" definition corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ = 3 ext{ for propane calibration gas.} $$
$$ = 4 ext{ for butane calibration gas.} $$
$$ ext{V}_m = ext{Exhaust gas volume, M}^3. $$
$$ ext{V}_m = ext{Inlet gas volume, M}^3. $$
$$ ext{Q}_m = ext{Exhaust gas volume flow rate, m}^3/ ext{min.} $$
$$ ext{Q}_m = ext{Inlet gas volume flow rate, m}^3/ ext{min.} $$
$$ ext{v} = ext{Sample run time, min.} $$
$$ ext{G} = ext{Standard Conditions: 20°C, 760 mm Hg.} $$
$300 = ext{Estimated concentration of ambient CO}_2, ext{ppmv. [CO}_2] concentration in the ambient air may be measured during the test period using an NDIR.} $$
[Corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
4.2 Concentrations. Determine mean concentrations of inlet organics, outlet CO2, outlet CO, and outlet organics according to the procedures in the respective methods and the analyzers' calibration curves, and for the time intervals specified in the applicable regulations. Concentrations should be determined on a parts per million by volume (ppmv) basis.
[4.2 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
4.3 Exhaust Gas Volume. Calculate the exhaust gas volume as follows:
$$ ext{V}_m = \frac{V_s}{K[H_2]_0 + CO_2 + CO_2 - 300} $$
[4.3 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
Eq. 2B-1
4.4 Exhaust Gas Volume Flow Rate. Calculate the exhaust gas volume flow rate as follows:
$$ ext{Q}_m = \frac{V_s}{G} $$
Eq. 2B-2
5.1 Measurement of Volatile Organic Compounds. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park, N.C. 27711. Publication No. EPA-450/2-78-041. October 1979, p. 55.
Method 3—Gas Analysis for Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, Excess Air, and Dry Molecular Weight
1.1 Principle. A gas sample is extracted from a stack, by use of the following methods: (1) single-point, grid sampling; (2) single-point, integrated sampling, or (3) multi-point, integrated sampling. The gas sample is analyzed for percent carbon dioxide (CO2), percent oxygen (O2), and, if necessary, percent carbon monoxide (CO). If a dry molecular weight determination is to be made, either as Ucal or a Pyriol, a analyzer may be used for the analysis; for excess air or
Figure 3-1. Grab sampling train.
Figure 3-2. Integrated gas-sampling train. [43 FR 1495, January 10, 1978]
121:1576
2.2.2 Condenser. An air-cooled or water-cooled condenser, or other condenser that will not remove O2, CO2, CO, and N2, may be used to remove excess moisture which would interfere with the operation of the pump and flow meter.
2.2.3 Valve. A needle valve is used to adjust sample gas flow rate.
2.2.4 Pump. A leak-free, diaphragm-type pump, or equivalent, is used to transport sample gas to the flexible bag. Install a small surge tank between the pump and rate meter to eliminate the pulsation effect of the diaphragm pump on the rotameter.
2.2.5 Rate Meter. The rotameter, or equivalent rate meter, used should be capable of measuring flow rate to within ±2 percent of the selected flow rate. A flow rate range of 500 to 1000 cm³/min is suggested.
2.2.6 Flexible Bag. Any leak-free plastic (e.g., Tedlar, Mylar, Teflon) or plastic-coated aluminum (e.g., aluminized Mylar) bag, or equivalent, having a capacity consistent with the selected flow rate and time length of the test run, may be used. A capacity in the range of 55 to 90 liters is suggested.
To leak-check the bag, connect it to a water manometer and pressurize the bag to 5 to 10 cm H2O (2 to 4 in. H2O). Allow to stand for 10 minutes. Any displacement in the water manometer indicates a leak. An alternative leak-check method is to pressurize the bag to 5 to 10 cm H2O (2 to 4 in. H2O) and allow to stand overnight. A deflated bag indicates a leak.
2.2.7 Pressure Gauge. A water-filled U-tube manometer, or equivalent, of about 38 cm (12 in.) is used for the flexible bag leak-check.
2.2.8 Vacuum Gauge. A mercury manometer, or equivalent, of at least 760 mm Hg (36 in. Hg) is used for the sampling train leak-check.
2.3 Analysis. For Orsat and Pyrite analyzer maintenance and operation procedures, follow the instructions recommended by the manufacturer, unless otherwise specified herein.
2.3.1 Dry Molecular Weight Determination. An Orsat analyzer or Pyrite type combustion gas analyzer may be used.
2.3.2 Emission Rate Correction Factor or Excess Air Determination. An Orsat analyzer must be used. For low CO2 (less than 4.0 percent) or high O2 (greater than 15.0 percent) concentrations, the measuring burette of the Orsat must have at least 0.1 percent subdivisions.
Any of the three sampling and analytical procedures described below may be used for determining the dry molecular weight.
3.1 Single-Point, Grab Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.1.1 The sampling point in the duct shall either be at the centroid of the cross section or at a point no closer to the walls than 1.00 m (3.3 ft), unless otherwise specified by the Administrator.
3.1.2 Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-1, making sure all connections ahead of the analyzer are tight and leak-free. If an Orsat analyzer is used, it is recommended that the analyzer be leaked, checked by following the procedure in Section 5; however, the leak-check is optional.
3.1.3 Place the probe in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Draw a sample into the analyzer and immediately analyze it for percent CO2 and percent O2. Determine the percentage of the gas that is N2 and CO by subtracting the sum of the percent CO2 and percent O2 from 100 percent. Calculate the dry molecular weight as indicated in Section 6.3.
3.1.4 Repeat the sampling, analysis, and calculation procedures, until the dry molecular weights of any three grab samples differ from their mean by no more than 0.3 g/g-mole (0.3 lb/lb-mole). Average these three molecular weights, and report the results to the nearest 0.1 g/g-mole (lb/lb-mole).
3.2 Single-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.2.1 The sampling point in the duct shall be located as specified in Section 3.1.1.
3.2.2 Leak-check (optional) the flexible bag as in Section 2.2.6. Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-2. Just prior to sampling, leak-check (optional) the train by placing a vacuum gauge at the condenser inlet, pulling a vacuum of at least 250 mm Hg (10 in. Hg), plugging the outlet at the quick disconnect, and then turning off the pump. The vacuum should remain stable for at least 0.5 minute. Evacuate the flexible bag. Connect the probe and place it in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Next, connect the bag and make sure that all connections are tight and leak-free.
3.2.3 Sample at a constant rate. The sampling run should be simultaneous with, and for the same total length of time as, the pollutant emission rate determination. Collection of at least 30 liters (1.00 ft³) of sample gas is recommended; however, smaller volumes may be collected, if desired.
3.2.4 Obtain one integrated flue gas sample during each pollutant emission rate determination. Within 8 hours after the sample is taken, analyze it for percent CO2 and percent O2 using either an Orsat analyzer or a Pyrite-type combustion gas analyzer. If an Orsat analyzer is used, it is recommended that the Orsat leak-check described in Section 5 be performed before this determination; however, the check is optional. Determine the percentage of the gas that is N2 and CO by subtracting the sum of the percent CO2 and percent O2 from 100 percent. Calculate the dry molecular weight as indicated in Section 6.3.
3.2.5 Repeat the analysis and calculation procedures until the individual dry molecular weights for any three analyses differ from their mean by no more than 0.3 g/g-mole (0.3 lb/lb-mole). Average these three molecular weights, and report the results to the nearest 0.1 g/g-mole (0.1 lb/lb-mole).
3.3 Multi-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.3.1 Unless otherwise specified by the Administrator, a minimum of eight traverse points shall be used for circular stacks having diameters less than 0.61 m (24 in.), a minimum of nine shall be used for rectangular stacks having equivalent diameters less than 0.61 m (24 in.), and a minimum of twelve traverse points shall be used for all other cases. The traverse points shall be located according to Method 1. The use of fewer points is subject to approval of the Administrator.
3.3.2 Follow the procedures outlined in sections 3.2.2 through 3.2.5, except for the following: traverse all sampling points and sample at each point for an equal length of time. Record sampling data as shown in Figure 3-2.
Nortz. A Pyrite-type combustion gas analyzer is not acceptable for excess air or emission rate correction factor determination, unless approved by the Administrator. If both percent CO2 and percent O2 are measured, the analytical results of any of the three procedures given below may also be used for calculating the dry molecular weight.
Each of the three procedures below shall be used only when specified in an applicable subpart of the standards. The use of these procedures for other purposes must have specific prior approval of the Administrator.
[Appendix A, Method 3]
Environment Reporter
30
4.1 Single-Point, Grab Sampling and Analytical Procedure 4.1.1 The sampling point in the duct shall either be at the centroid of the crosssection or at a point no closer to the walls than $1.00 \mathrm{~m}(3.3 \mathrm{ft}$ ), unless otherwise specified by the Administrator. 4.1.2 Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-1, making sure all connections ahead of the analyzer are tight and leakfree. Leak-check the Orsat analyzer according to the procedure described in Section 5. This leak-check is mandatory.
Figure 3-3. Sampling rate data. 4.1.3 Place the probe in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Draw a sample into the analyzer. For emission rate correction factor determination, immediately analyze the sample, as outlined in Sections 4.1.4 and 4.1.5, for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$. If excess air is desired, proceed as follows: (1) immediately analyze the sample, as in Sections 4.1.4 and 4.1.5, for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, and $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ (2) determine the percentage of the gas that is $\mathrm{N}{2}$ by subtracting the sum of the percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$, percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$, and percent CO from 100 percent; and (3) calculate percent excess air as outlined in Section 6.2. 4.1.4 To insure complete absorption of the $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, or if applicable, $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ make repeated passes through each absorbing solution until two consecutive readings are the same. Several passes (three or four) should be made between readings. (If constant readings cannot be obtained after three consecutive readings, replace the absorbing solution.) 4.1.5 After the analysis is completed, leak-check (mandatory) the Orsat analyzer once again, as described in Section 5. For the results of the analysis to be valid, the Orsat analyzer must pass this leak test before and after the analysis. Note: Since this single-point, grab sampling and analytical procedure in normally conducted in conjunction with a singlepoint, grab sampling and analytical procedure for a pollutant, only one analysis is ordinarily conducted. Therefore, great care must be taken to obtain a valid sample and analysis. Although in most cases only $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or $\mathrm{O}{3}$ is required, it is recommended that both $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ and $\mathrm{O}{3}$ be measured, and that Section 4.4 be used to validate the analytical data. [4.1.5 Note amended by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983] 4.2 Single-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure. 4.2.1 The sampling point in the duct shall be located as specified in Section 4.1.1. 4.2.2 Leak-check (mandatory) the flexible bag as in Section 2.2.6. Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-2. Just prior to sampling, leak-check (mandatory) the train by placing a vacuum gauge at the condenser inlet, pulling a vacuum of a least 250 mm Hg ( 10 in. Hg), plugging the outlet at the quick disconnect, and then turning off the pump. The vacuum shall remain stable for at least 0.5 minute. Evacuate the flexible bag. Connect the probe and place it in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Next, connect the bag and make sure that all connections are tight and leak free. 4.2.3 Sample at a constant rate, or as specified by the Administrator. The sampling run must be simultaneous with, and for the same total lengh of time as, the pollutant emission rate determination. Collect at least 30 liters ( $1.00 \mathrm{ft}^{3}$ ) of sample gas. Smaller volumes may be collected, subject to approval of the Administrator. 4.2.4 Obtain one integrated flue gas sample during each pollutant emission rate determination. For emission rate correction factor determination, analyze the sample within 4 hours after it is taken for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$ (as outlined in Sections 4.2.5 through 4.2.7). The Orsat analyzer must be leak-check (see Section 5) before the analysis. If excess air is desired, proceed as follows: (1) within 4 hours after the sample is taken, analyze it (as in Sections 4.2.5 through 4.2.7) for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, and $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ (2) determine the percentage of the gas that is $\mathrm{N}{2}$ by subtracting the sum of the percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$, percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$, and percent CO from 100 percent; (3) calculate percent excess air. as outlined in Section 6.2. 4.2.5 To insure complete absorption of the $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, or if applicable, $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ make repeated passes through each absorbing solution until two consecutive readings are the same. Several passes (three or four) should be make between readings. (If constant readings cannot be obtained after three consecutive readings, replace the absorbing solution.) 4.2.6 Repeat the analysis until the following criteria are met: 4.2.6.1 For percent $\mathrm{CO}_{2}$, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more that
(a) 0.3 percent by volume when $\mathrm{CO}_{2}$ is greater than 4.0 percent or
(b) 0.2 percent by volume when $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ is less than or equal to 4.0 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
121:1576.2
4.2.6.2 For percent O₃, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more than
(a) 0.3 percent by volume when O₃ is less than 15.0 percent or
(b) 0.2 percent by volume when O₃ is greater than or equal to 15.0 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent O₃ and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
4.2.6.3 For percent CO, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more than 0.3 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent CO and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
4.2.7 After the analysis is completed, leak-check (mandatory) the Orsat analyzer once again, as described in Section 5. For the results of the analysis to be valid, the Orsat analyzer must pass this leak test before an after the analysis.
Note. Although in most instances only CO₂ or O₃ is required, it is recommended that both CO₂ and O₃ be measured, and that Section 4.4 to be used to validate the analytical data.
[4.2.7 Note amended by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983]
4.3 Multi-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
4.3.1 Both the minimum number of sampling points and the sampling point location shall be as specified in Section 3.3.1 of this method. The use of fewer points than specified is subject to the approval of the Administrator.
4.3.2 Follow the procedures outlined in Sections 4.2.2 through 4.2.7, except for the following. Traverse all sampling points and sample at each point for an equal length of time. Record sampling data as shown in Figure 3-3.
[Section 4.4 added by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983]
4.4 Quality Control Procedures.
4.4.1 Data Validation When Both CO₂ and O₃ Are Measured. Although in most instances, only CO₂ or O₃ measurement is required, it is recommended that both CO₂ and O₃ be measured to provide a check on the quality of the data. The following quality control procedure is suggested.
Note—Since the method for validating the CO₂ and O₃ analyses is based on combustion of organic and fossil fuels and dilution of the gas stream with air, this method does not apply to sources that (1) remove CO₂ or O₃ through processes other than combustion, (2) add O₃ (e.g., oxygen enrichment) and N₂ in proportions different from that of air, (3) add CO₂ (e.g., cement or lime kilns), or (4) have no fuel factor, F₀, values obtainable (e.g., extremely variable waste mixtures). This method validates the measured proportions of CO₂ and O₃ for the fuel type, but the method does not detect sample dilution resulting from leaks during or after sample collection. The method is applicable for samples collected downstream of most lime or limestone flue-gas desulfurization units as the CO₂ added or removed from the gas stream is not significant in relation to the total CO₂ concentration. The CO₂ concentrations from other types of scrubbers using only water or basic slurry can be significantly affected and would render the F₀ check minimally useful.
4.4.1.1 Calculate a fuel factor, F₀, using the following equation:
$$ F_0 = \frac{20.0 - %O_2}{%CO_2} $$
Where:
If CO is present in quantities measurable by this method, adjust the O₂ and CO₂ values before performing the calculation for F₀ as follows:
$$ %CO_2( ext{adj}) = %CO_2 + %CO $$
$$ %O_2( ext{adj}) = %O_2 - 0.5 %CO $$
Where: %CO = Percent CO by volume (dry basis).
4.4.1.2 Compare the calculated F₀ factor with the expected F₀ values. The following table may be used in establishing acceptable ranges for the expected F₀ if the fuel being burned is known. When fuels are burned in combination, calculate the combined fuel F₀ and F₀ factors (as defined in Method 19) according to the procedure in Method 19 Section 5.2.3. Then calculate the F₀ factor as follows:
$$ F_0 = \frac{0.209 F_0}{F_0} $$
Figure 3-4
Fuel type | F₀ range |
---|---|
Coal: | 1.018-1.130 |
Anthracite and lignite | 1.083-1.250 |
Bituminous | 1.060-1.413 |
Oil: | 1.210-1.370 |
Ductile | 1.320-1.636 |
Residual | 1.434-1.588 |
Gas: | 1.405-1.553 |
Natural | 1.000-1.120 |
Propane | 1.003-1.130 |
Butane |
Moving an Orsat analyzer frequently causes it to leak. Therefore, an Orsat analyzer should be thoroughly leak-checked on site before the flue gas sample is introduced into it. The procedure for leak-checking an Orsat analyzer is:
5.1.1 Bring the liquid level in each pipette up to the reference mark on the capillary tubing and then close the pipette stopcock.
5.1.2 Raise the leveling bulb sufficiently to bring the confining liquid meniscus onto the graduated portion of the burette and then close the manifold stopcock.
5.1.3 Record the meniscus position.
5.1.4 Observe the meniscus in the burette and the liquid level in the pipette for movement over the next 4 minutes.
5.1.5 For the Orsat analyzer to pass the leak-check, two conditions must be met.
5.1.5.1 The liquid level in each pipette must not fall below the bottom of the capillary tubing during this 4-minute interval.
5.1.5.2 The meniscus in the burette must not change by more than 0.2 ml during this 4-minute interval.
5.1.6 If the analyzer fails the leak-check procedure, all rubber connections and stopcocks should be checked until the cause of the leak is identified. Leaking stopcocks must be disassembled, cleaned, and re-pressed. Leaking rubber connections must be replaced. After the analyzer is reassembled, the leak-check procedure must be repeated.
[Appendix A, Method 3]
Calculate the percent excess air (if applicable), by substituting the appropriate values of percent O₃, CO, and N₃ (obtained from Section 4.1.5 or 4.2.4) into Equation 3-1.
$$ ext{GEA} = \left[ \frac{%O_3 - 0.5%CO}{0.264%N_3(%O_3 - 0.5%CO)} ight] imes 100 $$
Equation 3-1
NOTE: The equation above assumes that ambient air is used as the source of O₃ and that the fuel does not contain appreciable amounts of N₃ (as do coke oven or blast furnace gases). For those cases when appreciable amounts of N₃ are present (coal, oil, and natural gas do not contain appreciable amounts of N₃) or when oxygen enrichment is used, alternate methods, subject to approval of the Administrator, are required.
Use Equation 3-2 to calculate the dry molecular weight of the stack gas:
$$ M_0 = 0.440(%CO_3) + 0.320(%O_3) + 0.280(%N_3 + %CO) $$
Equation 3-2
NOTE: The above equation does not consider argon in air (about 0.9 percent, molecular weight of 37.7). A negative error of about 0.4 percent is introduced. The tester may opt to include argon in the analysis using procedures subject to approval of the Administrator.
Method 3A—Determination of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Concentrations in Emissions From Stationary Sources (Instrumental Analyzer Procedure)
[Method 3A added by 51 FR 21165, June 11, 1986]
This method is applicable to the determination of oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) concentrations in emissions from stationary sources only when specified within the regulations.
A sample is continuously extracted from the effluent stream: a portion of the sample stream (economy) is collected from the instrument (economy) for determination of O₂ and CO₂ concentration(s). Performance specifications and test procedures are provided to ensure reliable data.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 2.1 and 2.2, except that the span of the monitoring system shall be selected such that the average O₂ or CO₂ concentration is not less than 20 percent of the span.
The total equipment required for the determination of the O₂ or CO₂ concentration. The measurement system consists of the same major subsystems as defined in Method 6C, Sections 3.1.1, 3.1.2, and 3.1.3.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 3.2 through 3.8, and 3.10.
The output response of the measurement system to a component in the sample gas, other than the gas component being measured.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 4.1 through 4.4.
Any measurement system for O₂ or CO₂ that meets the specifications of this method. A schematic of an acceptable measurement system is shown in Figure 6C-1 of Method 6C. The essential components of the measurement system are described below:
A leak-free probe, of sufficient length to traverse the sample points.
Tubing, to transport the sample gas from the probe to the moisture removal system. A heated sample line is not required for systems that measure the O₂ or CO₂ concentration on a dry basis, or transport dry gases.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 5.1.3 through 5.1.9, and 5.1.11, except that the requirements to use stainless steel, Teflon, and nonreactive glass filters do not apply.
An analyzer to determine continuously the O₂ or CO₂ concentration in the sample gas stream. The analyzer shall meet the applicable performance specifications of Section 4. A means of controlling the analyzer flow rate and a device for determining proper sample flow rate (e.g., precision rotameter, pressure gauge downstream of all flow controls, etc.) shall be provided at the analyzer. The requirements for measuring and controlling the analyzer flow rate are not applicable if data are presented that demonstrate the analyzer is insensitive to flow variations over the range encountered during the test.
The calibration gases for CO₂ analyzers shall be CO₂ in N₂ or CO₂ in air. Alternatively, CO₂/SO₂, O₂/SO₃, or O₂/CO₂/SO₂ gas mixtures in N₂ may be used. Three calibration gases, as specified Section 5.3.1 through 5.3.3 of Method 6C, shall be used. For O₂ monitors that cannot analyze zero gas, a calibration gas concentration equivalent to less than 10 percent of the span may be used in place of zero gas.
Perform the following procedures before measurement of emissions (Section 7).
Follow Section 6.1 of Method 6C, except if calibration gas analysis is required, use Method 3 and change the acceptable criteria for agreement among Method 3 results to 5 percent (or 0.2 percent by volume, whichever is greater).
Conduct an interference response test of the analyzer prior to its initial use in the field. Thereafter, recheck the measurement system if changes are made in the instrumentation that could alter the interference response (e.g., changes in the type of gas detector). Conduct the interference response in accordance with Section 5.4 of Method 20.
Follow Sections 6.2 through 6.4 of Method 6C.
Select a measurement site and sampling points using the same criteria that are applicable to tests performed using Method 3.
Position the sampling probe at the first measurement point, and begin sampling at the same rate as used during the sampling system bias check. Maintain constant rate sampling (i.e., ±10 percent) during the entire run. The sampling time per run shall be the same as for tests conducted using Method 3 plus twice the system response time. For each run, use only those measurements obtained after twice the response time of the measurement system has elapsed to determine the average effluent concentration.
Follow Section 7.4 of Method 6C.
The following quality control procedures are recommended when the results of this method are used for an emission rate correction factor, or excess air determination. The tester should select one of the following options for validating measurement results:
If both O₂ and CO₂ are measured using Method 3A, the procedures described in Section 4.4 of Method 3 should be followed to validate the O₂ and CO₂ measurement results.
If only O₂ is measured using Method 3A, measurements of the sample stream CO₂ concentration should be obtained at the sample by-pass vent discharge using an Orsat.
[Appendix A, Method 3A]
121:1576.4
or Fyrite analyzer, or equivalent. Duplicate samples should be obtained concurrent with at least one run. Average the duplicate Orsat or Fyrite analysis results for each run. Use the average CO2 values for comparison with the O2 measurements in accordance with the procedures described in Section 4.4 of Method 3.
8.2 If only CO2 is measured using Method 3A, concurrent measurements of the sample stream CO2 concentration should be obtained using an Orsat or Fyrite analyzer as described in Section 8.2. For each run, differences greater than 0.5 percent between the Method 3A results and the average of the duplicate Fyrite analysis should be investigated.
For all CO2 analyzers, and for O2 analyzers that can be calibrated with zero gas, follow Section 8 of Method 6C, except express all concentrations as percent, rather than ppm. For O2 analyzers that use a low-level calibration gas in place of a zero gas, calculate the effluent gas concentration using Equation 3A-1.
$$ C_{gas} = \frac{C_{gas} - C_{tot}}{C_{in} - C_{o}} \left( \frac{C - C_{tot}}{C_{in}} ight) + C_{gas} $$
Eq. 3A-1
where:
Same as bibliography of Method 6C.
1.1 Principle. A gas sample is extracted at a constant rate from the source; moisture is removed from the sample stream and determined either volumetrically or gravimetrically.
1.2 Applicability. This method is applicable for determining the moisture content of stack gas.
Two procedures are given. The first is a reference method, for accurate determinations of moisture content (such as are needed to calculate emission data). The second is an approximation method, which provides estimates of percent moisture to aid in setting isokinetic sampling rates prior to a pollutant emission measurement run. The approximation method described herein is only a suggested approach; alternative means for approximating the moisture content, e.g., drying tubes, wet bulb-dry bulb techniques, condensation techniques, stoichiometric calculations, previous experience, etc., are also acceptable.
The reference method is often conducted simultaneously with a pollutant emission measurement run; when it is, calculation of percent isokinetic, pollutant emission rate, etc., for the run shall be based upon the results of the reference method or its equivalent; these calculations shall not be based upon the results of the approximation method, unless the approximation method is shown, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, to be capable of yielding results within 1 percent H2O of the reference method.
NOTE: The reference method may yield questionable results when applied to saturated gas streams or to streams that contain water droplets. Therefore, when these conditions exist or are suspected, a second determination of the moisture content shall be made simultaneously with the reference method, as follows: Assume that the gas stream is saturated. Attach a temperature sensor (capable of measuring to ±1° C (2° F)) to the reference method probe. Measure the stack gas temperature at each traverse point (see Section 2.2.1) during the reference method traverse; calculate the average stack gas temperature. Next, determine the moisture percentage, either by: (1) using a psychrometric chart and making appropriate corrections if stack pressure is different from that of the chart, or (2) using saturation vapor pressure tables. In cases where the psychrometric chart or the saturation vapor pressure tables are not applicable (based on evaluation of the process), alternate methods, subject to the approval of the Administrator, shall be used.
The procedure described in Method 5 for determining moisture content is acceptable as a reference method.
2.1 Apparatus. A schematic of the sampling train used in this reference method is shown in Figure 4-1. All components shall be maintained and calibrated according to the procedure outlined in Method 5.
Figure 4-1. Moisture sampling train-reference method
Environment Reporter
[Appendix A, Method 4]
108
Agencia:
Junta de Calidad Ambiental
Número:
3497
Estado:
Activo
Año:
1989
Fecha:
21 de agosto de 1989
Las enmiendas al Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios Sólidos Peligrosos y No Peligrosos fueron promulgadas por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental del Estado Libre Asociado de Puerto Rico. Estas modificaciones se realizaron en conformidad con la Ley de Política Pública Ambiental, Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada. La Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental aprobó estas enmiendas mediante una Resolución con fecha del 24 de julio de 1987. El Secretario de Estado, Héctor Luis Acevedo, dio su aprobación a estas disposiciones. El documento oficial que certifica estas enmiendas fue emitido en San Juan, Puerto Rico, el 19 de agosto de 1987. Su propósito principal es actualizar y fortalecer el marco regulatorio para la gestión de residuos sólidos en la isla.
ESTADO LIBRE ASOCIADO DE PUERTO RICO / OFICINA DEL GOBERNADOR JUNTA DE CALIDAD AMBIENTAL:
Aprobado: Héctor Luis Acevedo Secretario de Estado
Por: Sccretaria Auxiliar de Estado
A tenor y de acuerdo a la Ley de Política Pública Ambiental (Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada), estas
DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS han sido promulgadas mediante Resolución de la Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental de fecha 24 de julio de 1987.
En San Juan, Puerto Rico, hoy 19 de afosto de 1987.
ESTADO LIBRE ASOCIADO DE PUERTO RICO / OFICINA DEL GOBERNADOR
A tenor y de acuerdo a la Ley de Polftica Pablica Ambiental (Ley Nômero 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, segun enmendada), estas
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS han sido promulgadas mediante Resolucion de la Junta de Gobierno de la Junta de Calidad Ambiental de fecha 24 de julio de 1987.
En San Juan, Puerto Rico, hoy/9 de afosto de 1987.
EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS 1987
I - 40 CFR 260 II - 40 CFR 261 III - 40 CFR 262 IV - 40 CFR 263 V - 40 CFR 264 VI - 40 CFR 265 VII - 40 CFR 266 VIII - 40 CFR 270 IX - DISPONIBILIDAD DE DOCUMENTOS
X - CARGOS POR PERMISOS XI - ANEJOS
NOTA: Para facilitar la revisión de estas enmiendas con la Reglamentación Federal se incluyen en el orden en que aparecen en el Codigo de Reglamentación Federal.
$$ -1- $40 CFR 260
LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES I, II y VI
Se enmienda la regla 102 para añadir la siguiente definicion:
Caldera significa un aparato cerrado que utiliza una flama controlada para la combusti6n y que tiene las siguientes caracteristicas: (1)
(i) La unidad debe tener provisiones fisicas para el recobro y exportación de la energía térmica en forma de vapor, liquidos de transferencia de calor (heated fluids) o gases de transferencias de calor (heated gases); y (ii) La cámara de combusti6n de la unidad y las secciones primarias de recobro de energía deben tener un disefo integral. Para tener un disefo integral, la cámara de combusti6n y las secciones primarias de recobro de enerGla (tales como tabiques de agua (waterwalls) y recalentadores) deben de estar fisicamente integrados en una sola unidad de manufactura o montaje. Una unidad donde la cámara de combusti6n y las secciones primarias de recobro de energía esten unidas solo por conductos o conexiones que lleven los gases producto de la combusti6n, no esta disefiada integralmente; sin embargo, el equipo secundario de recobro de energía (tales como economizadores o precalentadores de aire) no necesita estar físicamente integrado en una misma unidad como la cámara de combusti6n y la sección primaria de recobro de energía. Las siguientes unidades no estan excluidas de ser calderas solamente porque no tienen un disefio integral: calentadores de proceso (unidades que transfieren energía directamente al proceso) y unidades de combusti6n de lecho fluidificado; y (iii) Mientras esté en operacion, la unidad debe mantener una eficiencia de recobro de energía térmica de por lo menos un $60 %$, calculado en términos de la energía recobrada comparada con el valor térmico del combustible; y
(iv) La unidad debe exportar y utilizar por 10 menos un $75 %$ de la energía recobrada, calculada sobre una base anual. En este cálculo no se debe dar crédito por el calor recobrado usado internamente en la misma unidad. (Como ejemplos de uso interno están el precalentamiento de combustible o aire utilizado en el proceso de combustión y el manejo de abanicos o bombas de agua de alimentación inducidas o forzadas); 0 (2) La unidad es aquella que la Junta ha determinado, caso-a-caso, que es una caldera luego de haber considerado las normas establecidas en la Regla 610 de este reglamento.
Manifiesto: El documento originado y firmado por el generador que la Junta haya adoptado mediante Resolución para identificar la cantidad, composicion, origen, ruta y destino de todo aquel desperdicio peligroso que ha sido transportado hacia una facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos.
Número de Manifiesto: El número de identificacion de doce digitos asignado por la APA al generador además de un numero unico de cinco digitos que tiene el documento, asignado por el generador al manifiesto, para propositos informativos y de registro.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.10.
Se enmiendan las siguientes definiciones de la Regla 102 para que en lo sucesivo lean como sigue:
Facilidad Designada significa una facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de desperdicios peligrosos la cual ha recibido un permiso de la Junta o de la APA (o una facilidad con estatus interino) de acuerdo a los requisitos de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento, o que este reglamentada bajo la Regla 606 B (3)(b) o la Regla 1106 de este reglamento, y que haya sido designada por el generador en un manifiesto de acuerdo con la Regla 703 de este reglamento.
Incinerador es cualquier aparato cerrado que utilize una flama controlada de combustión y que no cumple con los criterios para clasificarlo como caldera ni tampoco esta listado como horno industrial.
Estas definiciones son equivalentes al 40 CFR Sección 260.10.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 para añadir las siguientes definiciones:
Horno industrial es cualquiera de los siguientes aparatos cerrados que son componentes integrados de los procesos de manufactura y que utilizan artefactos de flama controlada para llevar a cabo el recobro de materiales o energía: (1) Hornos de cemento (2) Calderas (Hornos de quema caliza para extraer la cal), "Lime kilns". (3) Hornos de mezclado, "Aggregate Kilns" (4) Hornos de fosfato, "Phosphate Kilns"
(5) Horno de coque (Carbón poroso, residuo de la calcinación de la hulla en la fabricacion del gas), "Coke kilns". (6) Hornos de cuba (Alto horno. Cuba es un recipiente de madera, cerrado por ambos extremos, tonel), "Blast furnaces". (7) Fundicion, hornos de fundicion y refinacion (incluyendo aparatos pirometalurgicos como cubilotes hornos donde se verifica en las fundiciones la segunda fusion del hierro colado, hornos de reverbero el que utiliza la reverberacion (calcinacion hecha en un horno de reverbero) del calor, maquina de toba piedra caliza muy ligera (o máquinas de incrustación deposito de carbonato de cal que se forma en las paredes de las calderas de vapor), asadores y hornos de fundicion). (8) Reactores de proceso de oxidacion de di6xido de cloruro de titanio. (9) Hornos de conversion de metano (10) Hornos de recuperacion de licor madre de procesos de extraccion de pulpa de madera. (11) Aparatos de combustion usados en la recuperacion de azufre del acido sulfurico usado. (12) Otros aparatos que la Junta decida, luego de notificarlo y comentarlo, y que se afiada a esta lista en base a uno o mas de los siguientes factores:
(i) El disefo y uso del aparato principalmente para lograr el recobro de productos materiales; (ii) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir la materia prima para hacer un producto material; (iii) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir los materiales secundarios como substitutos efectivos de materias primas en procesos donde se utilizan materias primas como material principal de insumo; (iv) El uso del aparato para quemar o reducir materiales secundarios como ingredientes en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto material.
(v) El uso del aparato en la práctica industrial comin para producir un producto material; y (vi) Otros factores, segin apropiado.
Generador de Pequeñas Cantidades es aquel generador que genera menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.10.
Se enmienda la siguiente regla para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 208 B - Solicitudes de Revisión
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.20 .
Se enmienda la siguiente regla para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 208-G Peticiones para enmendar la Parte VI de este Reglamento para Excluir un Desperdicio S61ido Peligroso Producido en una Facilidad Particular
este inciso. Para lograrlo, el solicitante deberá demostrar a satisfacción de la Junta que el desperdicio producido por una facilidad generante particular no cumple con ninguno de los criterios bajo los cuales el desperdicio fue anotado como desperdicios peligroso y, en el caso de un desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado bajo la Regla 603 B (2), que tampoco cumple con los criterios establecidos en la Regla 603 B (3). Basado en una solicitud completa, la Junta determinará si tiene una razón justificada para creer que otros factores, además de los que causaron que el desperdicio fuera listado (incluyendo constituyentes adicionales), pueden hacer que el desperdicio sea peligroso, y por esta razón es necesario mantenerlo como tal. Un desperdicio que ha sido excluido seguirá siendo un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 2. Los procedimientos en este inciso y en el inciso B de esta regla también se utilizarán para solicitar a la Junta una enmienda al reglamento para excluir, de la Regla 102 (Definicion de desperdicio peligroso), un desperdicio que ha sido descrito en esa regla y que también es un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, contiene un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607 o es derivado de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607. Esta exclusión solo se puede emitir para una facilidad particular de generación, almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición. El peticionario debe de hacer la misma demostración segin requerida en el inciso G (1) de esta regla, excepto que cuando un desperdicio es una mezcla de desperdicio solido con uno o más desperdicios peligrosos, o es derivado de uno más desperdicios peligrosos, su demostración debe ser hecha con respecto a cada constituyente del desperdicio anotado o a la mezcla del desperdicio como tal. Un desperdicio excluido de esta forma seguirá siendo un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604.
(a) (3) cuando se consideran los factores de la Regla 261.11
(a) (3)
(i) a la (xi) bajo los cuales el desperdicio fue listado como peligroso; y b. Basado en una solicitud completa, la Junta determinars si tiene una razón justificada para creer que otros factores, además de los que causaron que el desperdicio fuera listado (incluyendo constituyentes adicionales), pueden hacer que el desperdicio sea peligroso, y por esta razón es necesario mantenerlo como tal.
c. El solicitante demostrara que el desperdicio no exhibe ninguna de las caracteristicas de la Parte VI, utilizando los métodos prescritos en ella. d. Un desperdicio excluido de esta forma aun puede ser un desperdicio peligroso si aplica la Regla 604. 5. Si el desperdicio esta anotado con el codigo "H" en la Regla 607 : a. El solicitante debe demostrar que el desperdicio no cumple con ninguno de los siguientes criterios:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.22 .
Se enmienda la Parte II de este reglamento para añadir lo siguiente como la regla 208 H . H. Peticiones para añadir métodos de prueba o analf́ticos, equivalentes.
c. Resultados comparativos obtenidos al utilizar el método propuesto con aquellos obtenidos al usar los métodos relevantes o correspondientes descritos en las Partes I, VI, VIII-I u VIII-II de este reglamento. d. Una evaluacion de cualquier factor que pueda interferir con o limitar el uso del método propuesto; y e. Una descripción de los procedimientos de control de calidad necesarios para asegurar la sensitividad, exactitud y precision del método propuesto. 3. Luego de recibir la solicitud para un método equivalente, la Junta puede requerir cualquier informacion adicional del método propuesto que sea razonablemente necesaria para evaluar el mismo. 4. Si la Junta enmienda el reglamento para permitir el uso de un nuevo método de prueba, el método será incorporado en el "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods," SW-846, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Solid Waste, Washington, D.C. 20460, utilizado por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.21.
Se enmienda la Parte VI de este reglamento para añadir lo siguiente como la regla 609 A:
Regla 609A Cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido:
De acuerdo con las normas y criterios establecidos en la Regla 609 de este reglamento y los procedimientos establecidos en la Regla 611 de este reglamento, la Junta puede determinar caso-a-caso, que los siguientes materiales reciclados no son desperdicios sOlidos: (1) Materiales que son acumulados especulativamente sin que una cantidad suficiente sea reciclada (como se define en la Regla 102 de este reglamento); (2) Materiales que son reclamados y luego reusados dentro del proceso original de produccion primaria en el cual son generados; (3) Materiales que han sido reclamados pero que aun deben ser reclamados mas, antes de que los materiales sean completamente recobrados.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.30.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 609B:
Regla 609B Normas y Criterios para los cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido: (1) La Junta puede otorgar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido a aquellos materiales que son acumulados especulativamente sin que una cantidad suficiente sea reciclada, si el solicitante demuestra que una cantidad suficiente del
material sera reciclado o transferido para reciclaje en el proximo año. Si el cambio es otorgado, sera valido solo por el año siguiente pero puede ser renovado, anualmente, llenando una nueva solicitud. La decision de la Junta estara basada en las siguientes normas y criterios:
(a) La manera en la cual se espera que el material sea reciclado, cuando se espera que sea reciclado, y si esta esperada disposicion es probable que ocurra (por ejemplo por practicas pasadas, factores de mercado, la naturaleza del material o arreglos contractuales para el reciclaje);
(b) La razon por la cual el solicitante ha acumulado el material por uno o mas años sin haber reciclado el $75 %$ del volumen acumulado a principios del año;
(c) La cantidad de material acumulada y la cantidad que se espera generar y acumular antes de que el material sea reciclado;
(d) El grado de manejo del material para minimizar la perdida;
(e) Otros factores relevantes. (2) La Junta puede aprobar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificacion como desperdicio solido a aquellos materiales que son reciclados y luego reusados como alimento para ganado dentro del proceso original de produccion primaria en el cual los materiales fueron generados si la operacion de reclamacion es una parte esencial del proceso de produccion. Esta determinacion estara basada en los siguientes criterios:
(a) Cuan económicamente viable será el proceso de produccion si se utilizara material virgen en lugar de material reclamado;
(b) El predominio de la práctica a nivel industrial;
(c) El grado en que el material es manejado antes de la reclamación para minimizar la pérdida;
(d) El periodo de tiempo entre la generación del material y su reclamación, y entre la reclamación y el regreso al proceso original de produccion primaria;
(e) La ubicacion de la operacion de reclamacion en relacion al proceso de produccion;
(f) Si el material reclamado es utilizado con el proposito para el cual fue originalmente producido cuando es devuelto al proceso original, y si al ser devuelto al proceso mantiene substancialmente su forma original;
(g) Si la persona que genera el material tambien lo reclama;
(h) Otros factores relevantes. (3) La Junta puede aprobar solicitudes para un cambio en la clasificación como desperdicio solido a aquellos materiales que han sido reclamados pero deben ser reclamados nuevamente antes de que el recobro sea completado, si, después de la reclamacion inicial, el material resultante es comercial (aunque no sea todavia un producto comercial y tenga que ser reclamado ulteriormente). Esta determinacion estará basada en los siguientes factores:
(a) El grado de proceso que el material ha sufrido y el grado adicional de proceso requerido;
(b) El valor del material luego de haber sido reclamado;
(c) El grado en el cual material reclamado es como un material crudo análogo;
(d) El grado en que existe la garantia de un mercado final para el material reclamado;
(e) El grado en el que el material reclamado es manejado para minimizar la pérdida;
(f) Otros factores relevantes.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.31.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 610 :
Regla 610 Cambio para clasificar como caldera.
De acuerdo a las normas y criterios establecidos en la Regla 102 (definicion de "caldera"), y los procedimientos establecidos en la Regla 611, la Junta puede determinar, caso-a-caso, que ciertos aparatos cerrados que utilicen una flama de combustion controlada, son calderas aunque de otro modo no cumplan con la definicion de caldera contenida en la Regla 102, luego de considerar los siguientes criterios: (1) El grado en el cual la unidad tiene provisiones para recobrar y exportar energia termica en forma de vapor, fluidos calientes o gases calientes; y
(2) El grado en el cual la cámara de combustión y el equipo de recobro de energía tienen un diseño integral; y (3) La eficiencia del recobro de energía, calculado en términos del recobro de energía comparado con el valor térmico del combustible; y (4) El grado en el cual la energía exportada es utilizada; y (5) El grado en el cual el aparato es de uso común y usual como una caldera, funcionando principalmente para producir vapor, fluidos calientes o gases calientes; y (6) Otros factores, segin sea apropiado
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.32.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 611 :
Regla 611 Procedimientos para cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido o para ser clasificado como caldera.
La Junta utilizara los siguientes procedimientos para evaluar las solicitudes para cambios en la clasificación como desperdicio sOlido o las solicitudes para clasificar algunos aparatos cerrados de combustión por flama como calderas:
(1) La solicitud debe seguir los criterios relevantes contenidos en las Reglas 609 o 610 de este reglamento. (2) La Junta evaluara la solicitud y emitira un borrador de notificación, por escrito, otorgando o denegando tentativamente la solicitud. La notificacion de esta decisión tentativa sera provista por un anuncio en el periódico y por transmision radial. La Junta aceptará comentarios sobre esa decisión tentativa por 30 dias, y también podrá sostener una vista pública si es solicitada o a su discreción. La Junta emitira una decisión final luego de recibir los comentarios y luego de la vista (si alguna) y esta decisión no será apelada a la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 260.33.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 612 :
Regla 612 Reglamentación adicional para ciertas actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios peligrosos aplicables caso-a-caso (1) La Junta puede decidir caso-a-caso, que las personas que esten acumulando o almacenando el material reciclado descrito en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) (iv) de este reglamento debe ser reglamentada bajo la Regla 606 B (2) y (3). Las bases para esta decisión es que los materiales están siendo acumulados o almacenados en una forma que no se protege la salud humana ni el ambiente porque los materiales o sus constituyentes tóxicos no están siendo contenidos adecuadamente, o porque los materiales que se estan acumulando o almacenando juntos son incompatibles. Al hacer esta decisión, la Junta considerará los siguientes factores:
(a) Los tipos de materiales acumulados o almacenados y las cantidades acumuladas o almacenadas;
(b) El método de acumulacion o almacenaje;
(c) Cuanto tiempo los materiales han sido acumulados - almacenados antes de ser reclamados;
(d) Si algán contaminante ha sido descargado hacia el ambiente, o puede ser descargado ; y
(e) Otros factores relevantes.
Los procedimientos para esta decisión están establecidos en la Regla 613 de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.40.
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 613 :
Regla 613 Procedimientos para la reglamentacion caso-a-caso de actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios sôlidos peligrosos
La Junta seguirá los siguientes procedimientos para determinar cuando reglamentar las actividades de reciclaje de desperdicios peligrosos descritos en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) (iv) bajo las disposiciones de la Regla 606 B (2) y (3) en lugar de las establecidas en la Regla 1106 de este Reglamento.
(1) Si un generador esta acumulando el desperdicio, la Junta emitira una notificacion estableciendo los hechos para la decision y estableciendo que la persona debe cumplir con los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este Reglamento. La notificacion sera final dentro de los proximos 30 dias a menos que la persona notificada solicite una vista pablica para objetar la decision. Al recibir esta solicitud, la Junta celebrara una vista pablica y emitira un Aviso Pablico de la misma permitiendo la participación del público. Luego de la vista la Junta emitira una orden final estableciendo si se requiere o no cumplimiento con las Partes V y VII de este Reglamento. La orden sera efectiva treinta (30) dias luego del reemplazamiento de la misma a menos que la Junta especifique una fecha posterior o solicite una revisıon a la misma. La orden puede ser apelada a la Junta por cualquier persona que haya participado en la vista pablica. La Junta puede otorgar o denegar la apelacion. Una accion final de la Agencia ocurre cuando una orden final es emitida y los procedimientos de revisıon de la Agencia han sido agotados. (2) Si la persona esta acumulando el material reciclable como una facilidad de almacenamiento, la notificacion establecera que la persona debe obtener un permiso siguiendo los requisitos aplicables de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento. El dueño u operador de la facilidad tiene que solicitar un permiso no menos de sesenta (60) dias y no más de seis (6) meses a partir de la notificacion, segun especificado en la notificacion. Si el dueño u operador de la facilidad desea refutar la decisión de la Junta, lo puede hacer en la solicitud del permiso, en la vista pública sostenida para el
borrador del permiso, en los comentarios presentados en el borrador del permiso o en la notificacion de intencion de denegar el permiso. La hoja de datos que acompaña el permiso especificara las razones para la determinacion de la Agencia. Cualquier pregunta sobre si la decision de la Junta fue correcta quedara abierta a consideracion durante el periodo de comentarios públicos discutido bajo la Regla I-912 I de este reglamento y en cualquier vista subsiguiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 260.41.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.6.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.6.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.7.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.8.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.8.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.7. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.9. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.10.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.11.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. Basic
1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1. 1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.5.9.12.2.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1.3.1
-11- 40 CFR 261
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES I Y VI
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la definición de "desperdicios s61ido" para diferenciar lo que es un desperdicio s61ido para los propósitos de la reglamentación de desperdicio s61ido peligroso y otra para la reglamentación de desperdicios s61idos no-peligrosos. Por tal motivo se enmienda la definición de desperdicio s61ido como sigue: I. Desperdicio S61ido A. Esta definición de desperdicio s61ido aplicará a la reglamantación de desperdicios s61idos no peligrosos.
Cualquier desperdicio de comida, basura, cierno o cualquier "otro material desechado", incluyendo todo el "desperdicio s61ido peligroso", excepto lo siguiente:
II. Desperdicio S6lido A. Esta definición de desperdicio s6lido aplicará a la reglamentación de desperdicio s6lido peligroso. B. Proposito y Alcance (1) La definición de desperdicio sólido contenida en esta Parte aplica s6lo a los desperdicios que también son peligrosos para propósitos de esta reglamentacion según aparece en las Partes II, III, V, VI, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI. Por ejemplo, no es aplicable a materiales (como desechos no-peligrosos, papel, textiles o caucho) que de otro modo no son desperdicios peligrosos y que son reciclados. (2) Esta parte identifica solo algunos de los materiales que son desperdicios peligrosos y desperdicios nopeligrosos segin el Anejo C-8 y Anejo C-9. Un material que no es definido como desperdicio s6lido en esta parte o que no es un desperdicio peligroso identificado o anotado en la Regla 607 de este reglamento, es todavia un desperdicio s6lido y un desperdicio peligroso para propósitos de esta definición si:
(a) En el caso de 12 LPRA Secciones (21) y (34), la Junta tiene razones para pensar que el material puede ser un desperdicio s6lido según definido en el Anejo C-7 y un desperdicio peligroso segin definido en el Anejo C-7.
(b) En el caso de 12 LPRA 11 (19), se cumplen los elementos ahi incluidos.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.1
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (definicion de desperdicio solido) para añadir lo siguiente: (3) Para propósitos de las Reglas 102 (definicion de desperdicio s61ido II) y 606 B :
(a) "Material agotado" es cualquier material que ha sido usado $y$, como resultado de la contaminacion, no puede servir mas los propósitos para los cuales fue producido sin procesar.
(b) "Cieno" tiene el mismo significado utilizado en la Regla 102 de este reglamento;
(c) "Subproducto" es un material que no es uno de los productos primarios del proceso de produccion ni tampoco es producido, solo o separado, por el proceso de produccion. Ejemplo de esto son los residuos de proceso como la escoria o el fondo de la columna de destilacion. El termino no incluye aquel producto secundario que es producido para uso general y es utilizado ordinariamente en la forma que es producido por el proceso.
(d) "Material reclamado" es aquel material que es procesado para recobrar un producto utilizable o que es regenerado. Ejemplo de esto es el recobro del valor del plomo de las baterias agotadas y la regeneracion de solventes agotados.
(e) "Material usado o reusado" es aquel material que es:
(i) Empleado como ingrediente (incluyendo su uso como intermediario) en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto (por ejemplo, el sedimento de destilacion de un proceso utilizando como fuente de alimentacion en otro proceso). Sin embargo, un material no podra satisfacer esta condicion sin distintos componentes del material son recobrados como productos finales separados (como cuando metales son recobrados de metales que contienen materiales secundarios); 0 (ii) Empleado en una funcion o aplicacion particular como un substituto efectivo para un producto comercial (por ejemplo, licor de salmuera agotado utilizado como agente precipitante de fosforo y como acondicionador de cienos en el tratamiento de aguas de albañal).
(f) "Chatarra" significa fragmentos y piezas de partes de metal (por ejemplo, barras, virutas, varillas, planchas de metal, alambre o piezas de metal) que pueden ser unidas con tornillos o soldaduras (por ejemplo, radiadores, autom6biles desechados, furgones de ferrocarril), las cuales cuando se deterioran o se inutilizan pueden ser recicladas.
(g) "Material reciclado" es aquel material que ha sido usado, reusado o reclamado.
(h) "Material acumulado especulativamente" es aquel material que es acumulado antes de ser reciclado. Sin embargo, un material no es acumulado especulativamente si la persona que lo esta acumulando puede demostrar que el material es potencialmente capaz de
ser reciclado y tiene medios viables para ser reciclado; y que, durante el año calendario (comenzando el primero de enero, la cantidad de material que haya sido reciclado, o transferido a un lugar diferente para ser reciclado, iguale por lo menos $75 %$ por peso o volumen la cantidad de ese material acumulado al principio del periodo. Al calcular el porciento de cambio, el requisito del $75 %$ se le aplicara a cada material del mismo tipo (i.e., la escoria producto de un proceso sencillo de fundicion que es reciclada en la misma forma) esto es, de donde el material es recobrado o que es usado en la misma forma. Los materiales que son acumulados en unidades que pueden estar exentas de la reglamentacion bajo la Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido Peligroso, inciso B (10) no se incluyen al hacer este cálculo. (Los materiales que ya han sido definidos como desperdicio solido tampoco se incluyen al hacer este cálculo). De cualquier modo, los materiales, dejan de pertenecer a esta catergoria luego de no ser acumulados para reciclaje.
Este inciso es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.1
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: C. Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido (1)
(a) Desperdicio solido es cualquier material desechado que no ha sido excluido por la Definicion de desperdicio peligroso, inciso I-30 ni por una dispensa otorgada bajo las Reglas 608 y 609 de este reglamento.
(b) Material desechado es todo aquel material que ha sido:
(i) Abandonado, como se explica en el părrafo (2) de esta definicion; 0 (ii) Reciclado, como se explica en el părrafo (3) de esta definicion; 0 (iii) Considerado inherentemente como un desperdicio segin el părrafo (4) de esta definicion. (2) Desperdicio s61ido es aquel material que ha sido abandonado por ser:
(a) Dispuesto; 0
(b) Quemado o incinerado; o
(c) Acumulado, almacenado o tratado (pero no reciclado) antes de o en lugar de ser abandonado por ser dispuesto, quemado o incinerado. (3) Es desperdicio solido aquel material que ha sido reciclado, o acumulado, almacenado o tratado antes de ser reciclado, segin se especifica en los parrafos (3)
(a) al (3)
(d) de esta definicion.
(a) Usado de forma que constituya disposicion.
(i) Los materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 1 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son: (A) Aplicados en o puestos en el terreno de forma tal que constituya disposicion; 0
(B) Usados para producir productos que son puestos en o aplicados al terreno o que de otra manera esten contenidos en productos que son puestos en o aplicados al terreno (en cuyo caso el producto mismo constituye un desperdicio s61ido). (ii) Sin embargo, los productos químicos comerciales anotados en la Regla 607 D no son desperdicios s61idos si son aplicados al terreno y esta es la forma ordinaria de utilizarlos.
(b) Quemado para recobro de energía.
(i) Materiales señalados con un asterico (*) en la Columna 2 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son: (A) Quemados para recobro de energía; (B) Usados para producir combustible o que de otra manera estén contenidos en combustibles (en cuyo caso el combustible mismo constituye un desperdicio s61ido). (ii) Sin embargo, los productos químicos comerciales anotados en la Regla 607 D no son desperdicios s61idos si ellos mismos son combustibles.
(c) Reclamados. Materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 3 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son reclamados .
(d) Acumulados especulativamente. Materiales señalados con un asterisco (*) en la Columna 4 de la Tabla 1 son desperdicios s61idos cuando son acumulados especulativamente.
Tabla 1
(4) Materiales que inherentemente se consideran como un desperdicio. Los siguientes materiales son desperdicios s6lidos cuando son reciclados de cualquier forma:
(a) "Número de desperdicio peligroso. F020, F021 (a menos que se use como ingrediente para hacer un producto en el sitio de generación). F022, F023, F026 y F028.
(b) La Junta utilizará el siguiente criterio para añadir desperdicios a esta lista: (1) (A) Los materiales son ordinariamente dispuestos, quemados o incinerados; 0 (B) Los materiales contienen constituyentes tóxicos anotados en el Anejo C-3 y estos constituyentes no se encuentran ordinariamente en materias primas o productos para los cuales los materiales sustituyen (o se encuentran en la materia prima o productos en menores concentraciones) y no son usados o reusados durante el proceso de reciclaje; y (ii) El material puede ser un peligro substancial a la salud humana y al ambiente cuando sea reciclado. (5) Materiales que no son desperdicio s6lido cuando son reciclados.
(a) Los materiales no son desperdicios s6lidos cuando pueden demostrar que son reciclados por ser: (1) Usados o reusados como ingredientes en un proceso industrial para hacer un producto, siempre que los materiales no hayan sido reclamados; o
(ii) Usados o reusados como substitutos efectivos para productos comerciales ; 0 (iii) Devueltos al proceso original del que fuera generados, sin primero ser reclamados. El material debe ser devuelto como un substituto para la fuente de alimentación de materia prima, y el proceso debe usar materias primas como la fuente principal de alimentación.
(b) Los siguientes materiales son desperdicios s6lidos, aunque el reciclaje envuelva el uso, reuso o regreso al proceso original (descrito en los parrafos (5)
(a) (i) - (iii) de esta definici6n):
(i) Materiales usados de forma que constituye disposición, o usados para producir productos que son aplicados al terreno; o (ii) Materiales quemados para el recobro de energía, usados para producir combustible o contenidos en combustibles; o (iii) Materiales acumulados especulativamente; o (iv) Materiales anotadas en el párrafo (4)
(a) de esta definici6n. (6) Documentación de reclamaciones de materiales que no son desperdicios s6lidos o que están condicionalmente exentos del reglamento.
Los demandados en acciones para cumplir con el Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S6lidos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos, que reclaman que cierto material no es un desperdicio s6lido, o que esta condicionalmente exento del
reglamento, debe demostrar que hay un conocido mercado o disposición para el material y que ellos cumplen con los términos de la exclusión o exención. Al hacer esto, deben proveer la documentación apropiada (como contratos mostrando que una segunda persona usa el material como ingrediente en un proceso de producción) para demostrar que el material no es un desperdicio o que esta exento de reglamentación. Además, los dueños u operadores de facilidades que reclaman que actualmente ellos están reciclando materiales deben demostrar que tienen el equipo necesario para hacerlo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.2.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definición de Desperdicio S61ido) para añadir lo siguiente: (7) Excepciones
Materiales que no son desperdicios s6lidos. Los siguientes materiales no son desperdicios s6lidos para propósitos de la Parte VI de este reglamento:
(a) (i) Desperdicio líquido doméstico; y (ii) Cualquier mezcla de desperdicio líquido doméstico y otros desperdicios que pasen a través de un sistema de alcantarillado hacia una planta de tratamiento propiedad del gobierno para su tratamiento. "Desperdicio liquido doméstico" significa aquellos desperdicios sanitarios no tratados que pasan a través de un sistema de alcantarillado.
(b) Descargas de aguas usadas industriales que son descargas provenientes de una fuente que están sujetas a reglamentación bajo la Sección 402 de la Ley de Agua Limpia, segEn enmendada. (COMENTARIO: Esta excepción aplica solo al punto de descarga de la fuente. No excluye las aguas usadas industriales mientras son recogidas, almacenadas o tratadas antes de ser descargados, tampoco excluye los cienos generados por el tratamiento de las aguas usadas industriales.).
(c) Aguas recuperadas de irrigacion.
(d) Fuente nuclear, material especial nuclear o sub-producto de este segEn definido por la Ley de Energia Atómica del 1954, segǴn enmendada, 42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.
(e) Materiales sujetos a las técnicas de mineria en el sitio los cuales no han sido removidos del suelo como parte del proceso de extraccion.
(f) Licores de pulpa (esto es, licor madre) que son reclamados en los hornos de recuperación de licor de pulpa y que luego son reusados en el proceso de extraccion de pulpa, a menos que sean acumulados especulativamente como se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de Desperdicio solido) de este reglamento.
(g) Acido sulfurico usado utilizado para producir acido sulfurico virgen, a menos que sea acumulado especulativamente según se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de Desperdicio S6lido) de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio Peligroso) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 102 Definicion de Desperdicio S6lido Peligroso
(a) Un desperdicio solido, como se define en la Regla 102 (definicion de desperdicio solido II), es un desperdicio peligroso si: (1) No esta excluido de reglamentacion como desperdicio peligroso, bajo el inciso
(e) de esta definicion; y (2) Cumple con cualquiera de los siguientes criterios:
(i) Posee cualquiera de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificada en la Regla 604. (ii) Esta anotado en la Regla 607 y no ha sido excluido de las listas de la Regla 607 bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento.
(iii) Es una mezcla de un desperdicio solido con un desperdicio peligroso anotado en la Regla 607 solamente porque exhibe una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificados en la Regla 604, a menos que la mezcla resultante no exhiba ninguna de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificados en la Regla 604. (iv) Es una mezcla de desperdicio solido y uno o más desperdicios peligrosos anotados en la regla 607 y no ha sido excluido de este pârafo bajo las Regla 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento; sin embargo, las siguientes mezclas de desperdicios solidos y desperdicios peligrosos anotadas en la Regla 607 no son desperdicios peligrosos (excepto cuando se aplique el párrafo
(a) (2)
(i) 6 (ii) de esta definicion) si el generador puede demostrar que la mezcla consiste de descarga de aguas usadas lo cual esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Seccion 402 o Seccion 307
(b) de la Ley de Agua Limpia (incluyendo aguas usadas en facilidades que han eliminado la descarga de aguas usadas) y; (A) Uno o más de los siguientes solventes usados anotados en la Regla 607 B tetracloruro de carbono, tetracloroetileno, tricloroetileno - provisto que el uso máximo total por semana de estos solventes (otros que la cantidad que puede demostrarse que no es decargada a las aguas usadas) dividido por el flujo promedio semanal de las aguas
usadas hacia las areas de proceso de los sistemas de tratamiento o de pre tratamientos de aguas usadas de la facilidad no excede 1 ppm; 0 (B) Uno o más de los siguientes solventes usados anotados en la Regla 607 B cloruro de metileno, 1,1,1-tricloroetano, clorobenzeno, o-diclorobenzeno, cresoles, ácido cresilico, nitrobenzeno, tolueno, metil etil centeno disulfito de carbono, isobutanol piridina, solventes usados de clorofluorocarbono - provisto que el uso máximo total por semana de estos solventes (otro que la cantidad que puede demostrarse que no es descargada a las aguas usadas) dividido por el flujo promedio semanal de las aguas usadas hacia las areas de proceso de los sistemas de tratamiento o pre tratamiento de aguas usadas de la facilidad no excede 25 ppm ; 0
(c) Uno de los siguientes desperdicios anotados en la Regla 607 C - el cieno de la limpieza del empaquetamiento del intercambiado de calor proveniente de la industria de refinación de petroleo. (APA Desperdicio Peligroso Num K050); 0
(D) Un producto químico comercial descargado, o químico intermedio anotado en la Regla 607 D, proveniente de la perdida minima de estos materiales de operaciones manufactureros en los cuales estos materiales son utilizados como materia prima o son producidos en el proceso de manufactura. Para propositos de este subparrafo, las perdidas "minimas" incluyen aquellas de operaciones normales de manejo de material (ej. derrames de la descarga - transferencia de materiales de cubos u otros envases, gotereo de los tubos, valvulas u otros aparatos utilizados para transferir materiales); derrames menores de equipo de proceso, tanques de almacenamiento o envases; derrames de los sellos y empaques de bomba de mantenimiento de pozos; evacuaciones de muestra; descargas de aparatos de relieve; descargas de duchas de seguridad, enjuague y limpieza de equipo de seguridad personal; y las aguas de lavado de los envases vacios o de los envases que quedaran vacios por ese lavado; 0 (E) El agua usada producto de las operaciones de laboratorio que contienen desperdicios toxicos (T) anotado en la Regla 607, provisto que el flujo promedio anual de agua usada de laboratorio no excede $1 %$ del flujo total de agua usada hacia las Sreas de proceso
del sistema de tratamiento o pretra- tamiento de las aguas usadas, o provisto el desperdicio, que la concentración promedio anual combinada no excede 1 ppm en las areas de proceso de la facilidad de tratamiento o pre-tratamiento de las aguas usadas de la facilidad. Los desperdicios t6xicos (T) utilizados en laboratorios que se ha demostrado que no han sido descargados en las aguas usadas no estan incluidos en este cálculo.
(b) Un desperdicio s61ido que no ha sido excluido de reglamentacion bajo el parrafo
(a) (1) de esta defi$n i c i 6 n$ es un desperdicio peligroso cuando cualquiera de los siguientes eventos ocurre; (1) En el caso de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, cuando el desperdicio cumple por primera vez con la descripcion para ser anotado en la Regla 607. (2) En el caso de una mezcla de desperdicio solido y uno o mas desperdicios peligrosos anotados, cuando un desperdicio peligroso anotado en la Regla 607 es añadido por primera vez al desperdicio solido. (3) En el caso de cualquier otro desperdicio (incluyendo una mezcla de desperdicio), cuando el desperdicio exhibe cualquiera de las caracteristicas identificadas en la Regla 604.
(c) A menos que, y hasta que cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo
(d) : (1) Un desperdicio peligroso permanecerá como desperdicio peligroso. (2)
(i) Excepto lo que se provee en el párrafo
(c) (2) (ii) de esta definición, cualquier desperdicio solido generado por el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de un desperdicio peligroso, incluyendo cieno, residuo de derrame, ceniza, control de emision de polvo, o lixiviación (pero sin incluir la escorrentia por lluvia) es un desperdicio peligroso. (Sin embargo, los materiales que son reclamados de los desperdicios solidos y que son beneficiosamente utilizados no son desperdicios solidos y, por lo tanto, no son desperdicios peligrosos bajo esta disposición a menos que el material reclamado sea quemado para recobro de energía o utilizado en una forma que constituya disposicion). (ii) Los siguientes desperdicios solidos no son peligrosos aunque hayan sido generados por el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de desperdicio peligroso, a menos que exhiban una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso: (A) Cieno del desperdicio del licor generado por la estabilización de cal del licor de salmuera usado proveniente de la industria ciderargica. (SIC Codes 331 and 332 ).
(B) Desperdicio producido por la quema de cualquiera de los materiales exentos de reglamentacion por la Regla 606 B (1)
(c) (iv), (vi), (vii) u (viii).
(d) Cualquier desperdicio solido descrito en el parrafo
(c) de esta definicion no es un desperdicio peligroso si cumple con los siguientes criterios: (1) En el caso de cualquier desperdicio solido, no exhibe ninguna de las caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso identificado en la Regla 604 . (2) En el caso de un desperdicio que esta anotado bajo la Regla 607, contiene un desperdicio anotado bajo la Regla 607 o es derivado de un desperdicio anotado en la Regla 607, tambien ha sido excluido del parrafo
(c) bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.3.
Se enmienda la Regla 102 (Definicion de Desperdicio Peligroso Parte B) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: B. Los siguientes desperdicios solidos no son desperdicios solidos peligrosos a menos que as sea designado por la Junta: (1) Desperdicio doméstico, incluyendo aquel desperdicio doméstico que ha sido recogido, transportado, almacenado, tratado, dispuesto, recobrado (por ejemplo, combustible derivado de material desechado) o reusado. "Desperdicio doméstico"
significa cualquier material (incluyendo desperdicio de comida, basura y desperdcio sanitario en pozo septico) derivado de residencias (incluyendo residencias sencillas y m6ltiples, hoteles y moteles, "bunkhouses", estaciones de vigilancia, "crew quarters", campamentos, campos de excursion y areas de recreacion de uso diario). Una facilidad de recuperacion de recursos que maneja desperdicio solido municipal no debe ser considerada para tratar, almacenar, disponer o manejar desperdicios peligrosos para propositos de reglamentacion bajo esta regla, si esa facilidad:
(a) Solo recibe y quema: (1) Desperdicio doméstico (de residencias sencillas y m6ltiples, hoteles, moteles y otras fuentes residenciales) y (ii) Desperdicio s61ido de fuentes comerciales o industriales que no contienen desperdicio peligroso; y
(b) Esa facilidad no acepta desperdicios peligrosos y el dueto u operador de esa facilidad ha establecido requisitos contractuales u otros procedimientos apropiados de notificacion o inspeccion para asegurar que en esa facilidad no se reciben ni se queman desperdicios peligrosos. (2) Desperdicios s6lidos generados por cualquiera de las siguientes y los cuales son devueltos al suelo como fertilizantes:
(a) El cultivo y recoleccion de cosechas agrícolas.
(b) La crianza de animales incluyendo el estiercol. (3) Terreno de sobrecarga que se utiliza como relleno después de terminadas las operaciones mineras. (4) Desperdicio de ceniza volátil, desperdicio de ceniza sedimentada, escoria y el desperdicio de la chimenea de control de emision de gases generados principalmente por la combustion de carbon u otros combustibles fosiles. (5) Liquidos de perforación, aguas producidas y otros desperdicios asociados con la exploracion, desarrollo o produccion de petróleo crudo, gas natural - energía geotermica. (6)
(a) Desperdicios que no pasan la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento de Extraccion (EP Toxicity) por la presencia de cromio o porque están anotados en la Regla 607 debido a la presencia de cromio, que no fallan en la prueba de Toxicidad por el procedimiento de Extraccion para cualquier otro constituyente - que no estf anotado debido a la presencia de cualquier otro constituyente, y que no pasan la prueba para cualquier otra caracteristica, si el generador del desperdicio o los generadores del desperdicio demuestran que:
(i) El cromio en el desperdicio es exclusivamente (o casi exclusivamente) cromio trivalente; y (ii) El desperdicio es generado por un proceso industrial que usa cromio trivalente exclusivamente (o casi exclusivamente) y que el proceso no genera cromio hexavalente; y (iii) El desperdicio es frecuente y tipicamente manejado en ambientes no oxidantes.
(b) Desperdicios especificos que cumplen con las normas establecidas en los parrafos B (6)
(a) (i), (ii) y (iii) (mientras pasen la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento de Extracción y que pasen la prueba para cualquier otra caracteristica) son:
(i) Franjas de cromio (azul) generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-the-blue"; and "shearling". (ii) Virutas de cromio (azul) generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; no beamhouse", "through-the-blue"; and "shearling".
(iii) Polvo del raspado de cuero generado por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-the-blue". (iv) Filtracion de las aguas de albañal generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "hair save/chrome tan/retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse", "through-theblue"; and shearling.
(v) Lodos del tratamiento de aguas usadas generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero:"hair pulp/chrome/$ an /$ retan/wet finish"; hair save/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; "retan/wet finish"; "no beamhouse"; "through-theblue; and "shearling". (vi) Lodos del tratamiento de aguas usadas generadas por las siguientes subcategorias de la industria de curtido y acabado de cuero: "hair pulp/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; hair save/chrome $ an /$ retan/wet finish"; and "through-the-blue".
(vii) Desperdicios del cuero desechado de la industria de curtido de cuero, la industria manufacturera de zapatos y la industria manufacturera de otros productos de cuero. (viii) Lodos generados por el tratamiento de las aguas usadas de la produccion del pigmento Oxido de Titano ( $\mathrm{TiO}_{2}$ ) usando vetas de cromio por el proceso de cloruro. (7) Desperdicio solido generado por la extraccion "beneficiation" y procesamiento de minerales (incluyendo carb6n), incluyendo roca fosfatada y la sobrecarga de la mineria de uranio. (8) Polvo del horno de cemento. (9) Desperdicio solido que consiste en madera desechada o producto de madera que no pasan la prueba de Toxicidad por el Procedimiento la Extraccion (EP Toxicity) y que no es un desperdicio peligroso por cualquier otra razon si el desperdicio es generado por personas que utilizan la madera tratada con arsenico y productos de madera para el uso final de estos materiales.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(b) .
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 606 D:
Regla 606 D Desperdicios peligrosos que están exentos de cierta reglamentacion. Un desperdicio peligroso que es 'generado en un tanque de almacenamiento de un producto o material crudo, en un vehículo de transporte - embarcación de un producto o material crudo, de una tuber1a, o en una unidad de un proceso de manufactura o en otra unidad asociada de manufactura que trata desperdicios, no esta sujeto a la reglamentacion según las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX de este Reglamento a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) mientras exista la unidad en la que fue generado, a menos que la unidad sea un embalse superficial, o a menos que el desperdicio peligroso permanezca en la unidad por más de 90 dias luego de que la unidad haya cesado la operacion para la manufactura, almacenamiento o transportacion de un producto o material crudo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(c) .
Se enmienda la Parte VI para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 606 E:
Regla 606 E Muestras
(a) La muestra sea transportada a un laboratorio para propositos de analisis; o
(b) La muestra sea transportada nuevamente al colector de muestras luego del analisis; o
(c) La muestra es almacenada en el colector de muestras antes de transportarla al laboratorio para analisis; o
(d) La muestra es almacenada en un laboratorio antes del analisis; o
(e) La muestra es almacenada en el laboratorio después del analisis pero antes de regresarla al colector de muestras; o
(f) La muestra es almacenada temporeramente en el laboratorio después del analisis para un proposito en especifico (por ejemplo: hasta la conclusión de un caso en corte o una acción legal donde un analisis posterior de la muestra puede ser necesario). (2) Para cualificar para la excepción de los parrafos E (1)
(a) y
(b) de esta regla, un recogedor de muestras que las envie a un laboratorio y Este se las devuelva al recogedor de muestras debe:
(a) Cumplir con el Departamento de Transportacion Federal ("DOT"), el Servicio Postal Federal ("USPS") o cualquier otro requisito aplicable de embarque; o
(b) Cumplir con los siguientes requisitos si el recogedor de muestras determina que los requisitos de DOT, USPS u otro requisito de embarque no aplica al embarque de la muestra. (1) Asegurarse que la siguiente informacion acompaña la muestra: (A) El nombre del recogedor de la muestra, direccion postal y el número de telefono; (B) El nombre del laboratorio, direccion postal y el número de telefono;
(c) Cantidad de la muestra; (D) Fecha del embarque; y (E) Una descripcion de la muestra (ii) Empacar la muestra para que no goterEe, se derrame ni se evapore de su envase. (3) Esta excepción no aplica si el laboratorio determina que el desperdicio es peligroso, pero el laboratorio no cumple con ninguna de las condiciones establecidas en el parrafo E (1) de esta regla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.4
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla 606 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 A Requisitos especiales para desperdicios peligrosos generados por generadores de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exentos.
Reglas 606 B (2) y (3) y de las Reglas 1103, 1104 y 1106 esta incluido en la determinación de cantidad de esta parte y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento. 4. Para determinar la cantidad de desperdicios peligrosos generados, un generador no necesita incluir: a. Los desperdicios peligrosos cuando estos son removidos de su lugar de almacenaje dentro de la facilidad; o b. Los desperdicios peligrosos producidos por el tratamiento en la facilidad (incluyendo reclamacion) de sus desperdicios peligrosos, siempre y cuando el desperdicio peligroso tratado fue contado en una ocasión; o c. Materiales usados que son generados, reclamados y subsiguientemente reusados en la facilidad, siempre y cuando tales materiales usados sean contados en una ocasión. 5. Si un generador genera desperdicios severamente peligrosos en un mes calendario en cantidades mayores que las establecidas más adelante, todas las cantidades de esos desperdicios severamente peligrosos están sujetas a toda la reglamentacion las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento y bajo los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8):
a. Un total de un (1) kilogramo de desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607 \mathrm{C} 6607 \mathrm{D}(5)$. b. Un total de cien (100) kilogramos de cualquier residuo o suelo contaminado, desperdicio u otros desechos contaminados que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o el agua, de cualquier desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607 \mathrm{C} 6607 \mathrm{D}(5)$. 6. Para que los desperdicios peligrosos severamente peligroso generados en cantidades iguales o menores que aquellas establecidas en los incisos (5)
(a) 6 (5)
(b) de esta regla 606 A , sean excluidos de toda la reglamentacion bajo esta regla 606 A , el generador debe de cumplir con los siguientes requisitos: a. Regla 702 B de este reglamento; b. El generador puede acumular desperdicios severamente peligrosos en su facilidad. Si acumula en cualquier momento desperdicios peligrosos severos en cantidades que rebasen aquellas establecidas en los incisos (5)
(a) - (5)
(b) de esta regla 606 A , todos esos desperdicios acumulados quedan sujetos a reglamentacion bajo las partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento y a los requisitos aplicables de notificacion
establecidos en la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). El tiempo de acumulacion permitido para desperdicios en la facilidad bajo la Regla 704 D (4) comienza cuando el desperdicio acumulado excede el nivel de exclusión aplicable; c. Un generador de pequeñas cantidades condicionalmente exento puede ya sea tratar o disponer de sus desperdicios severamente peligrosos en su facilidad, o asegurar el embarque a una facilidad de almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición fuera de su facilidad, cualquiera de estas que esté: (1) Con un permiso aprobado bajo la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; (2) En estatus interino bajo las Partes VIII-I y IX-I de este reglamento; (3) Autorizada a manejar desperdicios peligrosos por un estado que tiene un programa de desperdicios peligrosos aprobado bajo el 40 CFR Parte 271; o (4) Una facilidad que: (A) Use o reuse beneficiosamente o legitimamente recicle o reclame su desperdicio; o (B) Trate su desperdicio antes de usarlo o reusarlo beneficiosamente o legitimamente reciclarlo o reclamarlo.
c. Un generador de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exento puede ya sea tratar o disponer de sus desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad, o asegurar el embarque a una facilidad de almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposición fuera de su facilidad, cualquiera de estas que este: (1) Con un permiso aprobado bajo la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; (2) En estatus interino bajo las partes VIII-I y IX-I de este reglamento; (3) Autorizado a manejar desperdicios peligrosos por un Estado con un programa de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos aprobado bajo el 40 CFR Parte 271; o (4) Una facilidad que: (A) Use o reuse benefisiosamente o legitimamente recicle o reclame su desperdicio; o (B) Trate su desperdicio antes de usarlo o reusarlo beneficiosamente o legitimamente reciclarlo o reclamarlo. 8. Desperdicio peligroso sujeto a los requisitos reducidos de esta regla 606 A podra ser mezclado con un desperdicio no-peligroso y permanecera sujeto a estos requisitos reducidos atin cuando la mezcla resultante exceda las limitaciones de cantidad identificadas en esta regla 606 A, a
menos que la mezcla cumpla con cualquiera de las caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos identificadas en la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 9. Si cualquier persona mezcla un desperdicio solido con un desperdicio peligroso que excede la cantidad del nivel de exclusi6n de esta Regla 606 A, la mezcla esta sujeta a toda la reglamentacion. 10. Si los desperdicios de un generador de pequefias cantidades condicionalmente exento se mezclan con aceite usado, la mezcla esta sujeta a la Regla 1105 de este reglamento si se va a quemar para recobro de energla. Cualquier material producido de esa mezcla por medio de procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento esta tambien reglamentado si va a ser quemado para recobro de energla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.5.
Se enmienda la Regla 606 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 B Requisitos para materiales reciclables.
Regla 606 B 1. a. Desperdicios peligrosos que son reciclados estan sujetos a los requisitos para generadores, transportadores y facilidades de almacenamiento descritos en los incisos (2) y (3) de esta regla 606 B excepto para los materiales anotados en los incisos (1)
(b) y (1)
(c) de esta regla 606 B. Los desperdicios peligrosos que son reciclados se conocen como "materiales reciclables."
No. and w/ atr w/cr. | Chemokr abe/racc hc | Substance |
---|---|---|
1225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoterm |
1226 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
1126 | 81-88-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
1172 | 824-18-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
1031 | 71-30-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
1158 | 75-83-3 | 2-Butanone (LT) |
1160 | 1336-23-4 | 2-Butanone peroxide (R,T) |
1053 | 4170-30-0 | 2-Butene |
1074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (LT) |
1143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1-pyrroloin-1-yl ester, [1S-(tetraH2),7(2S, 3R), 7tetraH2,7] |
1031 | 71-36-3 | 4-Butyl alcohol (I) |
1136 | 75-80-5 | Cacodylic acid |
1032 | 13765-10-0 | Calcium chromate |
1038 | 51-78-6 | Carbonic acid, ethyl ester |
1178 | 815-53-2 | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
1067 | 78-44-7 | Carbonic chloride, dimethyl- |
1114 | 111-54-6 | Carbamodifinoic acid, 1,2-ethenediylbis-salts and esters |
1062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-5-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
1215 | 6523-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dimethylnitro (I+) salt |
1033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic diltiazem |
1156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonicontenoic acid, methyl ester (LT) |
1033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
1211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
1034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
1035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
1036 | 12769-03-6 | Chlordane |
1026 | 494-03-1 | Chlormachazine |
1037 | 106-80-7 | Chlorobenzene |
1039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
1041 | 106-85-8 | 1-Chloro-2,3-dibromopropane |
1042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chlorostilyl vinyl ether |
1044 | 67-68-3 | Chloroform |
1011 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
1047 | 81-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
1016 | 85-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
1045 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
1270 | 13765-19-0 | Chironic acid, calcium salt |
1050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
1031 | 8021-39-4 | Cresside |
1052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresols (Cresylic acid) |
1053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
1055 | 86-82-8 | Lumene (I) |
1245 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide |
1197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
1056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
1067 | 106-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
1130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro |
1058 | 90-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
1240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts and esters |
1059 | 20830-81-3 | Daucionyon |
1080 | 72-54-6 | DDD |
1061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
1062 | 2303-16-4 | Dieldrin |
1063 | 53-70-3 | Dipenz(a,h)anthracene |
1064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenz(a,l)pyrene |
1066 | 86-12-6 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
1068 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
1270 | 85-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
1071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
1072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
1073 | 81-94-1 | 2,3-Dichlorobenzidine |
1074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (LT) |
1075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodibutronanthane |
1076 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
1078 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
1025 | 111-44-1 | Dichloroethyl ether |
1081 | 120-63-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenyl |
1082 | 67-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
1240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, salts and esters |
1083 | 76-67-5 | 1,2-Dichloropropane |
1084 | 542-75-8 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
1085 | 1484-53-5 | 1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane (LT) |
1106 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethylenecxide |
1086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N-Diethylhydrazine |
1087 | 3288-56-2 | O,O-Diethyl-5-methyl-dithiophosphate |
1088 | 64-06-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
1089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbestrol |
1090 | 84-58-6 | Dihydrocarbox |
1091 | 119-80-4 | 2,3-Dimethoxybenzidine |
1092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
1093 | 80-11-7 | Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
1094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethyloxoz(a)anthracene |
1095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3-Dimethylbenzidine |
1096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
1097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
1098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
1099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
1101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylethenol |
1102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
1103 | 77-76-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
1105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
No. | Chemical | Substance |
---|---|---|
1001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
1004 | 75-07-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
1005 | 82-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
1006 | 52-98-3 | Acetamide, N-(2H-fluoren-2-yl) |
1007 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
1008 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead salt |
1009 | 563-69-6 | Acetic acid, thallium (1-1) salt |
1010 | 93-79-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) |
1011 | 87-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
1012 | 75-05-6 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
1013 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
1014 | 53-98-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
1015 | 75-38-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
1016 | 79-08-1 | Acrylamide |
1017 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (II) |
1018 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
1019 | 61-82-5 | Anisitrile |
1020 | 82-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
1021 | 492-80-8 | Acraniline |
1022 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
1023 | 50-07-7 | Azirine(2',3',5'-biphenyl)-1,2-dimethyl-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-(((aminocarbonyl)oxy)methyl)-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- |
1024 | 50-48-5 | Benz[1]tetrahydrofuran-1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
1025 | 225-51-4 | 3,4-Benzazotone |
1026 | 58-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
1027 | 23850-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-diethyl-2-propenyl)- |
1028 | 58-55-5 | Benz[a]anthracene |
1029 | 57-87-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
1030 | 82-53-3 | Benzenephene (I,T) |
1031 | 492-80-8 | Benzeneamine, 4,4-carboxymidoxibran-1,1,1,1,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- |
1032 | 5185-93-3 | Benzeneamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl- |
1033 | 80-11-7 | Benzeneamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenyleoyl)- |
1034 | 95-53-4 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl- |
1035 | 108-49-0 | Benzeneamine, 4-methyl- |
1036 | 101-14-4 | Benzeneamine, 4,4'-methylenebis(2-chloro- |
1037 | 636-21-6 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
1038 | 99-55-8 | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
1039 | 71-43-2 | Benzene |
1040 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy, ethyl ester |
1041 | 101-95-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
1042 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanone, 4,4-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)- |
1043 | 108-80-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
1044 | 25376-45-6 | Benzene diamine, α-methyl- |
1045 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
1046 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
1047 | 84-68-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
1048 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
1049 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, di-n-octyl ester |
1050 | 98-93-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
1051 | 841-73-1 | Benzene, 1,5-dichloro- |
1052 | 108-48-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
1053 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1, 1'-(2,2-dichloroethylidenebis(4-chloro- |
1054 | 98-07-3 | Benzene, trichloromethyl)- |
1055 | 26471-82-5 | Benzene, 1,5-dibenzylnitromethyl- (R,T) |
1056 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I,T) |
1057 | 109-49-2 | 1,3-Benzanediol |
1058 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
1059 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
1060 | 108-89-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
1061 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
1062 | 608-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
1063 | 98-82-6 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
1064 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- (I,T) |
1065 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
1066 | 92-88-8 | Benzene, pentachloronato- |
1067 | 98-09-9 | Benzeneauflone, acid chloride (C,R) |
1068 | 98-09-9 | Benzeneauflone, acid chloride (C,R) |
1069 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
1070 | 90-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidenebis(4-chloro- |
1071 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidenebis(4-methoxy- |
1072 | 99-07-7 | Benzene, trichloromethyl)- (C,R,T) |
1073 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- (R,T) |
1074 | 93-87-6 | Benzoline |
1075 | 181-07-2 | 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3-(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide and salts |
1076 | 94-58-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(3-propenyl)- |
1077 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
1078 | 94-59-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
1079 | 189-55-9 | Benzol, 1,3-benzophenol |
1080 | 50-32-8 | Benzol, 1,3-benzophenol |
1081 | 108-51-4 | α-Benzosquinone |
1082 | 98-07-7 | Benzolinolinone (C,R,T) |
1083 | 1464-63-6 | 3,2'-dioxirane (I,T) |
1084 | 92-87-5 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine |
1085 | 91-84-1 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro- |
1086 | 119-90-4 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- |
1087 | 119-93-7 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- |
1088 | 39638-32-9 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether |
1089 | 111-81-1 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ethene |
10810 | 117-81-7 | Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate |
Nazarioous Waste No | Substance |
---|---|
U150 | Methylsilan |
U151 | Mercury |
U152 | Methacrylonitrile (I,T) |
U092 | Methanamine, N-methyl- (I) |
U029 | Methane, bromo- |
U045 | Methane, chloro- (I,T) |
U046 | Methane, chloromethoxy |
U066 | Methane, dibromo- |
U080 | Methane, dichloro- |
U075 | Methane, dichloroothiuro- |
U138 | Methane, ecto- |
U119 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
U211 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
U121 | Methane, trichlorofluoro |
U153 | Methanethiol (I,T) |
U225 | Methane, triormo- |
U044 | Dichloro- |
U121 | (Deleted by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986) |
U123 | Methane, acid (C,T) |
U036 | 4,7-Methylcroton, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,9-octa- |
chloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro | |
U154 | Methanol (I) |
U155 | Methapyrnene |
U247 | Methoxychlor |
U154 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
U029 | Methyl bromide |
U160 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
U045 | Methyl chloride (I,T) |
U166 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I,T) |
U226 | Methylchloroform |
U157 | 3-Methylchloranthrene |
U158 | 4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
U132 | 2,2'-Methylenebis(3,4,6-trichlorophenol) |
U066 | Methylene bromide |
U080 | Methylene chloride |
U122 | Methylene oxide |
U159 | Methyl ethyl ketone (I,T) |
U180 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R,T) |
U158 | Methyl iodide |
U181 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
U162 | Methyl methacrylate (I,T) |
U163 | N-Methyl-N-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine |
U181 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
U164 | Methylthiouracil |
U010 | Miconycin C |
U059 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, (60-cis)-8-acetyl-10- |
(Cl-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyso- | |
fenobpyranoxy)oxy(1-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro- | |
6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy | |
U165 | Naphthalene |
U047 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
U186 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
U236 | 2,7-Naphthalenesulphonic acid, 3,3'-(3,3'-di- |
methyl-(1,1'-biphenyl)-4,4' (byl)3-bis | |
(octobis(5-amino-4-hydroxy)-,tetrasodium | |
U186 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
(U186 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, | |
1986) | |
U167 | 1-Naphthylamine |
U168 | 2-Naphthylamine |
U167 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
U188 | 1-Naphthylamine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
(1-7,8,10,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,67,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,106,107,108,109,110,111 | |
U111 | 1-N-nitrosobis(2-chloroaniline) |
U111 | |
U111 | |
U111 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U171 | |
U172 | |
U173 | |
U174 | |
U111 | |
U176 | |
U177 | |
U177 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U177 | |
U178 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U178 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U180 | |
U181 | |
U182 | |
U184 | |
U184 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 | |
U185 |
Hazardous Waste No. | Substance |
---|---|
U239 | Benzene, dimethyl (I,T) |
U201 | 1,3-Benzimediol |
U127 | Benzene, hexachloro |
U034 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
U188 | Benzene, hydroxy |
U220 | Benzene, methyl |
U105 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro |
[U105 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U106 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro |
U203 | Benzene, 1,2-methyleneciloxy-4-eth |
U141 | Benzene, 1,2-methyeneneciloxy-4-propenyl |
U090 | Benzene, 1,2-methyeneneciloxy-4-propyl |
U055 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
U169 | Benzene, nitro (I,T) |
U183 | Benzene, pentachloro |
U185 | Benzene, pentachlorobnitro |
[U185 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U020 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
U020 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
U207 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro |
U023 | Benzene, (nichloromethyl)-(C,R,T) |
U234 | Benzene, 1,2,6-binitro (R,T) |
[U234 corrected and redesignated as U0234 by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U021 | Benzene |
U202 | 1,2-Benzisothiazilin-3-one, 1,1-dioxide, salts |
[U202 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U120 | Benzo[2,3]fluorene |
U022 | Benzo[2,3]pyrene |
U022 | 3,4-Benzopyrene |
U197 | p-Benzopyrene |
U023 | Benzothichloride (C,R,T) |
U050 | 1,2-Benzphenanthrene |
U085 | 2,2'-Benzene (I,T) |
U021 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine |
U072 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro |
U091 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy |
U095 | (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl |
U024 | Bis(2-chloroethoxy) methane |
U027 | Bis(2-chloroisopropyl) ether |
U244 | Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) disulfide |
U028 | Bis(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate |
U246 | Bromine cyanide |
U225 | Bromotorn |
U030 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
U128 | 1,2-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro |
U172 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso |
U035 | Butanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino] benzene |
[U035 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U031 | 1-Butanol (I) |
U159 | Butanone (I,T) |
U160 | 2-Butanone peroxide (R,T) |
U052 | 2-Butanol |
U074 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T) |
U031 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
U138 | Cacidonic acid |
U032 | Calcium chromate |
U238 | Carbonic acid, ethyl ester |
U178 | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
U178 | Carbonate, N-ethyl-N-nitroso |
U177 | Carbamole, N-methyl-N-nitroso |
U219 | Carbamide, thiol |
U087 | Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl |
U215 | Carbonic acid, dithadium(II) salt |
U158 | Carbonochloride acid, methyl ester (I,T) |
U033 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R,T) |
U211 | Carbon tetrachloride |
U033 | Carbonyl fluoride (R,T) |
U034 | Chloral |
U035 | Chlorambucil |
U036 | Chlordane, technical |
U026 | Chromophazine |
U037 | Chlorobenzene |
U038 | 4-Chloro-N-cresol |
U041 | 1-Chloro-2,3-epoxypropane |
U042 | 2-Chlorophyll vinyl ether |
U044 | Chloroform |
U048 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
U047 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
U048 | α-Chlorophenol |
U049 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
U035 | Chromic acid, calcium salt |
---|---|
U050 | Chrysene |
U051 | Cressone |
U052 | Cresols |
U053 | Cresoyl acid |
U055 | Crotonaldehyde |
U055 | Cumene (I) |
U246 | Cyanogen bromide |
U197 | 1,4-Cyclohexadienaldone |
U058 | Cytohexane (I) |
U057 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
U130 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa- chloro |
U058 | Cyanohexanamide |
U240 | 2,4-D, salts and esters |
[U240 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U058 | Deunomycin |
U060 | DDD |
U061 | DDT |
U142 | Diacachloroxicamidro-1,3,4-metheno-2H-cyclobutan(c,d)-pentazin-2-one |
U062 | Diallate |
U133 | Diadiene (R,T) |
U221 | Diaminidoxime |
U063 | Dioenz[a,h]anthracene |
U063 | 1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene |
U064 | 1,2,7,8-Dibenzopyrene |
U064 | Dibenz[a,i]pyrene |
U066 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
U089 | Dibutyl phthalate |
U062 | 5-(2,3-Dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate |
U070 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
U071 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
U072 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
U073 | 2,3-Dichlorobenzofen |
U074 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I,T) |
U075 | Dichlorodibenzomethane |
U182 | 3,5-Dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propyryl) benzamide |
U060 | Dichloro diphenyl dichloroethane |
U061 | Dichloro diphenyl dichloroethane |
U076 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
U079 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
U025 | Dichloroethyl ether |
U081 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
U082 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
U240 | 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, salts and esters |
U083 | 1,2-Dichloropropane |
U084 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
U085 | 1,2,3,4-Diepoxobutane (I,T) |
U108 | 1,4-Diethylene dioxide |
U086 | N,N-Diethylhydrazone |
U087 | O,O-Diethyl-3-methyl-dithiophosphate |
U088 | Diethyl phthalate |
U089 | Diethylstilbestrol |
U148 | 1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazimadione |
[U148 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U090 | Dihydrocarbo |
U091 | 2,2-Dimethoxybenzidine |
U092 | Dimethylamine (I) |
U093 | Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
U094 | 7,12-Dimethyibenz[a]anthracene |
U095 | 3,3-Dimethylbenzene |
U096 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydropteroxide (R) |
U097 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
U098 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazone |
U099 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
U101 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
U102 | Dimethyl phthalate |
U103 | Dimethyl sulfate |
U105 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
U106 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
U107 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
U108 | 1,4-Dioxane |
U109 | 1,3-Diphenylhydrazone |
U110 | Dipropylamine (I) |
U111 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
[U111 corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1988] | |
U001 | Ethanol (I) |
U174 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso |
U067 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo |
U076 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro |
U077 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro |
U114 | 1,2-Ethanediylbenzethamodithioic acid |
U131 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro |
U024 | Ethane, 1,1'-Unethytenebis(oxy)bis(2-chloro- |
U003 | Ethanenitrile (I, T) |
U117 | Ethane,1,1'-oxybis (I) |
U025 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2-chloro |
---|---|
U164 | Ethane, pentachloro |
U208 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
U209 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
U218 | Ethanethioamido |
U247 | Ethane, 1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1, |
(COMETARIO: Para la conveniencia de la comunidad reglamentada, las propiedades peligrosas primarias de estos materiales han sido indicadas por las letras T (Toxicidad), R (Reactividad), I (Inflamabilidad) y C (Corrosividad). La ausencia de una de estas letras indica que el compuesto est a anotado únicamente por toxicidad).
Estos desperdicios y sus correspondientes números de peligrosidad asignados por la APA son:
Hazardous Waste No | Substance |
---|---|
U005 | Acetamido, N-9H-fluoren-2-yi- |
U112 | Acetic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
U144 | Acetic acid, lead salt |
U214 | Acetic acid, thallium(II) salt |
U002 | Acetone (I) |
U003 | Acetonitrile (LT) |
U004 | Acetophenone |
U005 | 2-Acetylaminotluorene |
U006 | Acetyl chloride (C.R.T) |
U007 | Acrylamide |
U008 | Acrylic acid (I) |
U009 | Acrylonitrile |
U156 | Alanine, 3-(p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino) phenyl-, L- |
U248 | -(alpha-Acetoinyibenzim-4-hydroxy- guimarin and salts, when present at con- centrations of $0.3 %$ or less (U248 added by 49 FR 18923, May 10, 1984) |
U328 | 2-Amino-1-methylbenzene |
U353 | 4-Amino-1-methylbenzene |
[U328 and U353 added by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985]
$\begin{aligned} & ext { 4 } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { a } \ & ext { % } \ & ext { % } \end{aligned}$ | Chernica apes acis. No. | Supefance |
---|---|---|
P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanatror. enstrale (R) |
P017 | 596-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo |
P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargir alcohol |
P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propena |
P005 | 107-19-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Prophenirone |
P102 | 591-08-2 | 2-Propyl-1-ol |
P008 | 504-24-5 | Pyromannie |
P075 | 154-11-5 | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pentadinyli-, and salta |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Pyrophosuliont, acid, tetraethyl ester |
P103 | 830-10-4 | Selenounia |
P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
P105 | 26626-22-8 | Sodium azole |
P106 | 143-33-5 | Sodium cyanide |
P107 | 1314-96-1 | Strontium sulfite |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychindin-10-one, and salta |
P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychindin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
P108 | 157-24-9 | Strychrene and salta |
P115 | 10031-59-1 | Sulfuric acid, thallium(I) salt |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetrachlorothiopyrophosphate |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl isad |
P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethylpyrophosphate |
P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetratereomentane (R) |
P052 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium(III) oxide |
P114 | 12039-52-0 | Thallium(I) selenite |
P115 | 10031-59-1 | Thallium(I) sulfate |
P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodentotarbonc acid, tedaethyl ester |
P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiotanot |
P049 | 541-53-7 | Thiorediodicarbonic diamide |
P014 | 108-96-5 | Thioonanol |
P116 | 79-19-8 | Thiosemicarbazole |
P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, pheny- |
P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethacathor |
P119 | 7803-55-8 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium(V) oxide |
P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
P001 | 91-81-2 | Warfarin |
P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide (R,T) |
⁰f. Los productos químicos comerciales, químicos intermedios de la manufactura o productos químicos comerciales que no cumplen con las especificaciones a que se refiere en los incisos
(a) al
(d) de esta regla 607 D, estin identificados como desperdicios tóxicos (T), a menos que estén designados de otra forma y estin sujetos a la exclusión de generador de pequeñas cantidades definido en la Regla 606 A (1) y (7).
⁰: - CAS Number given for parent compound only.
No. without waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
P085 | 152-16-9 | Dichosoboramide, octamethyl- |
P030 | 298-04-4 | Daufinium |
P040 | 541-53-7 | 2,4-Dithiocoumi |
P056 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
P088 | 145-73-3 | Endohex |
P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethylenedione |
P087 | 52-85-7 | Fenthin |
P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluorocarbamide |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluorocarb, acid, sodium salt |
P065 | 625-66-4 | Fathime, acid, mercatyl2 + jeali (R,T) |
P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexachlorobenzene |
P116 | 79-19-6 | Hydroximecarbothioamide |
P066 | 80-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
P063 | 74-90-6 | Hydrocyanic acid |
P063 | 74-90-6 | Hydrogen cyanide |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
P064 | 624-83-8 | Isocyanic acid, methyl ester |
P060 | 465-73-6 | Isozinn |
P007 | 2783-96-4 | 3(2H)-isobenzene, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
P092 | 82-38-4 | Mercury, isovaleto-Ciphenyl- |
P065 | 625-86-4 | Mercury fumarate (R,T) |
P062 | 62-75-8 | Methanone, N-methyl-N-heptaco |
P016 | 642-88-1 | Methane, oxybal, chloro- |
P112 | 609-14-6 | Methane, tetranitro (R) |
P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,5-benzodioxathiepen, 6,7,8,9,10,15-hexachloro- 1,2,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
P059 | 76-44-6 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,9-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
P067 | 76-55-8 | 2-Methoxylindine |
P068 | 80-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
P064 | 624-83-8 | Methyl acetyatide |
P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methylsacionitide |
P071 | 295-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl, (T-4)- |
P075 | 134-11-5 | Neotene and seta |
P075 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
P078 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
P081 | 85-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
P092 | 62-78-8 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
P084 | 4649-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
P074 | 657-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
P085 | 152-18-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Oenium oxide |
P087 | 20816-12-0 | Oenium tetroxide |
P088 | 145-73-5 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
P089 | 86-38-2 | Parathion |
P034 | 131-88-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
P047 | 1334-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and seta |
P020 | 86-60-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
P029 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-binitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
P094 | 298-00-2 | Phenol |
P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(2-ethylthio)ethyl ester |
P094 | 298-03-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(methylthio)ethyl ester |
P044 | 60-51-3 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S(2-(methylamino)-2-oxobthyl) ester |
P043 | 55-81-4 | Phosphorothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)- ester |
P099 | 58-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P040 | 297-87-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-(4-(dimethylamino)sulfonyl)phenyl O,O-dimethyl ester |
P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbens, tetraethyl- |
P098 | 151-30-9 | Potassium cyanide |
P099 | 508-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
P070 | 116-88-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methylamino)carbonyl)oxime |
P101 | 107-12-0 | Propaneontine |
P027 | 642-76-7 | Propaneontine, 3-chloro- |
P089 | 75-86-5 | Propaneontine, 3-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
Hazarikian wazila No. | Substance | P106 | Sodium cyanide | P116 | Thioxemicarbozide |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
P107 | Silonium suhok | P026 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- | ||
P108 | Strychnidin-10-one, and salts | P072 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | ||
P018 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- | P053 | Thiourea, phenyl- | ||
Propane | P106 | Strychnine and salts | P123 | Toxaphene | |
P027 | Propane | P115 | Sulfuric acid, thallium(II) salt | P118 | Trichloromethanethiol |
P063 | Propane | P109 | Tetraethyl(8)thiopyrophosphate | P119 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
P061 | 1,2,3-Propanediol, triethate- (R) | P110 | Tetraethyl lead | P120 | Vanadium pentoxide |
P017 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- | P111 | Tetraethylpyrophosphate | P121 | Vanadium(VI) oxide |
P102 | Propenyl alcohol | P112 | Tetranitromethane (R) | P001 | Warfarin, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
P033 | 2-Propenil | P052 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester | [P001 amended by 49 FR 19923. | |
P005 | 2-Propen-1-ol | P113 | Thallic oxide | May 10, 1984] | |
P007 | 1,2-Propyrenimine | P113 | Thallium(II) oxide | P121 | Zinc cyanide |
P102 | 2-Propyri-1-ol | P114 | Thallium(II) oxide | ||
P006 | 4-Pyridoxamine | P114 | Thallium(II) selenide | P122 | |
P072 | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts | [P114 corrected by 51 FR 28297. August 6, 1988] | |||
P111 | Pyrophosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | P115 | Thallium(II) sulfate | P123 | |
P103 | Silienourea | P045 | Thiofuran | [P122 amended by 49 FR 19923. | |
P104 | Silver cyanide | P049 | Thioindodicarbonic diamide | May 10, 1984] | |
P105 | Sodium azide | P014 | Thiophenol |
[261.33(e) revised by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Hazarikian wazila No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
---|---|---|
P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | 591-06-2 | Acetamide, N-demnothioxymethyl- |
P057 | 645-16-7 | Acetamide, 2-fuoro- |
P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
P066 | 16752-77-5 | Azoonidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyloxy)thio-, methyl ester |
P002 | 591-06-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
P004 | 208-00-2 | Aldrin |
P005 | 107-18-8 | Allyl alcohol |
P006 | 20855-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
P007 | 2765-90-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-epoxazole |
P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-alpha-Aminopyridine |
P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium pectate (R) |
P119 | 7803-65-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
P010 | 7779-39-4 | Arsenic acid |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2O3 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2O3 |
P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl |
P036 | 696-26-6 | Aromous dichloride, phenyl- |
P054 | 151-50-4 | Acrolein |
P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
P024 | 105-47-8 | Benzeneamine, 4-chloro- |
P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzeneamine, 4-nitro- |
P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
P042 | 61-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-, (R)- |
P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
P001 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts |
P028 | 150-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium dust |
P018 | 542-68-1 | Bis(chloromethyl) ether |
P017 | 596-31-2 | Bromocarbose |
P018 | 257-57-3 | Brucine |
P021 | 592-01-6 | Calcium cyanide |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
P085 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
P024 | 108-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
P031 | 480-19-5 | Cyanogen |
P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
P034 | 131-69-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
P036 | 690-26-6 | Dichlorophenylamine |
P037 | 80-57-1 | Dieldrin |
P038 | 892-12-2 | Diethylarsine |
P041 | 511-45-6 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
P040 | 297-97-2 | D,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
P042 | 55-91-1 | Diisopropyl fluorophosphate (DEP) |
P004 | 309-05-2 | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5alpha,6alpha,7alpha,8alpha)- |
P000 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5alpha,6alpha,7alpha,8alpha)- |
P037 | 80-57-1 | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 2,4,5,6,8,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1alpha,2beta,2alpha,3beta,5beta,6alpha,7beta,7alpha)- |
P051 | 72-20-8 | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 2,3b,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,67,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,99,100,101,102,103,104,105,106,107,108,109,110,111,112,113,114,115,116,117,118,119,120,121,122,123,124,125,126,127,128,129,130,131,132,133,134,135,136,137,138,139,140,141,142,143,144,145,146,147,148,149,150,151,152,153,154,155,156,157,158,159,160,161,162,163,164,165,166,167,168,169,170,171,172,173,174,175,176,177,178,179,180,181,182,183,184,185,186,187,188,189,190,191,192,193,194,195,196,197,198,199,200,201,202,203,204,205,206,207,208,209,210,211,212,213,214,215,216,217,218,219,220,221,222,223,224,225,226,227,228,229,230,231,232,233,234,235,236,237,238,239,240,241,242,243,244,245,246,247,248,249,250,251,252,253,254,255,256,257,258,259,260,261,262,263,264,265,266,267,268,269,270,271,272,273,274,275,276,277,278,279,280,281,282,283,284,285,286,287,288,289,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,293,294,295,296,297,298,299,290,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,292,291,291,291,292,291,291,291,292,291,291,292,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291,291 |
(COMETANRIO: Para conveniencia de la comunidad reglamentada, las propiedades peligrosas primarias de estos materiales han sido indicadas por las letras (T) (Toxicidad) y (R) (Reactividad). La ausencia de una letra indica que el compuesto está anotado únicamente por toxicidad severa).
Estos desperdicios y sus correspondientes números de peligrosidad asignados por la APA son:
Hazardous elable No. | Substance |
---|---|
P023 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
P002 | Az |
(COMENTARIO: La frase producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga el nombre genérico anotado en..." se refiere a aquella substancia química que haya sido manufacturada o formulada para uso comercial o manufacterero que consiste en el grado comercial puro de dicho químico, cualesquiera grados técnicos de dicho químico que es producido o mercadeado, y toda formulación en la cual dicho químico sea el único ingrediente activo. La frase aludida no se refiere al material, como por ejemplo, el desperdicio de un proceso manufacturero, que contenga cualquiera de las substancias anotadas en los incisos
(e) o
(f) . Cuando el desperdicio de un proceso manufacturero se considere desperdicio peligroso porque contenga una substancia anotada en los incisos
(e) o
(f) , ese desperdicio será anotado en las Reglas 607 B o 607 C - será identificado como desperdicio peligroso por las caracteristicas establecidas en la Regla 604 de este reglamento). e. Los productos químicos comerciales, químicos intermedios de la manufactura o productos químicos comerciales que no cumplen con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas o químicos intermedios de la manufactura a que se refiere en los incisos
(a) hasta el
(d) de esta regla 607 D , son identificados como desperdicios severamente peligrosos (H) y están sujetos a ser la exclusi6n de pequeñas cantidades definida en la Regla 606 A (5);
c. Cualquier receptáculo o membrana interior removida de un receptáculo que ha sido utilizado para contener cualquier producto químico comerciál o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga su nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) de esta regla 607 D , o cualquier receptáculo o membrana interior removida de un receptáculo que haya sido utilizado para contener cualquier producto quimico que no cumpla con las especificaciones y químico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, tendrá su nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) de esta regla 607 D , a menos que el receptáculo este vacio segin la Regla 606 A (3). d. Cualquier residuo o contaminacion de suelo, agua u otros desechos que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o agua, de cualquier producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura que tenga el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D , o cualquier residuo o contaminacion de suelo, agua u otros desechos que resulten de la limpieza de un derrame, en o sobre el terreno o agua, de cualquier producto químico que no cumple con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas y químico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, puede tener el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D.
D. Productos Quimicos Comerciales Desechados, Productos que no Cumplen con las Especificaciones de Calidad Establecidas, Residuos de recipientes y Residuos de derrames.
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D. b. Cualquier producto quimico comercial que no cumpla con las especificaciones de calidad establecidas o quimico intermedio de la manufactura el cual, si cumple con las especificaciones, deberá tener el nombre generico anotado en el inciso
(e) o
(f) de esta regla 607 D.
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste |
---|---|
Inorganic chemicals | |
K071 | Brine purification made from the mercury cell process in chlorine production where separately preplanted brine is not used. |
K073 | Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite smokes in chlorine production. |
K106 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production. |
Pesticides | |
K031 | By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid. |
K032 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane. |
K033 | Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. |
K034 | Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. |
K097 | Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane. |
K035 | Wastewater treatment sludge generated in the production of creosote. |
K036 | Soil bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton. |
K037 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of disulfoton. |
K038 | Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production. |
K039 | Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate. |
K040 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate. |
K041 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of tokyosene. |
K042 | Untreated process wastewater from the production of tokyosene. |
K043 | Wastewater and other residues from the distribution of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of tokyosene. |
K044 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-Dichlorophenol. |
K045 | Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-Dichlorophenol. |
Exfoliates | |
K046 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the manufacturing and processing of explosives. |
K047 | Soam carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives. |
K048 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of explosives. |
K049 | Pork rye waste from TNT operations. |
Permeant refining | |
K049 | Drainage and filtration of petroleum refining. |
K042 | Silt or amylator solids from the petroleum refining industry. |
K050 | Heat exchanger sludge cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry. |
K051 | API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry. |
K052 | Tank bottoms (loaded) from the petroleum refining industry. |
Iron and steel | |
K061 | Emission control dust sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces. |
K062 | Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of teplines within the iron or steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332). |
Secondary lead | |
K065 | Emission control dust sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
K100 | Waste leaching solution from lead leaching of emission control dust sludge from secondary lead smelting. |
Veterinary pharmaceuticals | |
K064 | Wastewater treatment sludge generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
K101 | Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
K102 | Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organic arsenic compounds. |
Ink formulation K066 | Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, olives, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead. |
Coking | |
K060 | Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations. |
K067 | Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations. |
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 C es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.32.
45
C. Desperdicios Peligrosos de Fuentes Específicas
Los siguientes desperdicios sólidos están anotados como desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes específicas a menos que sean excluídos bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G y anotadas en el Anejo C-4:
Industry and EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
---|---|---|
Wood preservation, K001 | Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use prebiotic and/or peritachlorobrimal | (T) |
Inorganic pigments | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments | (T) |
K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments | (T) |
K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments | (T) |
K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments | (T) |
K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (antiyorous and hydrated) | (T) |
K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments | (T) |
K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments | (T) |
Organic chemicals | Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K010 | Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene | (T) |
K011 | Bottom stream from the wastewater stopper in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K013 | Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile | (R, T) |
K014 | Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile | (T) |
K015 | Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride | (T) |
K016 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride | (T) |
K017 | Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin | (T) |
K018 | Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production | (T) |
K019 | Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production | (T) |
K020 | Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production | (T) |
K021 | Aqueduct spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production | (T) |
K022 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phenol/acetone from cumene | (T) |
K023 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K024 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene | (T) |
K093 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K094 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene | (T) |
K025 | Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the oxidation of benzene | (T) |
K026 | Shipping still tails from the production of methyl ethyl pyridine | (T) |
K027 | Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production | (R, T) |
K028 | Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K029 | Waste from the product steam stopper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K095 | Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K096 | Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane | (T) |
K030 | Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene | (T) |
K083 | Distillation bottoms from aniline production | (T) |
K103 | Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline | (T) |
K104 | Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production | (T) |
K085 | Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
K105 | Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes | (T) |
[K111 through K116 added by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985] | ||
K111 | Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene | (C, T) |
K112 | Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K113 | Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K114 | Viscosity from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K115 | Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene | (T) |
K116 | Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine | (T) |
K117 | Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromine via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K118 | Upset adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
K136 | Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene | (T) |
[K117, 118 and 136 added by 51 FR 5330, February 13, 1986] |
44
B. Desperdicios Peligrosos de Fuentes No-Específicas.
Los siguientes desperdicios sólidos están anotados como desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes no-específicas a menos que hayan sido excluidos bajo las Reglas 208 B y 208 G y anotadas en el Anejo C-4.
INQUIRY AND EPIF. | PALÍTICOS WASTE |
---|---|
HAZARDOUS WASTE INC |
Generic | |
---|---|
F001 | The following agent halogenated solvents used in degreasing tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methanol, chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethene, carbon tetrachloride and chlorinated hydrocarbons: at agent solvent mixtures/blends used in degreasing containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F004 and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F002 | The following agent halogenated solvents: tetrachloroethylene, methanol, chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, orthochlorobenzene, trichlorobenzene, and 1,1,2-trichloroethane: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those listed in F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F003 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: ethene, acetone, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl alcohol, ketone, butyl alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F004 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: oresols and oresyls; acid, and nitrobenzene: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F005 | The following agent non-halogenated solvents: toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutene, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethane, and 2-nitropropane: at agent solvent mixtures/blends containing: betons, use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these agent solvents and agent solvent mixtures. |
F006 | Wastewater treatment sluoges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum, (2) air plating on carbon steel, (3) and plating (segregated bleas) on carbon steel, (4) aluminum or anti-aluminum plating on carbon steel, (5) cleaning/stripping associated with oil, and (6) aluminum plating on carbon steel, and (7) chemical etching and mixing of aluminum. |
F015 | Wastewater treatment sluoges from the chemical conversion method of aluminum. |
F001 | Soem Cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations. |
F002 | Plating sluoges from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F003 | Soem stopping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F011 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F011 | Soem cyanide solutions from salt bath pot cleaning from metal heat treating operations. |
F012 | Quenching wastewater treatment sluoges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. |
F021 | Wastes, including, but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor cleaning wastes from the production of chlorinated aromatic hydrocarbons, having carbon content from one to five, utilizing free radical-detergent processes. (This listing does not include light ends, spent messes, wastewater, wastewater treatment sluoges, spent, cokelets, and wastes listed in §261.32). |
F022 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- or tetrachlorophenols, or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes from the production of Hexachlorophenol from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenols.) |
F023 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of pentachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives. |
F024 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions. |
F025 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production of manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include wastes from equipment used only for the production of use of Hexachlorophenol from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenols.) |
F026 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorophenol under alkaline conditions. |
F027 | Decorates unused formulations containing tri-, tetra-, or pentachlorophenol or decorated unused formulation containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not include formulations containing Hexachlorophenol synthesized from pre-purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.) |
F028 | Residuals resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027. |
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 B es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.31.
Desperdicio Inflamable ..... (I) Desperdicio Corrosivo ..... (C) Desperdicio Reactivo ..... (R) Desperdicio T6xico por el Procedimiento de Extracción (EP Toxic Waste) ..... (E) Desperdicio Severamente Peligroso ..... (H) Desperdicio T6xico ..... (T) E1 Anejo B-14 identifica los constituyentes causantes de que el desperdicio fuera anotado como un Desperdicio t6xico por el procedimiento de Extracción (EP Toxic Waste) (E) o un Desperdicio T6xico (T) en los incisos B y C de esta regla. 3. Cada desperdicio peligroso anotado en esta regla tiene asignado por la APA un número de peligrosidad que precede el nombre del desperdicio. Este numero debe ser usado al cumplir con los requisitos de notificación de la Sección 3010 de la LCRR (Anejo C-8) y con las disposiciones generales relacionadas con el mantenimiento de registros e informes bajo las las partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento. 4. Los siguientes desperdicios peligrosos anotados en los incisos B o C de esta regla estan sujetos a los limites de exclusi6n para los desperdicios severamente peligrosos establecidos en la Regla 606 A: Número de Peligrosidad asignado por la APA F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027.
Esta Regla 607 A es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.30.
(2) El receptáculo o su revestimiento interno ha sido limpiado por otro método que haya sido demostrado en la literatura cientifica, o por pruebas conducidas por el generador, o por otro método determinado por las junta para alcanzar la remoción equivalente; o (3) En el caso de un receptáculo, el revestimiento interno que evito el contacto del producto químico comercial o el producto químico intermedio de la manufactura con el receptáculo, ha sido removido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.7.
Se enmienda la Regla 607 para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 607 Listado de Desperdicios Peligrosos A. General
(3) (A) No más de 3 porciento por peso de la capacidad total del receptáculo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno si el receptáculo es menor o igual a 110 galones en tamano, o (B) No más de 0.3 porciento por peso de la capacidad total del receptáculo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno si el receptáculo es mayor de 110 galones en tamano. b. Un receptáculo que ha contenido algán desperdicio peligroso que es un gas comprimido se considerara vacio cuando la presión dentro del receptáculo se acerca a la presión atmosférica. c. Un receptáculo o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que ha contenido algádesperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas 607 B, 607. C 6607 D (5) esta vacio si: (1) El receptáculo o su revestimiento interno ha sido enjuagado tres (3) veces usando un solvente capaz de remover el producto químico comercial o químico intermedio de la manufactura;
esta regla 606 C , no esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Partes V a la IX-I de este reglamento o a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). b. Cualquier desperdicio peligroso ya sea en un receptáculo que no esta vacio o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que no esta vacio, segun se define en el parrafo (2) de esta regla 606 C , esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las Partes V a la IX-I de este reglamento y a los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). 2. a. Un receptáculo o un revestimiento interno removido de un receptáculo que ha contenido cualquier desperdicio peligroso, excepto un desperdicio que sea un gas comprimido o que ha sido identificado como un desperdicio severamente peligroso anotado en las Reglas $607 \mathrm{~B}, 607$ C 6607 D (5) de este reglamento, esta vacio si: (1) Todo el desperdicio ha sido removido, aquel que puede ser removido utilizando las practicas comanmente empleadas para remover materiales de ese tipo de receptáculo, ejemplo, verter, bombear, aspirar, y (2) No mas de 2.5 centimetros (una (1) pulgada) del residuo permanece en el receptáculo o en el revestimiento interno, o
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 261.6.
Se enmienda la Regla 606 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 606 C Residuos de desperdicios peligrosos en recetáculos vacios.
despues del punto donde los contaminantes son removidos, siempre y cuando el combustible cumpla con las especificaciones de combustible de aceite usado bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de este reglamento; y (C) Aceite reclamado de los desperdicios peligrosos que contienen aceite mediante las practicas de refinación, producción y transportacion, donde el aceite reclamado es quemado como combustible sin su reincorporacion al proceso de refinacion, siempre y cuando el aceite reclamado cumpla con las especificaciones para combustible de aceite usado bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de este reglamento; y 9. Coque de petróleo producido por la refinacion de petroleo de desperdicios peligrosos conteniendo aceite en la misma facilidad donde tal desperdicio es generado, a menos que el producto resultante de coque excede una o más de las caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos bajo la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 2. Generadores y transportadores de materiales reciclables están sujetos a los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este reglamento y a los requisitos de notificación de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) excepto lo que se provee en el inciso (1) de esta regla 606 B.
(7) Coque y adquisicion de hulla producto de la industria de hierro y acero que contienen desperdicios peligrosos del proceso de produccion de hierro y acero; (8) (A) Combustible de desperdicio peligroso producido de desperdicio peligroso que contengan aceite mediante las practicas de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de aceite, o producido del aceite reclamado de tales desperdicios peligrosos, cuando tales desperdicios peligrosos son reincorporados a un proceso que no usa destilacion o que no produce productos de aceite crudo, mientras tanto el combustible resultante cumple las especificaciones para aceites usados bajo la Regla 1105 A (5) de Este reglamento y siempre y cuando ningan otro desperdicio peligroso es utilizado para producir el combustible de desperdicio peligroso; (B) Combustible de desperdicio peligroso producido de desperdicios peligrosos que contengan aceite mediante la refinacion de petroleo y las practicas de transportacion donde esos desperdicios peligrosos son reincorporados al proceso de refinacion
c. Los siguientes materiales reciclables no están sujetos a la reglamentacion bajo las Partes V, VII, VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento, y no estan sujetos a los requisitos de notificacion de la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8): (1) Alcohol etilico industrial reclamado; (2) Baterias usadas (o celdas de bateria usadas) devueltas a un manufacturero de baterias para la regeneracion; (3) Aceite usado que presente una o más caracteristicas de desperdicio peligroso pero que es reciclado en otras formas en lugar de ser quemado para el recobro de energia; (4) Chatarras; (5) Combustible que se produce por la refinacion de desperdicios peligrosos que contengan aceite en una facilidad de refinacion de petr6leo si ese desperdicios resulta de practicas normales de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de petr6leo; (6) El aceite reclamado de desperdicios peligrosos resultantes de las practicas normales de refinacion, produccion y transportacion de petr6leo, donde el aceite serf refinado solo con flujo del proceso normal en una facilidad de refinacion de petr6leo.
b. Los siguientes materiales reciclables no están sujetos a los requisitos de esta regla 606 B pero si estan regulados bajo las Reglas 1103 a la 1107 de este reglamento y por todas las disposiciones aplicables de la parte IX-I de este reglamento. (1) Materiales reciclables utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion (Regla 1103); (2) Desperdicios peligrosos quemados para el recobro de energía en calderas y hornos industriales que no estfin reglamentados bajo las Reglas I-814 y II-815 de este reglamento (Regla 1104); (3) Aceite usado que tenga una o más caracterisiticas de desperdicios peligrosos y que es quemado para el recobro de enerGla en calderas y hornos industriales que no están reglamentados bajo las Reglas I-814 y II-815 de este reglamento (Regla 1105); (4) Materiales reciclables de los cuales se reclaman metales preciosos (Regla 1106); (5) Baterias agotadas con acido mezclado con plomo que han sido reclamadas (Regla 1107);
50(e) | |||
---|---|---|---|
50(f) | |||
50(g) | |||
50(h) | |||
50(i) | |||
50(j) | |||
50(k) | |||
50(l) | |||
50(m) | |||
50(n) | |||
50(o) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(p) | |||
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
50(E) | |
---|---|
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | | |--- |
| 50(E) | |
1121 | Chemical | Substance | |
---|---|---|---|
arcich | |||
w.c. | |||
11182 | 23950-58-5 | Propanoids | |
U124 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (1,2) | |
U111 | 821-84-7 | 1-Propanamine N-nitroso-N-propyl | |
U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine N-propox (1) | |
U066 | 96-12-6 | Propane, 1,2-dioxomo-3-chloro- | |
U143 | 109-77-3 | Propenedi-ene | |
U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-non- (1,T) | |
U027 | 39636-32-9 | Propane, 2,2-pyrido[2-chloro- | |
U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propanol sufore | |
U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dioxomo-, phosphate (3,1) | |
U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (1,T) | |
U002 | 87-84-1 | 2-Propanone (1) | |
U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propanol, 1,3-dichloro- | |
U152 | 126-86-7 | 2-Propanenone, 2-methyl- (1,T) | |
U001 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide | |
U243 | 1688-71-7 | 1-Propanol, hexachloro- | |
U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenicite | |
U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (1) | |
U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (1) | |
U119 | 87-83-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | |
U162 | 80-86-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (1,T) | |
U233 | 83-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | |
U194 | 107-10-8 | N-Propylamine (1,T) | |
U083 | 79-87-6 | Propylene dichloride | |
U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- | |
U196 | 110-96-1 | Pyridine | |
U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | |
U237 | 86-75-1 | 2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 6-(3(6(2-chloroethyl)amino)- | |
U164 | 56-04-2 | 4-(1H)-Pyrimidines, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- | |
U190 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrindine, 1-nitroso- | |
U200 | 50-56-5 | Reserome | |
U201 | 109-46-3 | Resorcinol | |
U202 | 81-07-2 | Saccharin and salts | |
U203 | 94-59-7 | Saffrole | |
U204 | 7783-00-6 | Selenious acid | |
U204 | 7783-00-6 | Selenium dioxide | |
U205 | 7446-34-6 | Selenium sulfate (R,T) | |
U015 | 115-02-8 | L-Serine, disassociate (ester) | |
U233 | 93-72-1 | Silver | |
U206 | 15553-66-4 | Streptozotocin | |
U133 | 77-79-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | |
U199 | 1313-80-3 | Sulfur phosphate (R) | |
U232 | 93-78-5 | 2,4,5-T | |
U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | |
U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | |
U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | |
U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene | |
U212 | 58-30-2 | 2,2,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | |
U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (1) | |
U214 | 15643-14-8 | Thallium(II) acetate | |
U215 | 8533-73-8 | Thallium(II) carbonate | |
U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium chloride | |
U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(II) nitrate | |
U218 | 82-56-5 | Thioacetamide | |
U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (1,T) | |
U244 | 137-26-6 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetramethyl- | |
U219 | 82-56-6 | Thiourea | |
U244 | 137-26-6 | Thiurom | |
U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene | |
U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine | |
U223 | 26471-82-5 | Toluene disocyanate (R,T) | |
U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine | |
U352 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine | |
U222 | 836-21-0 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride | |
U011 | 81-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | |
U226 | 71-50-6 | 1,1,1-Trichloroethane | |
U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane | |
U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene | |
U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane | |
U230 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | |
U251 | 86-08-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | |
U234 | 89-39-4 | sym-Trichlorobenzene (R,T) | |
U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Triozene, 2,4,6-dimethyl- | |
U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris (2,3-dioxomopropyl) phosphate | |
U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypsin base | |
U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard | |
U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | |
U177 | 684-93-6 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | |
U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride | |
U248 | 81-81-2 | Warfarin, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less | |
U238 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (1) | |
U200 | 60-56-5 | Yohimbine 16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy], methyl ester | |
U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphate, when present at concentrations of 10% or less |
1 CAS Number given for parent compound only.
10-31-86
Esta Regla 607 D es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 261.33.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
-111- 40 CFR 262
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES V Y VII
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla 702 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 702 B. Determinación de Desperdicio Peligroso
NOTA: Aán cuando el desperdicio este anotado, el generador todavia tiene la oportunidad, bajo la Regla 208 G , de demostrarle a la Junta que el desperdicio de su facilidad en particular u operacion, no es un desperdicio peligroso. c. Si el desperdicio no aparece anotado como desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 607, se debe determinar si el desperdicio ha sido identificado en la Regla 604 ya sea: (1) Analizando el desperdicio de acuerdo con los métodos establecidos en la Regla 604, o de acuerdo con algán método equivalente aprobado por la Junta bajo la Regla 208 H ; o
(2) Aplicando el conocimiento que se tenga sobre la caracteristica de peligrosidad del desperdicio a la luz de los materiales o los procesos utilizados.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.11 .
Se enmienda la Regla 702 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 702 C. Números de Identificaci6n
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.12 .
Se enmienda la Regla 703 para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 703 G:
Regla 703 G. Los requisitos de esta regla no aplican a los desperdicios peligrosos producidos por generadores de más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ en un mes calendario donde:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.20
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla 704 D para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 704 D Tiempo de Almacenamiento
facilidad por un periodo de noventa (90) dias o menos, sin permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que: a. El desperdicio se coloque en receptáculos y el generador cumple con la Regla I-812, o que el desperdicio se coloque en tanques y el generador cumple con la Regla I-813 excepto la Regla I-813 C; b. La fecha en que comienza cada periodo de acumulacion esta claramente marcada y visible para inspeccion en cada receptáculo; c. Mientras sea acumulado en su facilidad, cada receptáculo y tanque esta rotulado o marcado claramente con la palabra, "Desperdicio Peligroso" ("Hazardous Waste"); y d. El generador cumple con los requisitos para dueños u operadores en las Reglas I-803, I-810 y 207 y con la Regla I-808 C. 2. El generador que acumula desperdicios peligrosos por más de noventa (90) dias es un operador de una facilidad de almacenamiento y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II y a los requisitos de permiso de la Parte IX-I, a menos que se le haya otorgado una extension al periodo de noventa (90) dias. Esa extension puede ser otorgada por la Junta si los desperdicios peligrosos van a permanecer en su facilidad por más de noventa (90) dias debido a
circunstancias imprevistas, temporeras e incontrolables. Una extension de hasta treinta (30) dias puede ser otorgada a discreción de la Junta en una determinación caso-a-caso. 3. a. Un generador puede acumular tanto como 55 galones de desperdicio peligroso o un cuarto de galon de desperdicio peligroso severo anotado en las Reglas 607 D (5) en receptáculo en o cerca de cualquier punto de generacion donde los desperdicios inicialmente se acumulan, el cual esta bajo el control del operador del proceso que genera el desperdicio, sin un permiso o status interino y sin cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta regla 704 D siempre y cuando:
(i) Cumpla con las Reglas I-812 B, I-812 C y I-812 D (2) de este reglamento; y (ii) Rotule sus receptáculos ya sea con las palabras "Desperdicio Peligroso" ("Hazardous Waste") o con otras palabras que identifiquen el contenido de los receptáculos. b. Un generador que acumula ya sea desperdicio peligroso o desperdicio peligroso severo anotado en la Regla 607 D (5) en exceso de las cantidades anotadas en el párrafo (3)
(a) de esta Regla 704 D, en o cerca de cualquier punto de generacion debe, con respecto a la cantidad de desperdicio en exceso, cumplir dentro de tres (3) dias con el párrafo (1) de esta Regla 704 D o con otras disposiciones aplicables de este reglamento. Durante
el periodo de tres (3) dias el generador continuara cumpliendo con los parrafos (3)
(a) (i) y (ii) de esta Regla 704 D. El generador debe rotular el receptáculo que contiene la acumulación del exceso de desperdicio peligroso, con la fecha que la cantidad en exceso comenzo a ser acumulada. 4. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario puede acumular desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por 180 dias o menos sin tener un permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que: a. La cantidad de desperdicio acumulado en su facilidad nunca excede $6,000 \mathrm{~kg}$; b. El generador cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo (1)
(a) excepto la Regla I-812 B (5); c. El generador cumpla con los requisitos de los párrafos (1)
(b) y (1)
(c) de esta Regla 704 D y con los requisitos de la Regla I-810. d. El generador cumpla con los siguientes requisitos:
(i) En todo momento debe haber por lo menos un empleado ya sea en las premisas o en comunicacion (por ejemplo, debe estar disponible para responder a una emergencia llegando a la facilidad en un
periodo corto de tiempo) con la responsabilidad de coordinar todas las medidas de respuesta a emergencias especificadas en el părrafo (4)
(c) (iv) de esta Regla 704 D. Este empleado es el coordinador de emergencia. (ii) El generador debe colocar la siguiente información cerca del telefono: (A) El nombre y el número telefónico del coordinador de emergencias; (B) Localización de los extinguidores de fuegos y el material de control de derrames $y$, si esta presente, la alarma contra fuegos; y
(c) El número telefónico del Departamento de Bomberos, a menos que la facilidad tenga una alarma directa. (iii) El generador debe asegurarse de que todos los empleados estan completamente familiarizados con los procedimientos de emergencia y para el manejo de desperdicios, relevantes a sus responsabilidades durante las operaciones y emergencias. (iv) El coordinador de emergencias o su representante debe responder a cualquier emergencia que surja. Las respuestas aplicables son las siguientes:
(A) En caso de fuego, llamar al Departamento de Bomberos o tratar de extinguir el mismo utilizando un extinguidor de fuego; (B) En caso de derrame, contener el flujo de desperdicios peligrosos lo más posible, y tan pronto como sea práctico, limpiar el desperdicio peligroso y cualquier material o suelo contaminado; (C) En caso de fuego, explosión u otro escape que pueda amenazar la salud humana fuera de la facilidad o cuando el generador tenga conocimiento que un derrame ha llegado al agua superficial, el generador debe inmediatamente notificar al Centro de Respuesta Nacional (utilizando el siguiente número de tel6fono de 24 -horas sin cargo: 800/424-8802). El informe debe incluir la siguiente informacion: (1) El nombre, direccion y número de identificacion del generador; (2) Fecha, hora y tipo de incidente (por ejemplo, derrame o fuego); (3) Cantidad y tipo de desperdicio peligroso envuelto en el incidente;
(4) Magnitud de los daños, si alguno; y (5) Cantidad estimada y disposicion del material recobrado, si alguno. 5. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero, menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicio peligroso en un mes calendario y que debe transportar su desperdicio, u ofrecer su desperdicio para la transportacion, sobre una distancia de 200 millas o más para su tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion fuera de su facilidad puede acumular desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por un periodo de 270 dias o menos sin permiso o sin tener status interino siempre que cumpla con los requisitos del párrafo (4) de esta Regla 704 D. 6. Un generador que genera más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicio peligroso en un mes calendario y que acumula desperdicio peligroso en cantidades que exceden los $6,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ o que acumula desperdicio peligroso por más de 180 dias (o por más de 270 dias si va a transportar su desperdicio, o va a ofrecer su desperdicio para la transportacion sobre una distancia de 200 millas o más) es un operador de una facilidad de almacenmiento y esta sujeto a los requisitos de las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II y a los requisitos de permiso de la Parte IX-I a menos que se le haya otorgado una extension al periodo del 180 dias (o de 270 dias si es aplicable). Dicha extension debe ser otorgada por la Junta si los desperdicios peligrosos permanecen en su
facilidad por más de 180 dias (o 270 dias si es aplicable) por circunstancias imprevistas, temporeras e incontrolables. Una extension de hasta 30 dias puede ser otorgada a discresion de la Junta en una determinación caso-a-caso.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.34.
Se enmienda la Regla 504 A (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 A 1. El generador debe mantener una copia de cada manifiesto firmado de acuerdo con la Regla 703 E por un periodo de tres (3) años o hasta que reciba una copia firmada por la facilidad designada que recibio el desperdicio. Esta copia firmada debe ser retenida como registro por lo menos durante tres años a partir de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.40
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 504 A (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 A 2: El generador debe mantener una copia de cada Informe Bienal y del Informe de Excepcion por un periodo de por los menos tres años a partir de la fecha que el informe ha vencido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.40
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 502 A (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 502 A 1. El generador mantendrá todos los resultados de las pruebas, los anâlisis de desperdicio u otras determinaciones hechas de acuerdo con la Regla 702 B al menos por tres años a partir de la fecha que el desperdicio fue enviado dentro o fuera de la facilidad para el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.40
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 505 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 505 C Los periodos de retención mencionados bajo esta Parte serán extendidos automáticamente durante el curso de cualquier litigio que no haya sido resuelto en relación con la actividad regulada o según sea requerido por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 262.40
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 503 A Informe Bienal
generador llevadas a cabo durante el año calendario anterior, y además se incluirá la siguiente informacion: a. El número de identificacion asignado por la APA, nombre y direccion del generador; b. El año calendario cubierto por el informe; c. El número de idenficacion asignado por la APA, nombre y direccion de cada facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion fuera de su facilidad a la cual el desperdicio fue enviado durante ese año; para cada embarque exportado, el informe debe incluir el nombre y direccion de la facilidad extranjera. d. El nombre y número de identificacion asignado por la APA de cada transportador utilizado durante el año correspondiente al informe. e. Una descripcion, el número asignado por la Junta de cada desperdicio peligroso (según las Reglas 604 y 607), la clase de peligrosidad asignada por el Departamento de Transportacion Federal (DOT) y la cantidad de cada desperdicio peligroso llevado fuera de su facilidad. Esta informacion debe ser anotada por el número de identificacion asignado por la APA de cada facilidad a la cual el desperdicio fue enviado fuera de su facilidad.
f. Una descripcion de los esfuerzos realizados durante ese año para reducir el volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio generado. g. Una descripcion de los cambios en volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio, que realmente se han logrado durante el año, en comparación con años anteriores en la medida en que esa infomación este disponible para años anteriores a 1984 . h. La certificacion firmada por el generador o su representante autorizado. 2. Cualquier generador que trata, almacena o dispone desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad debe someter un informe bienal cubriendo esos desperdicios de acuerdo con las disposiciones establecidas en las Partes VIII-I, VIII-II, IX-I y XI de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.41.
Se enmienda la Regla 705 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 705 A Embarques Internacionales
c. Cumplir con los requisitos establecidos en la Regla 703 para el manifiesto, excepto que: (1) En lugar del nombre, direccion y numero de identificacion de la facilidad designada se utilizara el nombre y direccion del consignatario extranjero; (2) El generador identificara el punto de partida de Puerto Rico a traves del cual el desperdicio deberá viajar antes de entrar al pais extranjero. d. Siempre se utilizara la forma de Manifiesto provista por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental. 3. El generador debe hacer un Informe de Excepcion si: a. Dentro de los 45 dias despues de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial, el generador no ha recibido una copia del manifiesto firmado por el transportador señalando la fecha y el lugar de partida de Puerto Rico; o b. Dentro de los 90 dias despues de la fecha que el desperdicio fue aceptado por el transportador inicial, el generador no ha recibido una confirmacion escrita del consignatario extranjero indicando que el desperdicio peligroso ha sido recibido.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 262.50.
-IV-
40 CFR 263
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES V Y VII
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla II-805 D (2) para añadir un inciso
(i) que leera:
(i) Una certificación por el solicitante, al menos anualmente, especificando que posee un programa vigente para reducir el volumen y toxicidad de los desperdicios peligrosos que genera, el cual éste considera económicamente practico. El propuesto método de tratamiento, almacenamiento, y disposición será uno práctico, generalmente disponible para el solicitante y el cual reducirs al mínimo la amenaza presente y futura a la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.73
(b) (9).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 A (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-806 A Aplicabilidad. (1)
(a) Excepto según se dispone en el párrafo (2) de esta Regla, estas disposiciones aplican a dueños y operadores de facilidades que tratan, almacenan o disponen de desperdicios peligrosos. El dueño u operador deberá satisfacer los requisitos identificados en el párrafo (1)
(b) de esta Regla para todo desperdicio (o constituyente del mismo) contenido en cualquier unidad de manejo de desperdicio solido en la facilidad, independientemente de la fecha en la cual los desperdicios fueron colocados en dichas unidades.
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 H para añadirle un inciso (3) que lee como sigue: (3) Formaciones en cipulas de sal o yacimientos de sal, minas subterráneas y cuevas. Estf prohibido colocar cualquier desperdicio liquido peligroso a granel, no envasado, en cualquier formacion de cipulas o yacimientos de sal, minas subterráneas o cuevas.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.18
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-805 A para que en lo sucesivo lea de la siguiente manera:
Sistema de Manifiesto, Mantenimiento de Registro y de Informes
Regla II-805 A Aplicabilidad.
La reglamentacion contenida en esta Regla aplica a dueños y operadores de facilidades que disponen en y fuera de su facilidad, excepto cuando se disponga lo contrario en la Regla II-801. Las Reglas II-805 B, II-805 C y II-805 G no aplican a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen desperdicios en su facilidad y no reciben desperdicios peligrosos de lugares fuera de la misma. La Regla II-805 D (2) aplica únicamente a solicitantes que tratan, almacenan o disponen en su facilidad de desperdicios peligrosos originados en la misma.
Esta Regla corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.70.
El duefio u operador debe conducir estas inspecciones tan frecuentemente como sea necesario para poder identificar problemas a tiempo y corregirlos antes de que puedan causar daño a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.15
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 E en su inciso 2
(d) , G1tima oración que leera:
2
(d) Por lo menos, el itinerario de inspección debe incluir los términos y las frecuencias que son requeridas en las Reglas II-809 E, II-810 D, II-811 D, II-812 D, II-812 E, II-814 D y II-815 G, cuando sean aplicables.
Esta oración corresponde a la G1tima oración del 40 CFR Sección 264.15
(b) (4).
La Regla II-802 F (2) sera enmendada y leera como sigue: (2) El personal de la facilidad debe aprobar el programa requerido en el párrafo (1) de esta Regla dentro de uno de los siguientes plazos: dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion; dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de empleo, nombramiento en otra facilidad o que se le asigne a una nueva posición en una facilidad, el plazo que resultase mayor. Aquella persona empleada despue̊ de la vigencia de esta reglamentacion no puede trabajar en posiciones no supervisadas hasta tanto no haya aprobado el programa de entrenamiento requerido por el párrafo (1) de esta Regla.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.16
(b) .
La Regla II-801 F
(b) sera enmendada y sustituida por el siguiente texto:
(b) El dueño u operador de una facilidad que maneja materiales recirculados mencionados en la Regla 606 B (1)
(b) y
(c) de este reglamento (con excepción de los requisitos de esta Parte que se refieren a la Regla 1103, 1104, 1106, 1107 de la Parte XI de este reglamento).
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.1
(g) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 D (1)
(b) para que en lo sucesivo lea:
(b) El desorden o alteración del desperdicio o equipo, por la entrada no autorizada o inadvertida de personas o ganado dentro de la parte activa de la facilidad, no violará los requisitos de esta parte.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.14
(a) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-802 E en su inciso (1) que en lo sucesivo leerá: (1) El dueño u operador debe inspeccionar su facilidad para detectar desperfectos en el funcionamiento, deterioro, errores de los operadores y descargas que pudiesen estar causando, o que puedan conducir a que ocurra uno de los siguientes:
(a) El escape de constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos hacia el medio ambiente o
(b) Una amenaza a la salud humana.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
$$ -V- $40 CFR 264
LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTES VIII - II
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3
Se enmienda la Regla 707 E para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 E Un transportador deberá limpiar cualquier descarga de desperdicio peligroso que ocurra durante la transportacion o deberá tomar aquella accion que sea requerida o aprobada por la Junta para que la descarga de desperdicio peligroso no presente más un peligro a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.31.
Se enmienda la Regla 707 B (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 B 2. En el caso de una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos durante la transportacion, el transportador debe tomar la accion inmediata apropiada para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente (Ejemplo: notificar las autoridades locales, represar el área de la descarga o utilizar equipo de combatir incendios).
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.30
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla 707 B (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 707 B 1. Un transportador por aire, carretera o agua que tenga una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos debe: a. Inmediatamente comunicarse por telefono con la oficina de la Policia Local, la Defensa Civil, la Junta de Calidad Ambiental y el Centro Nacional de Reaccion (utilizando su numero de telefono de 24 horas libres de cargo - 800-424-8802 6 202-426-2675) y proveerá la siguiente informacion:
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.30
(c) . Los incisos
(a) hasta el
(i) de esta Regla 707 B (1) serán los incisos
(i) hasta el (ix).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 D (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 D 3. Si el desperdicio peligroso no puede ser entregado de acuerdo al párrafo (2) de esta Regla 706 D, el transportador deberá comunicarse con el generador para recibir nuevas instrucciones y deberá revisar el manifiesto de acuerdo con las instrucciones del generador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.21
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 504 C (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 504 C 2. Para embarques enviados a la facilidad designada por agua (embarque a granel), cada transportador por agua (embarque a granel) deberá retener una copia del documento de embarque conteniendo toda la información requerida en la Regla 706 E (2) por un periodo de tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que el desperdicio peligroso fue aceptado por el transportador inicial.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.22
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 505 C para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 505 C Los periodos de retención a que se refiere en esta parte serán extendidos automáticamente durante el curso de cualquier acción de litigio que no haya sido resuelta relacionada con la actividad reglamentada o según sea requerido por la Junta.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 263.22
(e) .
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.20
(h) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 D (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 D 2. El transportador deberá entregarle la cantidad completa de desperdicios peligrosos que ha aceptado del generador o transportador a: a. La facilidad designada anotada en el manifiesto; o b. La facilidad alterna designada, si el desperdicio peligroso no puede ser entregado a la facilidad designada porque una emergencia impida la entrega; o c. El proximo transportador designado; o d. El lugar fuera de Puerto Rico designado por el generador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.21
(a) .
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFK Sección 263.20
(g) (1), (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 para añadir lo siguiente como la Regla 706 G:
Regla 706 G Un transportador que transporte desperdicios peligrosos de un generador que genera mas de 100 kg . pero menos de 1000 kg . de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario no necesita cumplir con los requisitos de esta regla o de la Regla 504 C , siempre y cuando:
Se enmienda la Regla 706 C (1)
(b) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 C 1. b. El transportador que almacene embarques de desperdicios peligrosos con manifiesto, en receptáculos que cumplan con los requisitos de la Regla 704 A , en una facilidad de transferencia por un periodo de 10 dias o menos no estâ sujeto a reglamentacion bajo las partes VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento relacionadas con el almacenamiento de esos desperdicios.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.12.
Se enmienda la Regla 706 E (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 E 5. Una copia del documento de embarque o del manifiesto es retenida por cada transportador por agua de acuerdo con la Regla 504 C.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.20
(e) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 F (1), (2) y (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 F 1. Indicar en el manifiesto la fecha en que el desperdicio peligroso salió de Puerto Rico; y 2. Firmar el manifiesto y retener una copia de acuerdo con la Regla 504 C; y
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 3. Un transportador de desperdicios peligrosos tambien debe cumplir con las Partes V y VII, Normas Aplicables a Generadores de Desperdicios Peligrosos, si: a. Transporta desperdicios peligrosos hacia Puerto Rico desde el extranjero; o b. Mezcla desperdicios peligrosos de diferentes descripciones de embarque, segin el Departamento de Transportación Federal, colocandolos en un solo receptáculo.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 5. a. Un transportador no puede transportar desperdicios peligrosos sin haber recibido un numero de identificacion de la APA. b. Un transportador que no haya recibido un numero de identificacion de la APA puede obtenerlo solicitandolo a la APA mediante la Forma Federal 8700-12. Luego de recibir la solicitud, la APA le asignara un numero de identificacion al transportador.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.11.
reglamentación del "DOT" es aplicable completamente a sus actividades y son exigidas y ejecutadas por "DOT". Esta regulacion esta codificada en el Titulo 49, Código de Reglamentos Federales, Subcapitulo C. La JCA y "DOT" trabajan juntos para desarrollar normas para los transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos para evitar requisitos conflictivos. Excepto para los transportadores de embarques a granel de desperdicios peligrosos por agua, un transportador que cumpla con todos los requisitos aplicables del 49 CFR Partes 171 hasta la 179 y los requisitos de las Reglas 706 A y 707 E estara en cumplimiento con esta parte. Independientemente de la accion de "DOT", la JCA mantiene su autoridad para ejecutar esta reglamentacion.
Esta enmienda es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(a) (Nota).
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A 2. Estos requisitos no aplican a la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por generadores o por dueños u operadores de facilidades de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos con permiso.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 263.10
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla 706 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla 706 A Nota: Los requisitos establecidos en las Partes V y VII establecen las responsabilidades de los generadores y transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos en el manejo y transportacion de ese desperdicio. En este reglamento, la Junta de Calidad Ambiental ha adoptado la reglamentacion del Departamento de Transportacion Federal "DOT" que regula la transportacion de materiales peligrosos. Esta reglamentacion regula, entre otras cosas, rotulos, marcas, utilizacion de envases apropiados y el informar descargas. La Junta de Calidad Ambiental ha adoptado esta reglamentacion para cumplir su obligacion de promulgar reglamentacion que proteja la salud humana y el ambiente en la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos. La adopcion por la Junta de esta reglamentacion del "DOT" asegura la consistencia con los requisitos de esa agencia y evita la duplicidad y posibles conflictos con respecto a esta materia. Esta reglamentacion aplica tanto a la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos interestatal como a la transportacion en la isla. "DOT" ha revisado su reglamentacion sobre la transportacion de materiales peligrosos para cubrir la transportacion de desperdicios peligrosos y para reglamentar la transportacion intra e interestatal de desperdicios peligrosos. Los transportadores de desperdicios peligrosos estan advertidos de que la
(b) Todas las unidades de manejo de desperdicios solidos deberán cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-806 L. Los embalses superficiales, montículos para desperdicios, unidades de tratamiento en el terreno o relleno de desperdicios peligrosos que hayan recibido desperdicios peligrosos después de julio 26 del 1982 (en 10 sucesivo "unidad reglamentada") deberán satisfacer los requisitos de la Regla II-806 B (1) - Regla II-806 K, en vez de la Regla II-806 L para propósitos de detectar, caracterizar y responder a las descargas al acuifero superior. Los requisitos de responsabilidad financiera de la Regla II-806 L aplican a las unidades reglamentadas.
Esta Regla II 806-A (1) corresponde al 40 CFR Sección 264.90
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 A (2) incisos
(a) y
(b) para que lea como sigue: (2) La
(s) unidad o unidades reglamentadas del dueño u operador no están sujetas a reglamentacion por las descargas al acuifero superior bajo esta Regla si:
(a) El dueño u operador queda exento segfin la Regla II-801; u
(b) Opera una unidad donde la Junta encuentra:
(i) Que se trata de una estructura de ingenieria, (ii) Que no recibe o contiene desperdicios liquidos - desperdicios conteniendo liquidos libres,
(iii) Está disenada y funciona para excluir liquidos, precipitacion y otras escorrentias a la facilidad y de la facilidad, (iv) Posee ambas capas de contencion, interna y externa, encerrando el desperdicio,
(v) Posee un sistema de deteccion de escapes construido en cada una de las capas de contencion, (vi) El duento u operador proveera funcionamiento continuo y mantenimiento a estos sistemas de deteccion de escapes durante la vida activa de la unidad y durante los periodos de cierre y de cuidado de cierre posterior, y (vii) A un margen adecuado de certeza, no permitirá constituyentes peligrosos migrar más allá de la capa exterior de contencion antes de que termine el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior.
Esta Regla II 806-A (2)
(a) y
(b) es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 264.90
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 (A) (2) para añadirle un inciso
(e) que lee como sigue:
(e) El disefia y opera un montículo cumpliendo con la Regla II-812 A (3).
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.90
(b) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 J en su inciso (5) que en lo sucesivo leera: (5) Por lo menos anualmente, el duefio u operador determinara el flujo del agua subterranea y la direccion en la cual fluye dentro del acutfero superior.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.99
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-806 para añadirle un inciso L que lee como sigue:
Regla II-806 L Accion Correctiva para las Unidades de Manejo de Desperdicios S6lidos. (1) El duefio u operador de una facilidad solicitando un permiso para el tratamiento, almacenaje y disposición de desperdicios peligrosos deberá establecer aquella acción correctiva necesaria para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente de toda descarga de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes provenientes de cualquier unidad de manejo de desperdicio s6lido en la facilidad, independientemente del tiempo en que el desperdicio fue colocado en dicha unidad. (2) El permiso debera especificar la acción correctiva. El permiso debera incluir además un plan de cumplimiento para dicha acción correctiva (cuando tal acción correctiva no pueda ser completada antes de expedir el permiso) y asegurar la responsabilidad financiera de completar la acción correctiva.
Este nuevo inciso corresponde con el 40 CFR Seccion 264.101.
Se enmienda la Regla II-809 F para substituir su inciso (3) y añadir un nuevo inciso (4). Estos leerán como sigue: (3) Areas de almacenamiento de receptículos que solamente contienen desperdicios sin liquidos libres no necesitan un sistema de contención según definido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla, excepto como se provee en el párrafo (4) de esta regla o que se provea que:
(a) El área de almacenamiento tenga un declive o esté diseñada y operada de manera que drene y remueva el liquido que resulte de la precipitación, o
(b) Los receptáculos estén elevados o de otra manera protegidos del contacto con liquidos acumulados. (4) Areas de almacenamiento de receptáculos que contienen desperdicios descritos o listados abajo y que no contienen liquidos libres necesitaran un sistema de contención según definido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla:
(a) F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 Y F027.
(b) (Reservado)
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Sección 264.175
(c) y
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-810 D (3) para añadir un segundo párrafo que lee como sigue: (3)
En el caso de desperdicios peligrosos clasificados con los siguientes números de la APA, F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027, el plan de contingencia debe tambien
Incluir los procedimientos para responder a derrames o filtraciones de estos desperdicios de los tanques al sistema de contención. Como parte de este procedimiento se debe incluir medidas para la remoción inmediata del desperdicio del sistema y reemplazo o reparación del tanque que esté filtrando.
El párrafo añadido equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.194
(c) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-810 para añadirle un nuevo inciso H que lee como sigue:
Regla II-810 H Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Además de los requisitos de la Regla II-810, los siguientes requisitos aplican a los tanques para el tratamiento o almacenamiento de desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027.
(a) Los tanques deberán tener unos sistemas diseñados y operados para detectar y contener adecuadamente derrames o filtraciones. El diseño y funcionamiento de cualquier sistema de contención deberá tomar en consideración todos los factores relevantes incluyendo: (1) Capacidad del tanque; (ii) El volumen y características de los desperdicios almacenados y tratados en el tanque;
(iii) Metodo de recoleccion de derrames o filtraciones; (iv) Diseño y materiales de que est£ hecho el tanque y el sistema de contencion; y
(v) La necesidad de prevenir precipitacion y escorrentias de entrar en el sistema.
(b) Como parte del plan de contingencia requerido por la Regla II-804, el dueño u operador deberá especificar los procedimientos para responder a los derrames o filtraciones del tanque al sistema de contencion, necesarios para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. Estos procedimientos deberán incluir medidas para la remoción inmediata de los desperdicios del sistema, y reemplazos o reparacion del tanque que est6 filtrando.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.200
(a) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda el párrafo introductorio de la Regla II-811 B (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-811 B Requisitos de Diseño y Operacion (1) Cualquier embalse superficial que no est£ cubierto bajo las disposiciones de la Regla II-811 B (3) o la Regla I-817 B, necesitaré un revestimiento para todas las porciones del embalse (excepto para las porciones ya existentes de dicho embalse). El revestimiento deberá ser disefiado, construido e instalado para evitar la migracion de algán desperdicio fuera del embalse hacia el subsuelo adyacente, o hacia el agua subterránea o superficial, en
cualquier momento durante la vida activa del embalse (incluyendo el periodo de cierre). El revestimiento, estarå construido de materiales que permitan que los desperdicios migren hacia dentro del mismo (pero no hacia el subsuelo adyacente al embalse, ni hacia el agua subterranea o superficial) durante la vida activa de la facilidad, siempre y cuando que el embalse vaya a ser cerrado de conformidad con la Regla II-811 F (1)
(a) . En cuanto a embalses que seran cerrados de acuerdo con la Regla II-811 F (1)
(b) , el revestimiento sera construido de materiales que eviten que los desperdicios migren hacia dentro del mismo durante la vida activa de la facilidad. El revestimiento sera:
Este nuevo pårrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 264.221
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (3) para que lea como sigue: (3) El dueño u operador de cada embalse superficial nuevo, de cada unidad de embalse superficial nueva en una facilidad existente, de cada reemplazo de una unidad de embalse superficial existente y de cada una de las expansiones laterales de alguna unidad de embalse superficial existente, deberá instalar dos o más revestimientos y un sistema de recolección de lixiviacion entre dichos revestimientos. Los revestimientos y el sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion deberán proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. Este requisito aplicara a todo desperdicio recibido despues de otorgado el permiso. El requisito para la instalacion de dos o mas revestimientos sera satisfecho por la instalacion de un revestimiento superior diseñado, operado y construido de materiales que eviten la migracion de cualquier constituyente hacia dentro de tal revestimiento durante el periodo en que dicha facilidad se mantenga en operacion (incluyendo.
cualquier periodo de monitoria de cierre posterior) y un revestimiento inferior diseñado, operado y construido para evitar la migracion de cualquier constituyente hacia dicho revestimiento durante tal periodo. Para propósitos de esta Regla, el revestimiento inferior tendrá que estar construido de una capa de arcilla recompactada de un espesor de por lo menos 3 pies u otro material natural con una permeabilidad de no más de $1 imes 10^{-7}$ centimetros por segundo.
Este nuevo inciso (3) equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (4) para que lea como sigue: (4) El părrafo (3) de esta Regla no aplicara si el dueño u operador le demuestra a la Junta y ésta encuentra que para dicho embalse superficial, las practicas alternas de operacion y de disefo junto con las caracteristicas de la localizacion, evitarian la migracion de cualquier constituyente peligroso hacia el agua subterranea o superficial al menos tan efectivamente como lo harIan los revestimientos y los sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B (5) para que en lo sucesivo lea: (5) La Junta podra otorgar una dispensa del requisito de doble revestimiento establecido en el inciso (3) de esta Regla para cualquier facilidad que es un relleno de un solo desperdicio peligroso o "monofill", si:
(a) El "monofill" contiene solo desperdicios peligrosos provenientes de controles de emision de hornos de fundicion o fundicion de metales en arenal y dichos desperdicios no contienen constituyentes que conviertan los desperdicios en peligrosos por otras razones que no sean las caracteristicas de toxicidad por el procedimiento de extraccion (EP toxicity) dispuestas en la Regla 604 D; y
(b) (i) (A) El "monofill" posee por lo menos un revestimiento del cual no existe evidencia de que este filtrando. Para propositos de esta Regla, el término "revestimiento" significa revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos pasen hacia el revestimiento en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad, o un revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos migren más allá del revestimiento al terreno superficial adyacente, o al agua subterránea o superficial, en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. En caso de que cualquier embalse superficial este exento de los requisitos del inciso (3) de esta Regla, a base de un revestimiento diseñado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos migren más alla del revestimiento, al cierre de dicho embalse, el dueño u operador deberá remover o descontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y terreno contaminado hasta donde sea factible. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o descontaminado, el dueño u operador de dicho embalse deberá cumplir
con los requisitos apropiados de cierre posterior, incluyendo pero no limitado a monitorta de agua subterranea y acción correctiva; (B) El "monofill" estå localizado a más de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterránea de agua potable; y (C) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitorla de agua subterranea para facilidades con permisos bajo esta parte y la Seccion 3005
(c) de RCRA; o (ii) El dueño u operador demuestre que el "monofill" ests localizado, disefiado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra migracion de algin constituyente peligroso hacia el agua subterranea o superficial en algin momento futuro.
Este nuevo inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(e) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 B para añadirle los incisos (6), (7) y (8) que leerin como sigue: (6) El embalse superficial ser& diseñado, construido, mantenido y operado para evitar el desbordamiento resultante de operaciones normales o anormales; sobreabastecimiento; acción del viento y de oleajes; lluvia; escorrentias hacia la facilidad; desperfectos en el funcionamiento del equipo para controlar el nivel del contenido del embalse, las alarmas y otro equipo; y el error humano.
(7) El embalse superficial tendrá diques diseñados, construidos y mantenidos con la suficiente integridad estructural para evitar una falla masiva de los diques. Para asegurar la integridad estructural, no se presumirá que el sistema de revestimiento funcionara sin derrames durante la vida activa de la unidad. (8) La Junta especificara en el permiso todas las practicas de diseño y operacion necesarias para asegurar que se cumpla con los requisitos de esta Regla.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.221
(f) -(h), anteriormente
(c) -
(e) .
La Regla II-811 C se elimina y permanecera reservada en 10 sucesivo.
II-811 C - Reservada.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.222.
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 D (2) incisos
(a) ,
(b) y
(c) . Se elimina el inciso
(d) . Estos leerán como sigue:
D (2)
(a) Deterioro, desperfectos, u operacion indebida o impropia de los sistemas de control contra el desbordamiento;
(b) Una baja subita en el nivel del contenido del embalse; y
(c) Erosion severa o cualquier otra señal de deterioro de los diques u otros aparatos de contencion.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.226
(b) (1)-(3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 F (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) . Los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se reasignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y también el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Efectuar el mantenimiento y cotejar el sistema de monitoria del agua subterranea y cumplir con todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla II-806; y
(c) Evitar la erosion de la cubierta final o cualquier otro daño a Esta resultante de "escorrentia" desde o hacia dicha cubierta.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.228
(b) (2) $y(3)$.
La Regla II-811 F (4) se elimina.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.228
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-811 para añadirle un inciso I que lee como sigue:
Regla II-811 I- Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 (1) Los desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en un embalse superficial a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicho embalse de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para dichos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
a) El volumen, y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen para migrar a través del terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmósfera;
b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, diseño o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 en embalses superficiales, de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para asi proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso I corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.231.
La Regla II-812 C se elimina y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
II-812 C - Reservada.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.252.
La Regla II-812 D se elimina y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
II-812 D - Reservada
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.253.
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 E (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) , los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se reasignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y tambien el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Funcionamiento adecuado del sistema de control de dispersión a causa del viento, donde el mismo este presente, y
(c) Cuando exista un sistema de recolección y remoción de lixiviacion, se inspeccionara para la presencia de lixiviacion y el funcionamiento adecuado del mismo.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.254
(b) (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 G para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-812 G - Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Incompatibles. (1) Desperdicios incompatibles o desperdicios y materiales incompatibles, (Véase el Apéndice V de esta parte para ejemplos) no podrán colocarse en el mismo montículo a menos que se haya cumplido con la Regla II-812 G (2).
(2) Un montículo de desperdicios peligrosos que es incompatible con cualquier desperdicio u otro material que estuviera almacenado en lugar cercano en receptáculos, en otro montículo, tanques abiertos, o embalses superficiales deberá estar separado de otros materiales o protegidos de éstos por medio de algín dique, lisera, muralla u otro mecanismo. (3) No podrán colocarse desperdicios peligrosos sobre la misma base en la cual previamente se habia almacenado desperdicios o materiales incompatibles, a menos que la base haya sido suficientemente descontaminada como para asegurar que se cumpla con la Regla II-802 G (2).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.257.
Se enmienda la Regla II-812 para añadir un nuevo inciso I que lee como sigue:
Regla II-812 I - Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Los desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no serán colocados en montículos de desperdicios no cubiertos (seglin descritos en la Regla II-812 A (3)) a menos que el dueño u operador, opere dicho montículo de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para estos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme las normas establecidas en esta Regla y en armonía con cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen, y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen los mismos para migrar a traves del terreno, o ser volátiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos en conjunto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, disefo o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y de monitoria para los montículos que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterránea o superficial o al aire, para asI proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso I equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.259.
Se enmienda la Regla II-813 para afadir un nuevo inciso $K$ que leerá como sigue:
Regla II-813 K Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en una unidad de tratamiento en el terreno a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicha facilidad segun el plan de manejo para
estos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta de acuerdo a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y en armonia con cualquier otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios incluyendo el potencial que poseen los mismos para migrar a traves del terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilización de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, diseno o técnicas de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinara si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para las facilidades de tratamiento en el terreno que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 de manera que se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este nuevo inciso K equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.283.
Se enmienda el parrafo introductorio de la Regla II-814 B (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-814 B Requisitos de Diseño y Operacion (1) Cualquier relleno sanitario no cubierto bajo las disposiciones del inciso (3) de esta Regla o la Regla I 816 (B), deberá tener un sistema de revestimiento para todas las porciones del relleno sanitario (excepto para aquellas porciones ya existentes de dicho relleno sanitario). El sistema de revestimiento deberá tener:
Esta Regla II-814 B (1) es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 264.301
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla II 814 B para sustituir el lenguaje de sus incisos (3), (4) y (5) que en lo sucesivo leerán: (3) El dueño u operador de cada nuevo relleno sanitario, de cada nueva unidad de relleno sanitario en una facilidad ya existente, de cada reemplazo y de cada expansion lateral de una unidad de relleno sanitario existente, deberá instalar dos o más revestimientos y un sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion sobre y entre los revestimientos. Los revestimientos y los sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion deberán proteger la salud humana y el ambiente. El requisito de un relleno sanitario con dos o más revestimientos se cumplirá con la instalación de un revestimiento superior diseñado, operado y construido de materiales que eviten la migracion de constituyentes a dicho revestimiento durante el periodo que dicha facilidad se mantenga en operaciones (incluyendo cualquier periodo de monitoria de cierre posterior), y un revestimiento inferior diseñado, operado y construido para evitar la migracion de constituyentes a través de
dicho revestimiento durante tal periodo. Para propósitos de esta Regla, un revestimiento inferior se considerara que satisface dicho requisito si esta construido de una capa de arcilla recompactada de por 10 menos 3 pies de espesor u otro material natural con una permeabilidad de no más de $1 imes 10^{-7}$ centimetros por segundo. (4) El inciso (3) de esta Regla no sera de aplicación si el dueño u operador le demuestra a la Junta y Esta, a su vez encuentra para dicho relleno sanitario, que diseños y practicas de operacion alternas, junto con las caracteristicas de localizacion evitarian la migracion de constituyentes peligrosos hacia el agua subterranea o superficial por lo menos tan efectivamente como 10 harían dichos revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion. (5) La Junta podrá otorgar una dispensa del requisito de doble revestimiento establecido en el inciso (3) de esta Regla para cualquier facilidad que es un relleno de un solo desperdicio peligroso o "monofill", si:
(a) El "monofill" contiene s6lo desperdicios peligrosos provenientes de controles de emision de hornos de fundicion o fundicion de metales en arenal y dichos desperdicios no contienen constituyentes que suministren desperdicios peligrosos por otras razones que las caracteristicas de toxicidad por el procedimiento de extraccion (EP Toxicity); y
(b) (i) (A) El "monofill" posee por lo menos un revestimiento del cual no hay evidencia de que se encuentre filtrando; (B) El "monofill" est£ localizado a más de un cuarto de milla de una fuente subterranea de agua potable; y
(c) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permisos bajo esta parte y la Seccion 3005
(c) de RCRA; o (ii) El duefio u operador demuestre que el "monofill" est£ localizado, diseflado y es operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra migraclon de constituyentes peligrosos hacia el agua subterranea y superficial en algin momento futuro.
Estos nuevos incisos (3), (4) y (5) equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.301 incisos
(c) ,
(d) y
(e) respectivamente.
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 B, sus anteriores incisos (3), (4), (5), (6) y (7) se re-asignan como incisos (6), (7), (8), (9) y (10) respectivamente. Estos leerán como sigue: (6) El duefio u operador deberá disefiar, construir, operar y mantener un sistema de control de escorrentias hacia el relleno sanitario capaz de evitar su flujo hacia la parte activa del relleno sanitario, durante el periodo de máxima descarga producida por lo menos por una tormenta de frecuencia de 25 años.
(7) El duefio u operador deberá disefiar, construir, operar y mantener un sistema de manejo de escorrentias provenientes desde el Srea del relleno sanitario, para recoger y controlar por lo menos el volumen de agua producida por lluvia de 24 horas por una tormenta con una frecuencia de 25 años. (8) Facilidades de recoleccion y retencion (ejemplo: tanques o represas) asociadas con el sistema de control de escorrentias desde y hacia la facilidad serf̂n vaciadas o de otra manera manejadas prontamente después de cualquier tormenta para mantener la capacidad de disefo del sistema. (9) Si el relleno sanitario contiene cualquier materia particulada, que pueda estar sujeta a la dispersión por el viento, el duefio u operador deberá cubrir la misma, o de otra manera, manejara el relleno sanitario para controlar la dispersión por el viento. (10) La Junta especificarf en el permiso toda las prfcticas de disefo y operacion necesarias para asegurar el cumplimiento con los requisitos de esta Regla.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.301
(f) -(j).
Se elimina la Regla II-814 C y en lo sucesivo permanecera reservada.
Regla II-814 C Reservada.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.302.
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 D (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) . Los anteriores incisos
(c) y
(d) se re-asignan como incisos
(b) y
(c) respectivamente y se omite el inciso
(d) . Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Buen funcionamiento de los sistemas de control de dispersión por el viento, donde los hubiera; y
(c) La presencia de lixiviacion dentro del sistema y el buen funcionamiento de los sistemas de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación, donde los hubiera.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.303
(b) (2) y
(b) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 F (2) para eliminar el inciso
(b) ; los anteriores incisos
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) se reasignan como los incisos
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) y
(e) respectivamente y el inciso
(d) se omite. Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Continuar operando el sistema de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación hasta que ésta ya no sea detectada;
(c) Continuar el mantenimiento y cotejo del sistema de monitoria de agua subterránea y cumplir todos los requisitos aplicables de la Regla II-806;
(d) Evitar las escorrentias hacia y desde la facilidad para que no causen erosion u otros daños a la cubierta final; y
c. Nombre, número de identificacion y direccion de cada generador del cual se ha recibido desperdicio solido peligroso; d. Una descripcion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso por su numero de identificacion y con un estimado de la cantidad enviada a cada facilidad designada; e. Nombre, numero de identificacion y direccion de las facilidades para desperdicios solidos peligrosos a las cuales cada uno de esos desperdicios ha sido entregado; f. Una explicacion de todas las ocasiones en que el desperdicio solido peligroso ha sido recibido por el transportador, pero no ha sido entregado a la facilidad designada para desperdicio solido peligroso o ha sido devuelto al generador; y g. Certificacion de acuerdo a los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el duento u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. El duento u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio solido peligroso para tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion debe preparar y someter a la Junta un informe cada dos años, no más tarde del $1^{ ext {ro }}$ de marzo de cada año terminado en numero par. El informe debe incluir todo el desperdicio solido peligroso almacenado, tratado o dispuesto durante el año calendario anterior y debe incluir la siguiente informacion:
(3) Una descripcion del metodo de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion usado para cada uno de tales desperdicios sOlidos peligrosos;" j. Una descripcion de los esfuerzos realizados durante el año para reducir el volumen y la toxicidad del desperdicio generado. k. Una descripcion de los cambios reales logrados en el año en cuanto al volumen y toxicidad del desperdicio comparado con años anteriores en la medida en que la informacion este disponible para años anteriores a 1984.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 262.41.
Se enmienda el primer parrafo de la Regla 503 A (2) para que lea como sigue: 2. Los transportadores deberfin preparar y someter a la Junta un informe cada dos años, no más tarde del $1^{ ext {ro }}$ de marzo de cada año terminado en numero par. El informe debe incluir todo el desperdicio solido peligroso transportado durante el año calendario anterior y debe incluir la siguiente informacion: a. Nombre del transportador, numero de identificacion y la direccion o localizacion; b. El nombre y numero de telefono de la persona a quien pueda referirse con relacion a la informacion sometida;
e. El nombre y numero de identificacion de cada transportador cuyos servicios fueron utilizados para transportar tal desperdicio a la facilidad designada durante el año que se esta informando. f. Una descripcion del desperdicio de acuerdo al numero de identificacion de desperdicios peligrosos de la APA, clase de peligrosidad bajo DOT y la cantidad de cada embarque de desperdicio solido peligroso enviado fuera de la facilidad. Esta informacion sera listada por numero de identificacion de la APA para cada facilidad fuera de su localizacion a la cual se envio desperdicio. g. Cualquier otra informacion requerida en los informes de cada dos años de los dueños u operadores de las facilidades para desperdicios solidos peligrosos; y h. Una certificacion a tenor con los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el dueño u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 A (1) para que lea como sigue:
Regla 503 INFORME DE LA FACILIDAD U OPERACIONES DE LA ACTIVIDAD
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.73.
todas las facilidades, esta informacion tiene que incluir referencias de corroboracion de los números de los documentos del manifiesto especifico, si el desperdicio estaba acompañado de un manifiesto. c. Registros y resultados de analisis de desperdicio y pruebas realizadas segin especificadas en las Reglas I-807 I, I-813 C, I-817 C, I-818 C, I-819 C, I-816 F, I-814 B, I-815 E y I-820 B; d. Un resumen de los informes y detalles de cada incidente que requiera la implementacion del plan de contingencia segin especificado en la Regla I-803 E (11)
(k) ; e. Registros y resultados de todas las inspecciones segin requerido en la Regla I-803 F (4) (excepto que esta informacion sea necesario conservarla por s6lo 3 años); f. Monitorfa, pruebas o data analftica cuando sea requerido en las Reglas I-804 A, 503 B, I-819 E, I-819 G, I-819 I (4)
(a) , I-814 C y I-815 F. (COMENTARIO: Segín lo requerido por la Regla 503 B la data sobre monitorfa en las facilidades de disposicion se mantendrá a través del periodo de cierre posterior). g. Todos los estimados de costo del cierre segin la Regla I-806 C, y para las facilidades de disposicion, todos los estimados de costo del cierre posterior segin la Regla I-806 E.
Parte VI, la descripcion debera incluir el proceso que lo produjo (por ejemplo: cieno seco filtrado procedente de $\qquad$ , numero de Desperdicio Peligroso $\qquad$ (COMENTARIO: Cada desperdicio solido peligroso anotado en la Parte VI y cada caracteristica sobre desperdicio solido peligroso definida en la Parte VI, tiene asignado un numero de desperdicio solido peligroso de cuatro (4) digitos. Este numero tiene que ser utilizado para propositos de mantenimiento de registros e informes. Cuando un desperdicio solido peligroso es una mezcla de varios desperdicios peligrosos anotados en la Parte VI, o cuando mas de una caracteristica de desperdicio solido peligroso aplica al desperdicio, la descripcion del desperdicio tiene que incluir todos los numeros de desperdicios solidos peligrosos aplicables). (ii) El peso estimado o informado en el manifiesto, o el volumen y la densidad, donde apliquen, en unidades apropiadas de medida. (iii) El metodo(s) y fecha(s) de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion. b. La ubicacion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso dentro de la facilidad y la cantidad en cada ubicacion. Para facilidades de disposicion, la ubicacion y cantidad de cada desperdicio peligroso tiene que estar indicada en un mapa o diagrama de cada compartimiento o área de disposicion. Para
Se enmienda la Regla 502 C para que en lo sucesivo como sigue:
$\cdot$
-VI-
40 CFR 265
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE VIII - I
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
(e) Variaciones permisibles en el disefo del sistema de incineración o en procedimientos de operacion; y
(f) Otros requisitos de operacion necesarios para asegurar el cumplimiento de las normas de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D.
Este inciso corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.345
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 H para añadirle un comentario. Este leera como sigue: (COMENTARIO: Al momento del cierre, as como durante el periodo de operacion, a menos que el duefio u operador pueda demostrar, de acuerdo con la Regla 102 que el residuo removido del incinerador no es un desperdicio peligroso, se convertirá en un generador de desperdicio peligroso y deberá manejar el mismo de acuerdo con los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VII hasta VIII-I y II de esta reglamentacion).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.351.
el permiso de la facilidad, los requisitos de operacion deberán ser aquellos que a juicio de la Junta y basados en juicios de ingenieria, puedan asegurar el cumplimiento con las normas de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.344
(c) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 F (2) para que lea en lo sucesivo: (2) Los requisitos de operacion especificarán la composicion del desperdicio a ser incinerado (incluyendo variaciones aceptables en las propiedades físicas y quimicas del desperdicio a incinerarse que no afecten el cumplimiento con los requisitos de funcionamiento de la Regla II-815 D) a los cuales aplican los requisitos de operacion. Para cada desperdicio a ser incinerado, el permiso especificar los limites operacionales aceptables incluyendo las siguientes condiciones:
(a) Nivel de mon6xido de carbono (CO) en el gas que escapa de la chimenea;
(b) Estimado de alimentacion de desperdicio;
(c) Temperatura de combust16n;
(d) Un indicador apropiado de la velocidad del gas de combustion;
y dibenzofuranos. La EDR se determinara para cada PCOP usando la ecuacion en el inciso (1)
(a) de esta Regla. Además, el duefio u operador del incinerador tiene que notificar a la Junta su intencion de incinerar desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 6 F027.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Seccion 264.343
(a) (1) y
(a) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 D para añadirle un nuevo inciso (4) que en lo sucesivo leera: (4) Se entenderá como cumplimiento con los requisitos de esta regla, el cumplimiento con los requisitos de operacion especificados en el permiso (bajo la Regla II-815 F). Sin embargo, informacion de que aGn cumpliendo con las condiciones del permiso no es suficiente para asegurar el cumplimiento con las normas de funcionamiento de esta regla, sera evidencia suficiente que justifique la modificacion, remoción o re-emision del permiso segun la Regla I-912 D.
Este nuevo inciso corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 264.343
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 E (3)
(c) para que lea como sigue: (3)
(c) Para el periodo inmediatamente posterior a la finalizacion de la prueba de quemado, y solo por un periodo minimo suficiente para permitir el analisis de muestras, computar datos, y someter los resultados de prueba de quemado por el solicitante, ser revisados los mismos por la Junta y Esta modificar
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 D (1) para que lea como sigue: (1)
(a) A excepción de lo provisto en el párrafo (1)
(b) , un incinerador que queme desperdicios peligrosos deberá alcanzar una eficiencia de destruccion y remoción (EDR) de un $99.99 %$ para cada principal constituyente orgánico peligroso (PCOP) designado (segun la Regla II-815 C) en su permiso para cada tipo de desperdicio a ser incinerado. La EDR es determinada para cada PCOP siguiendo la siguiente ecuacion:
$$ \begin{gathered} E D R=\frac{(W ext { in }-W ext { out })}{W ext { in }} imes 100 % \ ext { Donde: } \ ext { W in - es el estimado de alimentacion en masa de } \ ext { un PCOP en el flujo de alimentacion de } \ ext { desperdicio al incinerador } \ ext { y } \ ext { W out - es el estimado de emision en masa del mismo } \ ext { PCOP presente en las emisiones de escape } \ ext { antes de descargarse a la atmosfera. } \end{gathered} $$
(b) Un incinerador que queme desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 6 F027 deberá adquirir una eficiencia de destruccion y remoción (EDR) de $99.9999 %$ para cada principal constituyente orgánico peligroso (PCOP) designado (según la Regla II-815 C), en su permiso. Este cumplimiento deberá demostrarse en PCOP que son más difíciles de incinerar que tetra-, penta-, y hexaclorodibenzo - para-dioxinas
(3) Si el desperdicio a ser quemado es uno de aquellos descritos por los parrafos 2
(a) (i), 2
(a) (ii), 2
(a) (iii) 62
(a) (iv) de esta Regla y contiene concentraciones insignificantes de constituyentes peligrosos incluidos en el Anejo C-3 de este Reglamento, entonces la Junta podra, al establecer las condiciones del permiso, eximir al solicitante de todo requisito de esta regla, excepto la Regla II-815 B (Análisis de Desperdicio) y la Regla II-815 H (Cierre) después de considerar el anälisis del desperdicio incluido con la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso, a menos que la Junta encuentre que el desperdicio va a constituir una amenaza a la salud humana y al ambiente si es quemado en un incinerador. (4) El dueño u operador de un incinerador podra conducir pruebas de quemado sujeto solo a los requisitos del Anejo C 6.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.340.
Se corrige la Regla II-815 B para que lea inciso (2) en lugar de inciso
(b) .
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.341.
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 C (2)
(a) tercera oración para que lea Apéndice C-3 de este Reglamento en lugar de Apéndice VIII del 40 CFR Parte 261.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.342.
(a) Si la Junta encuentra que el desperdicio a ser quemado .está:
(i) Anotado como un desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por ser inflamable (Codigo de Pel1gro I), corrosivo (Codigo de Pel1gro C), o ambos; o (ii) Anotado como un desperdicio peligroso en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por razon de ser reactivo (Codigo de Peligros R) por otras caracteristicas que las mencionadas en la Regla 604 C (3) y (4), y no serfn quemados cuando esten presentes en la zona de combustion otros desperdicios peligrosos; o (iii) Es un desperdicio peligroso Gnicamente porque posee la caracteristica de inflamable, corrosivo o ambas, segin determinado por la prueba para caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos inclufda en la Parte VI de este Reglamento; o (iv) Es un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque posee alguna de las caracteristicas de reactividad descritas por la Regla 604 C (1), (2), (5), (6), (7) y (8) de este reglamento y no sera quemado cuando esten presentes en la zona de combustion otros desperdicios peligrosos; y
(b) Si el anélisis del desperdicio demuestra que el desperdicio no contiene alguno de los constituyentes peligrosos incluidos en el Anejo C 3 de este Reglamento, los cuales podrían estar presentes en dicho desperdicio.
se reduzca la posibilidad de que estos desperdicios migren hacia el agua subterranea o superficial o al aire, para asf proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Este inciso L corresponde al 40 CFR Sección 264.317.
Se enmienda la Regla II-815 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-815 A Aplicabilidad (1) Las normas establecidas en esta regla aplican a duetos u operadores de facilidades que tratan desperdicios peligrosos en incineradores, a excepción de lo dispuesto por la Regla II-801 A. Los siguientes duetos u operadores de facilidades se considera que incineran desperdicios peligrosos:
a) Dueños u operadores de incineradores de desperdicios peligrosos; y b) Dueños u operadores que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas de vapor o en hornos industriales de manera que se destruyan los mismos, o quienes queman desperdicios peligrosos con proposito de reciclar los mismos y eligen ser reglamentados bajo esta Regla. (2) Luego de considerar el analisis del desperdicio incluido en la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso, la Junta al establecer las condiciones del permiso eximir al solicitante de todos los requisitos de esta Regla, excepto la Regla II-815 B (Analisis de desperdicio) y la Regla II-815 H (Cierre),
Se enmienda la regla II-814 para añadirle un nuevo inciso L que lee como sigue:
Regla II-814 L Requisitos Especiales para Desperdicios Peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027. (1) Los deperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 no deberán ser colocados en un relleno sanitario a menos que el dueño u operador opere dicho relleno sanitario de acuerdo con el plan de manejo para dichos desperdicios aprobado por la Junta conforme a las normas establecidas en esta Regla y conforme con todo otro requisito aplicable de esta parte. Los factores a ser considerados son:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo el potencial que poseen para migrar hacia el terreno, o ser volatiles o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuativas de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes u otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades de movilizacion de otros materiales dispuestos junto con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tratamiento adicional, disefio o requisitos de monitoria. (2) La Junta determinará si son necesarios diseños adicionales y requisitos de operacion y monitoria para los rellenos sanitarios que manejan desperdicios peligrosos F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027, de manera que
(c) El receptáculo estâ diseñado para contener los liquidos libres para otro uso que no sea el almacenamiento, tal como una baterfa o condensador; o
(d) El receptáculo es un paquete de laboratorio segun se define y dispone del mismo de acuerdo a la Regla II-814 K. (5) Efectivo al 8 de noviembre de 1985, se prohibe colocar cualquier liquido que no sea desperdicio peligroso en un relleno sanitario a menos que el dueño u operador de dicho relleno sanitario le demuestre a la Junta o Esta determine que:
(a) La única alternativa razonablemente disponible para la colocación del liquido es en dicho relleno sanitario o en un embalse superficial sin revestimiento, que contenga o razonablemente se anticipe que contenga desperdicios peligrosos, aunque no tenga permiso u esté operando bajo status interino; y
(b) La colocación en el relleno sanitario de dicho dueño u operador no constituye un riesgo de contaminación de alguna fuente subterránea de agua potable.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 264.314.
(b) Antes de su disposici6n, el desperdicio liquido o desperdicio que contenga liquidos libres sea tratado o estabilizado fisica o quimicamente de manera que los liquidos libres ya no esten presentes (Ejemplos: mezclándolo con algin s61ido absorbente). (2) Efectivo al 8 de mayo de 1985, se prohibe colocar desperdicios liquidos peligrosos a granel o sin envasar o desperdicios peligrosos que contengan liquidos libres (se hayan añadido o no absorbentes) en cualquier relleno sanitario. (3) El siguiente examen: Metodo 9095 (Examen de filtracion de pintura liquida), descrito en la publicacion de la APA "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" se utilizara para demostrar la ausencia o presencia de liquidos libres ya sea en desperdicios en receptículos o a granel. (4) Receptículos conteniendo liquidos libres no podrán colocarse en un relleno sanitario a menos que:
(a) Todo liquido libre o "free standing"
(i) Haya sido removido por decantacion u otro metodo; (ii) Haya sido mezclado con un absorbente o solidificado para que los liquidos libres ya no se encuentren; o (iii) Haya sido eliminado de otro modo; o
(b) El receptáculo sea muy pequeño, tal como una ampolleta; o
(e) Proteger y mantener los puntos de colindancias fijadas por mensura, utilizados para cumplir con la Regla II 814 E.
Estos incisos equivalen al 40 CFR Secciones 264.310
(b) (2) -
(b) (5).
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 F (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea: (3) Durante el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior, si algin liquido se filtra al sistema de detección contra derrames, el dueño u operador notificara por escrito a la Junta del derrame en o antes de siete' (7) dias a partir de la detección del mismo. La Junta modificara el permiso para requerir el cumplimiento con los requisitos de la Regla II-806.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 264.310
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla II-814 I para que lea como sigue:
Regla II-814 I Requisitos Especiales para Liquidos a Granel y en Receptáculos. (1) Desperdicios liquidos a granel, desperdicios liquidos sin envasar o desperdicios que contengan líquidos libres podrán colocarse en un relleno sanitario antes del 8 de mayo de 1985, s6lo si:
(a) El relleno sanitario tiene un revestimiento y un sistema de recoleccion y remoción de lixiviación, que cumple con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 B (1); 0
a. Número de identificacion, nombre y direccion de la facilidad para desperdicio solido peligroso; b. El año calendario cubierto por el informe; c. Para facilidades fuera de localizacion, el numero de identificacion de cada generador de desperdicio solido peligroso del cual la facilidad recibio el desperdicio solido peligroso durante el año; y para desperdicio importado, el informe incluira el nombre y la direccion del generador extranjero; d. Descripcion y cantidad de cada desperdicio solido peligroso recibido en la facilidad durante el año. Para los que disponen fuera de la facilidad, esta informacion debe estar ordenada por el numero de identificacion de cada generador y del desperdicio solido peligroso; e. El método de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de cada desperdicio solido peligroso; f. Data sobre monitoria segon la Regla 503 B (2)
(b) y
(c) , 503 B (3)
(b) (2), cuando sean requeridos. g. Los estimados más recientes de los costos de cierre segGn la Regla I-806 C y para las facilidades de disposicion, los estimados más recientes de los costos de cierre posterior segGn la Regla I-806 E; y
h. Certificacion de acuerdo con los requisitos de la Junta firmada por el duefio u operador de la facilidad o su representante debidamente autorizado.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.75.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 B para que lea como sigue:
Regla 503 B Mantenimiento de Registros e Informes Relativos a Muestreo de Agua Subterranea.
A menos que el agua subterranea sea muestreada satisfaciendo los requisitos de la Regla I-804 D(4)(d) el duefio u operador debera:
(a) para cada pozo de muestreo de agua subterranea, los mismos serán informados dentro de quince (15) dias despues de haber completado el analisis trimestral requerido. El dueño u operador identificara por separado para cada pozo de
muestreo cualquier parâmetro cuyas concentraciones o valores hayan sido encontrados excediendo el nivel de contaminante máximo anotado en la Regla I-804 (C) (2)
(a) . b. Después del primer año y de ahi en adelante, anualmente se informara lo siguiente:
Las concentraciones o valores de los parâmetros anotados en la Regla I-804 (C) (2)
(c) . Esos valores serán sometidos para cada pozo de muestreo de agua subterránea, y los mismos serán sometidos junto con las evaluaciones de esos parâmetros requeridos bajo la Regla I-804 (D) (2). El dueño u operador debe identificar por separado cualquier diferencia significativa de la informacion básica inicial encontrada en los pozos gradiente arriba, de acuerdo con la Regla I-804 (D) (3). Durante la vida activa de la facilidad, esa informacion sera sometida no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario. c. Los resultados de la evaluacion de las elevaciones superficiales del agua subterranea requerida bajo la Regla I-804 (D) (5) y una descripcion de la respuesta requerida a esa evaluacion donde aplique, no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario.
(d) , el duefio u operador debe: a. Mantener informes de los analisis y evaluaciones , especificadas en el plan de evaluacion requerido por la Regla I-804 (D) (4)
(c) , a traves de la vida activa de la facilidad, y para facilidades de disposicion en el terreno, a traves del periodo de cierre posterior;y b. Someter anualmente a la Junta, hasta el cierre final de la facilidad, un informe que contenga los resultados del programa de evaluacion de la calidad de agua subterranea; incluyendo, pero sin limitarse a la tasa de migracion calculada (o medida) de desperdicios solidos peligrosos o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos en el agua subterranea durante el periodo de informe. Esta informacion deberá someterse no más tarde del primero de marzo de cada año calendario.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.94.
Se enmienda la Regla 503 C para que en lo sucesivo lea: C. Otros Informes
Además de someter el informe cada dos años y el informe sobre desperdicios sin manifiestos descritos en la Regla 503 A (3) y 504 D (6), el duefio u operador informara a la Junta lo siguiente:
(1) escapes, fuegos, explosiones segin lo especificado en la Regla I-803 E (11) (K); (2) la contaminacion de agua subterranea y datos sobre monitoria segin especificado en la Regla I-804 D y 503 B; (3) alteracion del proceso de operacion autorizado; y (4) el cierre de la facilidad segin especificado en la Regla I-805 A (7).
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.77.
Se enmienda la Regla 504 D para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue D. Requisitos para Mantenimiento de Registros e Informes de Manifiesto a los Duefios u Operadores de Facilidades
La reglamentacion de esta parte aplicara a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen dentro y fuera de la facilidad excepto que la Regla I-801 provea de otra forma. Las Reglas 504 D (1) a (6) no aplicarán a dueños u operadores de facilidades que disponen en su facilidad, que no reciban desperdicios peligrosos de fuentes fuera de su facilidad.
b. Anotar en cada copia del manifiesto cualquier discrepancia significativa (segun definido en el Parrafo 4 de esta regla); c. Segun se requiere en la Regla 703 E entregar al transportador, por lo menos, una (1) copia del manifiesto firmado; d. Dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, enviar la copia original del manifiesto al generador, y al final de cada mes o periodo mayor de tiempo que pueda ser aprobado por la Junta, enviar una (1) copia del manifiesto firmado y completo a la Junta; y e. Segun lo establecido en la Regla 505 A, retener en la facilidad una (1) copia de cada manifiesto por lo menos por tres (3) años desde la fecha de entrega. 2. El dueño u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio solido peligroso de un transportador por barco (embarque a granel) que, segun se establece en la Regla 706 E, ests acompañado por un documento de embarque conteniendo toda la informacion requerida en el manifiesto (excluyendo el numero de identificacion de la APA, certificacion del generador y firmas) debe: a. Firmar y escribir la fecha en cada copia del manifiesto o documento de embarque (si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido) para certificar que el desperdicio solido peligroso cubierto por estos fue recibido;
b. Anotar cualquier discrepancia significativa en cada copia del documento de embarque o manifiesto (seglin se define en el Parrafo 4 de esta regla). c. Entregar inmediatamente al transportador por barco (embarque a granel) por lo menos una (1) copia del manifiesto o de los documentos de embarque o manifiesto (si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido); d. Dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, enviar una (1) copia de manifiesto firmado y fechado al generador, sin embargo, si el manifiesto no ha sido recibido dentro de treinta (30) dias despues de la entrega, el dueño u operador deberá enviar una copia del documento de embarque firmado y fechado al generador; y (Comentario: La Regla 703 E (4) requiere al generador enviar tres copias del manifiesto a la facilidad cuando se envian desperdicios peligrosos por barco (embarque a granel).) e. Segín se establece en la Regla 505 A, retener en la facilidad una (1) copia de cada documento de embarque o manifiesto por lo menos por tres (3) años desde la fecha de la entrega.
Todas las copias de los manifiestos o documentos de embarque firmados y completos serán enviados a la Junta a:
Area Control Contaminación de Terrenos Junta de Calidad Ambiental
e. Metodo de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion usado para cada desperdicio solido peligroso; f. Una certificacion a tenor con los requerimientos de la Junta, firmada por el dueto u operador o su representante debidamente autorizado; y g. Explicación del porque el desperdicio no fue manifestado, si se conoce. (Comentario: Pequeñas cantidades de desperdicio peligroso están excluidas de esta reglamentación y no requieren manifiesto alguno. La Agencia sugiere que el duerio u operador de una facilidad que recibe desperdicio peligroso sin manifiesto obtenga de cada generador una certificacion de que dicho desperdicio cualifica para la exclusión. De otro modo, la Agencia sugiere que el duerio u operador someta un informe para el movimiento del desperdicio peligroso no manifestado.)
Esta Regla 504 D equivale al 40 CFR Secciones $265.71,265.72$ y 265.76 .
Se enmienda la Regla I-801 para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Parte VIII - SUBPARTE I DISPOSICIONES ESPECIALES PARA FACILIDADES PARA EL TRATAMIENTO, ALMACENAMIENTO Y DISPOSICION DE DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS.
Regla I-801 Propósito, Alcance y Aplicabilidad
Esta parte establece requisitos adicionales aplicables a facilidades para el tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios s6lidos peligrosos. Estos requisitos suplementan las disposiciones generales de la Parte II y
las prohibiciones generales de la Parte III. Las mismas no son aplicables a facilidades que no manejan desperdicios s6lidos peligrosos. Se establecen normas minimas que definan el manejo aceptable de desperdicios peligrosos durante el periodo de status interino y hasta que se expida la certificacion de cierre final o, si la facilidad esta sujeta a los requisitos de cierre posterior hasta tanto se completen dichas responsabilidades. A. Los requisitos de esta parte aplican a los dueños u operadores de facilidades que tratan, almacenan o disponen desperdicios peligrosos que han cumplido en su totalidad con los requisitos de status interino bajo la Seccion 3005
(e) de la Ley Federal de Conservacion y Recuperacion de Recursos, que haya sometido una solicitud de permiso (Parte A) antes del 19 de noviembre de 1980 y que hayan cumplido con las Reglas I-902 y I-903, 6 proceda a hacerlo asi dentro de los proximos 6 meses de entrar en vigencia este reglamento. Estos requisitos tambien aplican a dueños u operadores de facilidades de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos que existian para el 19 de noviembre de 1980 y que no han sometido una solicitud de permiso bajo RCRA y/o este reglamento excepto lo que de otra forma se provea en la Parte VI de este reglamento. (COMENTARIO: Luego de la fecha de vigencia de la reglamentacion, bajo la (Parte IX-I), el tratamiento, almacenamiento y disposicion de desperdicios peligrosos est£ prohibida excepto cuando se haga de acuerdo con un permiso. Tambien se povee para el funcionamiento continuo de una facilidad existente que reuna ciertas condiciones, hasta que se disponga final y administrativamente la solicitud de permiso hecha por el duefio u operador).
B. Los requisitos de esta Parte no aplican a:
(b) y
(c) de este reglamento (excepto en la medida que los requisitos de esta Parte se refieran a las Reglas 1103, 1104, 110661107 de este reglamento). 6) Un generador que acumule desperdicios en la facilidad en cumplimiento con la Regla 704 D de este reglamento, si los mismos son aplicables. 7) Un agricultor disponiendo desperdicios de plaguicidas de su propio uso en cumplimiento con la Regla 705 C de este reglamento; o
(a) Excepto lo provisto en el párrafo (B) (10)
(b) de esta regla, una persona envuelta en la actividad de tratamiento o contencion durante una respuesta inmediata a una de las siguientes situaciones:
(i) Una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos; (ii) Una amenaza inminente y substancial de una descarga de desperdicios peligrosos;
(iii) Una descarga de un material que al ser descargado se convierta en desperdicio peligroso.
(b) El dueño u operador de una facilidad que de otra forma hubiese sido reglamentada por esta parte, debe cumplir con los requisitos aplicables del Plan de Contingencia y el de Prevención, Control y Contramedidas de Derrames.
(c) Una persona que está cubierta por el párrafo B (10)
(a) de esta regla y que continúa o inicia las actividades de tratamiento o contención de desperdicios peligrosos despues que una respuesta inmediata ha finalizado, esta sujeta a todos los requisitos aplicables de esta parte y la reglamentacion aplicable de permisos bajo el Sistema Nacional para la Eliminacion de Descargas Contaminantes ("National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System"). 11) Un transportador almacenando embarques de receptáculos de desperdicios peligrosos que fueron manifestados cumpliendo con los requisitos de la Regla 704 A en una facilidad de transferencia por un período de diez dias o menos.
(a) El cieno del tratamiento de aguas usadas es generado en un embalse superficial como parte del sistema de tratamiento de una planta de aguas usadas;
(b) El desperdicio es almacenado en tanques o receptáculos;
(c) El desperdicio es almacenado o tratado en montículos de desperdicios que reunen los requisitos de la Regla II-812 A (3) como todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla I-818;
(d) El desperdicio es quemado en incineradores certificados segin las normas y procedimientos de la Regla I-814-G; o
(e) El desperdicio es quemado en facilidades que tratan los desperdicios de forma térmica en otro aparato que no sea un incinerador y que est£ certificado según las normas y procedimientos de la Regla I-815 K.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.1.
Se enmienda la Regla I-803 (C) para añadir un inciso (4) que leera como sigue: 4. Estâ prohibido colocar cualquier desperdicio peligroso en formaciones de cipulas o yacimientos de sal, minas subterraneas o cuevas.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.18. Se enmienda la Regla I-803 E para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-803 E - Plan de Contingencia y Procedimientos de Emergencia en el Plan de operaciones.
(b) -
(k) en respuesta a fuegos, explosiones o cualquier escape repentino no planificado o escape no repentino de desperdicio peligroso o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos al aire, el terreno o al agua superficial en la facilidad. 4. Si el dueño ha preparado ya un Plan de Prevencion, Control y Contramedidas de Derrames (PCCD) de acuerdo con el Anejo C-10 de este Reglamento o algán otro plan de emergencia o contingencia, necesitará solamente enmendar ese plan para incorporar las disposiciones para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos que sean suficientes para cumplir con los requisitos de esta Parte. 5. El plan deberá describir los convenios acordados con el Departamento de Policia, Departamento de Bomberos, hospitales, contratistas y equipos locales y estatales de reaccion a emergencias para coordinar los servicios de emergencia segán la Regla I-810 G. 6. El plan deberá expresar los nombres, direcciones, y números telefonicos (tanto de la oficina como del hogar) de todas las personas calificadas para actuar como coordinadores de emergencia (Regla I-803 E (11)
(a) ) y dicha lista se mantendrá actualizada. Cuando se nombren más de una persona, una de las deberá ser nombrada como principal coordinador de emergencias y los otros deberán ser nombrados en el orden en que asumirán responsabilidades como coordinadores alternos.
a) La reglamentación aplicable sea revisada;
b) Cuando el plan falle durante una emergencia;
c) Ocurran cambios en el disefo, construccion, operacion, mantenimiento u otras circunstancias de la facilidad de manera que materialmente aumente el potencial para fuegos, explosiones o escapes de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes de desperdicios peligrosos, o cambie la respuesta necesaria en una emergencia;
d) Ocurran cambios en la lista de coordinadores de emergencias; u e) Ocurran cambios en la lista de equipos de emergencias. 11. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio s61ido peligroso deberá desarrollar y someter por escrito para la aprobacion de la Junta los procedimientos de emergencia como parte del Plan de Operaciones de la Facilidad. Estos procedimientos de emergencias deberán satisfacer los requisitos de la Regla 207 y en adicion deberán proveer lo siguiente:
a) Al menos un empleado debe estar en todo momento en la facilidad o disponible por teléfono (que pueda responder a una emergencia en la facilidad en un corto periodo de tiempo) con la responsabilidad de coordinar todas las medidas de emergencia. Este Coordinador de Emergencias debe estar familiarizado con todos los aspectos del Plan de Contingencia de la facilidad, toda la operacion o actividad de la facilidad, la localizacion y caracteristicas del desperdicio manejado, la
localización de todos los registros dentro de la facilidad y un croquis de las estructuras que componen la facilidad. Además, esta persona debe tener la autoridad para comprometer los recursos necesarios para cumplir con el plan de contingencia. (COMENTARIO: La responsabilidad del Coordinador de Emergencias est& detallada en la Regla I-803 E (II)
(b) . Las responsabilidades aplicables pueden variar dependiendo de factores tales como: el tipo y variedad del desperdicio manejado en la facilidad, y el tipo y la complejidad de la facilidad). b) Cuando existe una situación de emergencia presente o inminente, el Coordinador de Emergencia (o la persona designada por Este cuando se trata de conseguir al Coordinador de Emergencia por te18fono) inmediatamente deber&: (1) Activar las alarmas internas de la facilidad o el sistema de comunicaciones, cuando sea aplicable, para notificar a todo el personal de la facilidad; y (2) Notificar a las agencias pertinentes designadas para proporcionar la ayuda necesaria en estos casos. c) Cuando existe un escape, fuego o explosión, el Coordinador de Emergencia identificara inmediatamente la naturaleza, la fuente exacta, la cantidad y la verdadera extensión del escape. Podra lograr estos objetivos observando o revisando los registros o manifiestos de la facilidad y si fuera necesario mediante análisis químicos.
d) Al mismo tiempo, el Coordinador de Emergencias determinara los posibles peligros para la salud y el ambiente que puedan resultar como consecuencia del escape, fuego o explosión. Esta determinacion considerara los efectos directos e indirectos del escape, fuego o explosión. (Por ejemplo: los efectos de gases tóxicos irritantes o asfixiantes que puedan ser generados, o los efectos de cualquier escorrentia de desperdicio peligroso en el agua superficial, del agua o agentes químicos que se utilicen para controlar el fuego y explosiones inducidas por el calor). e) Si el Coordinador de Emergencias determina que la facilidad ha tenido un escape, explosión o fuego que puede poner en peligro la salud o el ambiente fuera de la facilidad, deberá informar sus hallazgos de la siguiente manera: (1) Si su determinacion indica que sera aconsejable evacuar el área adyacente, deberá notificar inmediatamente a las autoridades apropiadas. Debera estar disponible para ayudar los oficiales correspondientes a decidir si debe ser evacuado o no el área adyacente; y (2) Debera notificar inmediatamente al oficial Gubernamental designado como Coordinador en la escena del accidente para esa área geográfica, o al Centro de Reacción de Emergencias (al telefono libre de cargos (800) 424-8802 en operacion 24 horas). Este informe incluir&:
(1) Nombre y número de teléfono de la persona que informa; (ii) Nombre y dirección de la facilidad; (iii) Hora y tipo de incidente (escape o fuego); (iv) El nombre y cantidad de los desperdicios envueltos si se conoce la extension de los mismos;
(v) La extension de los heridos, si alguno; y (vi) Los posibles riesgos a la salud humana o al ambiente fuera de la facilidad. f) Durante una emergencia el Coordinador de Emergencia deberá tomar todas las medidas necesarias para garantizar que los fuegos, explosiones o escapes no ocurrirán, recurrirán o se esparcirán hacia otros desperdicios peligrosos en la facilidad. Estas medidas incluirán, cuando sea aplicable, detener procesos y operaciones, recoger y contener el desperdicio liberado y remover o aislar los receptáculos. g) Si la facilidad detiene sus operaciones en respuesta a un fuego, explosión o escape, el Coordinador de Emergencias deberá rastrear las posibles filtraciones, el desarrollo de presión, la generacion de gases o rotura de valvulas, tuberias y cualquier otro equipo cuando sea apropiado.
h) Inmediatamente despues de una emergencia, el Coordinador de Emergencias proveer& para el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposici6n de los desperdicios recuperados, los terrenos o agua superficial contaminada, o cualquier otro material que resulte de un escape, fuego o explosión en la facilidad. (COMENTARIO: A menos que el duefio u operador pueda demostrar (de acuerdo a la definición de la Regla 102), que el material recuperado no es desperdicio peligroso, el dueño u operador se convertir& en un generador de desperdicios peligrosos y deber& manejar el mismo de acuerdo con todos los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VII y VIII-I). i) El Coordinador de Emergencias garantizar& que en las areas afectadas de la facilidad: (1) Ningún desperdicio que pueda ser incompatible con el material del escape sera tratado, almacenado o dispuesto hasta que se termine con los procedimientos de limpieza; y (2) Todo el equipo de emergencia registrado en el plan de contingencia est& limpio y adecuado para el uso designado antes de reanudar las operaciones.
j) El duefio u operador notificara a la Junta y a las autoridades locales correspondientes, que la facilidad se encuentra en cumplimiento con el parrafo
(i) de esta regla antes de reanudar las operaciones en el Srea afectada. k) El duefio u operador anotara en el registro de operacion la hora, dia y detalles de cualquier incidente que requiera la implantacion del plan de contingencia. Dentro de quince dias despues del incidente, someter a la Junta un informe escrito. Este informe incluir&: (1) Nombre, direccion y numero de telefono del duelo u operador; (2) Nombre, direccion y numero de telefono de la facilidad; (3) Dia, hora y tipo de incidente (fuego, explosion); (4) Nombre y cantidad de los desperdicios envueltos; (5) La extencion de los daños, si alguno; (6) Un estimado del peligro existente o potencial a la salud o al ambiente cuando sea aplicable; $y$ (7) La cantidad estimada, y disposicion del material recuperado en el incidente."
Esta Regla I-803 E equivale al 40 CFR Parte 265. Subparte D.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 Monitoria del Agua Subterranea A. Programa para la Monitoria del Agua Subterranea.
(1) Las caracteristicas de la zona saturada (ej., materiales geologicos, propiedades fisicas, y la tasa o proporcion del flujo del agua subterránea); y (ii) La proximidad de la facilidad a los abastos de agua o al agua superficial. 4. Si el duefio u operador asume (o sabe) que la monitoria de los parámetros indicadores en el agua subterránea segfin establecidos en los subpárrafos (B) y (C) de esta regla, puede exhibir aumentos estadisticamente significativos (o reduccion en el caso de pH ), cuando sea evaluado segin la Regla I-804 D (2), podrá elegir, instalar, operar y mantener un sistmea alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea (otro que el descrito en los subpárrafos (B) y (C) de esta regla). Si el duefio u operador decide utilizar el sistema alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea, debera: a. Dentro de un (1) año despues de la fecha de vigencia de este reglamento, someter a la Junta un plan especifico, certificado por un ge6logo o ingeniero cualificado en suelos que satisfaga los requisitos del subpárrafo (D) (4)
(c) , para un sistema alterno de monitorfa de agua subterránea; b. No más tarde un (1) año despues de la fecha de vigencia este reglamento, iniciarf las determinaciones especificadas en el subparrafo (D) (4)
(d) de esta regla;
c. Dentro de quince (15) días después de haber efectuado las determinaciones preparara y someterá a la Junta un informe escrito de acuerdo con la Regla I-804 D (4)
(e) . d. Continuara efectuando esas determinaciones en una base trimestral hasta el cierre final de la facilidad; y e. Cumplira con los requisitos de mantenimiento de registros e informes relativos a muestreo de agua subterranea. 5. Los requisitos de monitoria de agua subterranea de esta Regla pueden ser obviados en relación a cualquier embalse superficial que: a. Es utilizado para neutralizar desperdicios que son peligrosos Gnicamente porque exhiben la caracteristica de corrosivo bajo la Regla 604 B o están clasificados como desperdicios peligrosos en la Regla 608 de este Reglamento Gnicamente por esta razon; y b. No contiene otro desperdicio peligroso, si el duefio u operador demuestra que no hay potencial de migracion de desperdicio peligroso desde el embalse. Esta demostracion establecerá, basado en la consideración de la característica del desperdicio y del embalse, que los desperdicios corrosivos serán neutralizados en forma tal que no cumplirán con la
caracterlstica de corrosividad antes de que puedan emigrar fuera del embalse. La demostración sera por escrito y certificada por un profesional cualificado.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.90.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 B para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 B Sistema de Monitorla del Agua Subterranea.
(i) Representativas de la calidad de trasfondo del agua subterranea en el acuifero más elevado cerca de la facilidad; y (ii) No afectadas por la facilidad y b. Se instalarán hidráulicamente gradiente abajo por lo menos tres (3) pozos de monitoria (ej., en la direccion en que disminuye el "static head") en el limite del área de manejo de desperdicio. Su numero, localización y profundidad garantizarán
que los mismos detectaran inmediatamente cualquier cantidad estadisticamente significativa de desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes que migren desde el Srea de manejo del desperdicio hacia el acuifero más elevado. 2. No se requeriran sistemas separados de monitoria para cada componente de manejo de desperdicio de una facilidad, siempre que el muestreo de la calidad del agua gradiente arriba o gradiente abajo puede detectar cualquier descarga desde el área de manejo de desperdicios. a. Para una facilidad consistente de solo un embalse superficial, relleno o facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno, el área de disposición de desperdicio estara comprendida por el perimetro del limite del embalse, relleno o área de tratamiento. b. Para una facilidad consistente de más de un embalse superficial, relleno, el área de manejo de desperdicio estará comprendida por el área imaginaria que circunscribe los varios componentes de manejo del desperdicio. 3. Cada pozo de monitoria estará revestido en tal forma que mantenga la integridad de la capa del pozo de monitoria. La tuberla de revestimiento estará perforada o rellenada con gravilla o arena hasta donde sea necesario, que permita la toma de muestras o profundidades donde existen las zonas de flujo apropiado del acuifero. El espacio anular (ej., el
espacio entre la capa y la tuber1a de revestimiento del pozo) sobre la profundidad de muestreo deberá estar sellado con un material adecuado (ej., lechada de cemento o pasta de bentonita) para evitar la contaminacion de las muestras y del agua subterranea.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.91.
Se enmienda el incios (1) de la Regla I-804 C para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 C Plan de Muestreo y Análisis del Agua Subterránea
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.92.
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (1) incisos
(a) ,
(b) y
(c) para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-804 D
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.93
(a) (1), (2) y (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. Si las comparaciones con los pozos gradiente arriba demuestran aumentos significativos (o reduccion del pH ), el dueño u operador deberá someter dicha informacion a la Junta. Si la comparacion de los pozos gradiente abajo demuestran un aumento significativo (o reduccion, del pH ), el dueño u operador entonces deberá inmediatamente obtener muestras adicionales del agua subterranea de los pozos gradiente abajo donde se detecto la diferencia significativa, dividir las muestras en dos (2) y obtener analisis independiente de las muestras adicionales para determinar si la diferencia significativa se debio a un error de laboratorio.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(c) (1) y (2).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (4) en sus sub-incisos
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) . Estos leerán como sigue:
(b) Dentro de quince (15) dias luego del aviso inicial bajo el inciso 4
(a) anterior, el dueño u operador desarrollara y someter a la Junta un plan especifico basado en el bosquejo más comprensivo de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterránea requerido bajo el párrafo (1) de esta regla y lo someterá con una certificación de un geólogo cualificado o de un ingeniero cualificado en suelos, para un programa de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterránea en la facilidad.
(c) El plan a ser sometido bajo la Regla I-804 A (4)(a) o el
(b) anterior. (1) El número, localización y profundidad de los pozos; (2) Los métodos de muestreo y análisis para el desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyente en la facilidad; y (3) Los procedimientos de evaluación incluyendo cualquier uso de informacion sobre la calidad del agua subterranea obtenida previamente; y (4) Un itinerario de implementacion.
(d) El dueño u operador debera implementar el plan de evaluación de la calidad del agua subterranea, y como minimo determinara:
(1) La tasa y el grado de migracion del desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes en el agua subterranea; y (2) Las concentraciones del desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes en el agua subterranea.
(e) El dueño u operador hará su primera determinación de Estas materias tan pronto como técnicamente le sea posible, y dentro de quince (15) dias luego de la determinacion, someterá a la Junta un informe escrito conteniendo una evaluacion de la calidad del agua subterranea.
(f) Si el dueño u operador determina, basado en los resultados de la primera determinacion segun la Regla I-804 D (4)
(d) que ningan desperdicio peligroso o constituyente de desperdicio peligroso de la facilidad ha penetrado en el agua subterranea, entonces reinstalara el programa de evaluacion de indicadores descritos en la Regla I-804 C y en el párrafo D (2) de esta Regla y dentro de quince (15) dias sometera un informe escrito a la Junta.
(g) Si el dueño u operador concluye, basado en la primera determinacion requerida anteriormente en el subparrafo
(e) de este prarrafo que el desperdicio solido peligroso o sus constituyentes han penetrado desde la facilidad al agua subterranea, debera continuar con la determinacion de la taza de y el grado de migracion y de las concentraciones de desperdicio solido peligroso de o sus .....
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(d) (2) al (7).
Se enmienda la Regla I-804 D (5) para que lea como sigue: 5. Al menos que la monitoria de agua subterranea se haga bajo la Regla I-804 D (4)
(d) , por lo menos anualmente, el duefio u operador debera evaluar la informacion sobre la elevacion superficial del agua subterranea obtenida en el parrafo (C) (5) de esta regla para determinar si los requisitos de ubicacion de los pozos de monitoria se continua satisfaciendo. Si no, el duerio u operador, inmediatamente modificara el numero, localizacion o profundidad de los pozos de monitoria para traer a cumplimiento al sistema de monitoria del agua subterranea.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.93
(f) .
Regla I-805 Cierre y Cierre Posterior A. Cierre
a. En tal forma que: (1) Reduzca la necesidad de mantenimiento ulterior; $\dot{y}$ (2) Se controle, reduzca o elimine hasta el grado máximo posible, la emision posterior del desperdicio solido peligroso, los constituyentes del desperdicio solido peligroso, las escorrentias de aguas contaminadas, la lixiviación, o de los productos de la descomposición del desperdicio al agua subterránea, a las aguas superficiales, o a la atmósfera. b. El dueño u operador deberá proveer los sistemas y artefactos necesarios para proteger el agua subterranea y aguas superficiales y para el control de emisiones a la atmósfera. c. En el caso de facilidades de disposición en el terreno, el dueño u operador deberá cubrir los desperdicios con por lo menos dos (2) pies de material de relleno. d. El dueño u operador deberá aplicar al área suficiente material de relleno vegetativo y sembrar vegetación para evitar la erosion.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (2)
(g) y se sustituye por el siguiente texto: g. El dueño u operador de cualquier facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso debera someter un plan de cierre a la Junta para su aprobación previo a que le sea otorgado un permiso para operar. Se mantendrá
una copia de dicho plan y de toda enmienda al mismo en la facilidad hasta que el cierre se haya completado y asi se certifique segfin la Regla I-805 A (7). El plan de cierre deberá indicar los pasos necesarios para cerrar parcial o completamente la , facilidad en cualquier etapa de su vida útil y para cerrar completamente la facilidad al final de su vida operacional. El plan de cierre debera por los menos, incluir: (1) Una descripcion de como y cuándo la facilidad será cerrada parcialmente, si aplica, y como y cuando será cerrada finalmente. La descripcion deberá identificar al máximo grado la operacion de la facilidad y como se cumplirs con los requisitos de las Reglas I-805 A (2), I-805 A (5), I-805 A (6) y I-805 A (7) y los requisitos de cierre aplicables de las Reglas I-813 E, I-814 F, I-815 J, I-816 C, I-817 F, I-819 I y la Regla $\mathrm{I}-820 \mathrm{C}$. (2) Un estimado del inventario máximo de los desperdicios que estarán en almacenamiento y en tratamiento en cualquier momento durante la vida atil de la facilidad; (3) Una descripcion de los pasos necesarios para la descontaminacion de la facilidad y de su equipo durante el cierre; y (4) Un estimado del año en que se espera el cierre la facilidad y el itinerario para el cierre final de la misma. El itinerario deberá incluir, como minimo, el tiempo total que se requiere para el cierre de la facilidad y el tiempo que requiere la intervencion con las
actividades de cierre que permitan el seguimiento progresivo del cierre, (ej., en el caso de rellenos sanitarios, el tiempo estimado que se requiere para tratar y disponer de todo desperdicio inventariado y tambien debera incluirse el tiempo que requiere la colocacion de una cubierta final)."
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.112
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (3) para que lea como sigue: 3. Los planes deberán ser sometidos y enmendados como sigue: a. El dueño u operador someterf su plan de cierre a la Junta por lo menos 180 dias antes de la fecha que espera comenzar con el cierre. El dueño u operador someterf su plan de cierre a la Junta no más de 15 días después de:
(i) La finalizacion del status interino (excepto cuando se emite un permiso a la facilidad simultáneamente con la finalizacion del status interino); o (ii) La emision de un decreto judicial u orden de cumplimiento bajo la Seccion 3008 de la Ley Federal de Conservacion y Recuperacion de Recursos o la Ley de Politica Pablica Ambiental, Ley 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, para cesar de recibir desperdicios o cerrar; o
(11i) La emision de una orden administrativa emitida por la Junta a estos efectos. (COMENTARIO: La fecha para el comienzo del cierre debera ser despues de los 30 dias en que se espera recibir el altimo volumen de desperdicios). b. La Junta proveera al dueño u operador y al pab1ico, a traves de un aviso pab1ico en el periodico, la oportunidad para someter comentarios por escrito sobre el plan y solicitar modificaciones al mismo dentro de 30 dias de la fecha del aviso. Se podra celebrar una vista publica a discreacion de la Junta o la solicitud de parte, cuando la misma puede clarificar uno o más puntos de importancia concernintes al plan de cierre. La Junta dara un aviso pablico de la vista al menos 30 dias antes de su celebracion (el anuncio pablico sobre la vista podra ser simultáneamente con el aviso sobre los comentarios por escrito y se podran combinar en uno solo). La Junta aprobará, modificara o desaprobara el plan dentro de 90 dias desde que fue recibido. De no aprobar el mismo, el dueño u operador deberá modificar el plan o someter uno nuevo para la aprobacion dentro de 30 dias. La Junta aprobará o modificara este plan dentro de 60 dias por escrito. De ser modificado por la Junta, este plan modificado se convertira en el plan de cierre aprobado. La Junta se asegurara que el plan de cierre aprobado es consistente con
las Reglas I-805 A (2)
(a) (1) y (2), I-805 A (5), (6), (7) de la subparte I y los requisitos aplicables de las Reglas 813 E, 817 F, 819 I, 816 C, I-814 F, I-815 J y 820 C de la subparte I. Una copia del plan modificado sera enviada por correo al duetto u operador. c. El duetto u operador podra enmendar su plan de cierre en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. (La vida activa de la facilidad es aquel periodo durante el cual los desperdicios se reciben periodicamente). El duetto u operador debera enmendar su plan de cierre cada vez que hayan cambios en el plan de operaciones o en el disefo de la facilidad que afecte el plan de cierre, o cuando haya un cambio en el año en que se esperaba el cierre de la facilidad. El plan de cierre debera ser enmendado dentro de los sesenta (60) dias de ocurrir algin cambio.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.112
(c) ,
(d) y
(b) , respectivamente.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 A (7) para que lea como sigue: 7. Al completarse el cierre, debera someterse a la Junta una certificacion de cierre por el duetto u operador y por un ingeniero licenciado para ejercer la profesion en Puerto Rico y confirmando que la facilidad ha sido cerrada de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.115.
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 B (1)
(f) para que lea como sigue: f. El dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion deberá proveer para el mantenimiento de cierre-posterior de acuerdo con el plan de cierre-posterior (descrito más adelante) por lo menos por un periodo de treinta (30) años después del cierre. De todas formas, este periodo de 30 días podrá ser descontinuado o alterado si el dueño u operador puede demostrar a satisfaccion de la Junta que la facilidad de disposicion no representa una amenaza a la salud humana o al ambiente. El finalizar el periodo de tiempo especificado, la Junta determinará si se continúa o se termina la custodia y el mantenimiento de cierre-posterior en la facilidad.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR 265.117
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 B (2)
(a) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 2. El dueño u operador deberá someter tambien el plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta de acuerdo con los siguientes requisitos: a. Seis (6) meses después de la fecha de vigencia de este reglamento, el dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion de desperdicio solido peligroso deberá tener un plan escrito de cierre-posterior. Deberá tenerlo en la facilidad hasta que comienze el periodo de cuidado de cierre posterior. Este plan debe identificar las actividades que se llevarán a cabo después del cierre final y
las frecuencias de esas actividades y deberá hacerlo con suficiente detalle para demostrar a la Junta que serán satisfechos todos los requisitos de cierre-posterior. El plan de cierre-posterior deberá incluir por lo menos:
(i) Una descripción de las actividades planificadas para el muestreo del agua subterránea y de las frecuencias en que éstas se efectuarán (segun especificado en la Regla 804 de este reglamento) durante el cierre-posterior; y (ii) Una descripcion de las actividades de mantenimiento planificadas y las frecuencias con que las mismas serán efectuadas para asegurar que:
(a) La integridad de la capa y cubierta final u otra estructura de contención segin se especifica en las Reglas 817 (B), 817 (F), 816 (C) y 819 (I), donde aplique, y
(b) El funcionamiento del equipo de muestreo de la facilidad segin se especifica en la Regla 804. b. El dueño u operador podrá enmendar el plan de cierre-posterior cada vez que cambios en los planes de operacion o el diseno de las facilidades afecten el plan de cierre-posterior.
c. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de disposicion de desperdicio solido peligroso debera someter su plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta a tenor con todos los procedimientos para conceder un permiso para operar establecidos en la Parte IX-I de este reglamento. d. El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso deberá someter su plan de cierre-posterior a la Junta, por lo menos ciento ochenta (180) dias antes de la fecha que espera comenzar el cierre. La Junta podra modificar, aprobar o desaprobar el plan dentro de noventa (90) dias a partir del recibo y luego de conceder al duefio u operador y al público en los peribdicos) la oportunidad de someter comentarios por escrito. Cualquier enmienda al plan que ocurra despues del cierre deberá tambien ser aprobada por la Junta. e. El plan de cierre-posterior (o periodo) puede ser modificado durante el periodo de cierre-posterior - al final del periodo de cierre-posterior de una de las siguientes maneras: (1) El duefio u operador o cualquier miembro del público podra solicitar a la Junta que extienda, reduzca o altere los requisitos del periodo de cierre-posterior basado en justa causa. (1) La peticion deberá incluir evidencia demostrando de que:
(A) La naturaleza segura de la facilidad hace innecesario los requisitos del cierre posterior o sostiene una reduccion en el periodo de cuidado de cierre-posterior especificado en el plan de cierre posterior corriente (Ejemplo: lixiviacion o resultados del muestreo de agua subterranea, caracteristicas del desperdicio, la aplicacion de tecnologia avanzada, métodos alternos de disposicion, tratamiento, o técnicas de reutilizacion, indican que la facilidad es segura); o......
Se enmienda la Regla I-805 D (4) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 4. El duefio u operador deberá someter a la Junta de Planificacion y a la Junta de Calidad Ambiental un registro de tipo, ubicacion y cantidad del desperdicio solido peligroso dispuesto dentro de cada celda o Srea de la facilidad. El duefio u operador deberá identificar el tipo, ubicacion y cantidad de desperdicios peligrosos dispuestos dentro de cada celda o Srea de la facilidad. Con relacion a los desperdicios dispuestos antes de que estos reglamentos fueran promulgados, el duefio u operador deberá identificar el tipo, ubicacion y cantidad de tal desperdicio de acuerdo con lo mejor de su conocimiento y de acuerdo con cualquier registro que haya mantenido.
Esta regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.119.
Se enmienda la Regla I-807 I para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-807 I - Análisis Fisico y Químico
(a) Todo dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sOlido peligroso deberá obtener un análisis físico y químico detallado y completo de una muestra representativa de todo desperdicio que sea manejado en la facilidad antes de iniciar el tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de cualquier desperdicio solido peligroso. Como minimo, este análisis deberá incluir toda la informacion necesaria para tratar, almacenar o disponer del desperdicio de acuerdo con esta reglamentacion.
(b) El análisis podrá incluir datos desarrollados de acuerdo con la Parte VI de esta reglamentacion y la informacion existente publicada o documentada sobre desperdicios peligrosos o desperdicios generados de procesos similares. (COMENTARIO: Por ejemplo, los registros de analisis de la facilidad realizados sobre el desperdicio antes de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion, o los estudios realizados sobre el desperdicio peligroso generado de procesos similares a aquellos que generan el desperdicio a ser manejado en la facilidad, podrán ser incluidas en la informacion base requerida para cumplir con el párrafo 1
(a) de esta Regla. El dueño u operador de una facilidad fuera de su localizacion podrá llegar a un acuerdo con el generador del desperdicio solido peligroso para que le supla parte o toda la informacion requerida en el
parrafo 1
(a) de esta Regla. Si el generador no suple la informacion, y el duefio u operador escoge aceptar el desperdicio peligroso, el duefio u operador es responsable de obtener la informacion requerida para cumplir con esta Regla.)
(c) El anâlisis detallado del desperdicio deberá ser efectuado como minimo anualmente o repetido tantas veces como sea necesario para asegurarse de que es correcto y que se mantiene al dia. Como minimo, el anâlisis deberá ser repetido: (1) Cuando el duefio u operador es notificado, o tiene razones para creer que el proceso o la operacion que genera el desperdicio peligroso ha cambiado; y (ii) Para las facilidades fuera de su localizacion, cuando los resultados de la inspeccion requerida en el parrafo (1)
(d) de esta Regla indiquen que el desperdicio solido peligroso recibido en la facilidad no concuerda con el desperdicio designado en el manifiesto o en los papeles de embarque que los acompañan.
(d) El duefio u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio solido peligroso fuera de su localizacion deberá inspeccionar y si es necesario muestrear cada cargamento de camiones, embarque, o lote de desperdicio solido peligroso designado para almacenamiento, tratamiento o disposicion en la facilidad para determinar si la identidad de éste concuerda con el desperdicio especificado en el manifiesto, o en los papeles de embarque que los acompañan.
(a) Los parámetros para los cuales cada desperdicio peligroso deberá ser analizado y la razón para la selección de estos parámetros. (También demostrar como el analisis para estos parâmetros proporcionara suficiente informacion sobre las propiedades del desperdicio para cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta Regla);
(b) El método a utilizarse para probar estos parâmetros;
(c) El método de toma de muestras que será utilizado para obtener una muestra representativa del desperdicio a ser analizado. Una muestra representativa puede ser obtenida utilizando uno de los siguientes métodos:
(i) Uno de los métodos de muestreo descritos en el Anejo B-2 este reglamento; o (ii) Un método de muestreo equivalente según aprobado por la Junta de Calidad Ambiental.
(d) La frecuencia con que el análisis original del desperdicio debe ser revisado o repetido para garantizar que el mismo es correcto y se encuentra al dia;
(e) Para las facilidades fuera de su localizacion el analisis del desperdicio que los generadores de desperdicios peligrosos han acordado suplir; y
(f) Cuando apliquen, los métodos a utilizarse para cumplir los requisitos adicionales de analisis de desperdicio para métodos específicos de manejo de desperdicios según las Reglas I-813 C, I-817 C, I-818 C, I-819 C, I-816 F, I-814 D, I-815 E, y I-820 B de este Reglamento. 3. Para facilidades fuera de su localización, el plan de analisis de desperdicio requerido en el párrafo (2) de esta regla debe especificar tambien los procedimientos que serán utilizados para inspeccionar y si es necesario, analizar todo movimiento de desperdicio peligroso recibido en la facilidad para garantizar que es exacto al desperdicio designado en el manifiesto que los acompaña o los papeles de embarque. Como minimo, este plan debe describir:
(a) Los procedimientos que serán utilizados para determinar la identidad de todo movimiento de desperdicio manejado en la facilidad; y
(b) Los métodos de anâlisis que serán utilizados para obtener una muestra representativa del desperdicio a ser identificado, si el método de identificación incluye muestreo. 4. Ningún duento u operador deberá aceptar cualquier desperdicio solido peligroso a menos que el receptáculo en el que se transporta el desperdicio tenga fijado un rótulo de identificacion incluyendo lo siguiente:
a. Nombre del generador, b. Tipo de desperdicio, c. Nombre genérico del componente predominente del desperdicio peligroso, d. Fecha de envasado, y e. Número del manifiesto. 5. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sOlido peligroso no deberá tratar o disponer de desperdicio inflamable, corrosivo, toxico, reactivos, volatiles o incompatibles en un relleno, embalse superficial, o facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno, a menos que el dueño u operador pueda demostrar a la Junta, en el momento de solicitar un permiso de operación que tal facilidad de tratamiento o de disposicion no habrá de: a. Afectar la integridad estructural de la facilidad de tratamiento, embalse superficial, o relleno, o b. Afectar la capacidad de atenuación de la facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno a traves de la generación de calor, fuegos o reacciones explosivas.
Esta Regla I-807 I equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.13.
Se enmienda la Regla I-808 C que en lo sucesivo leerá:
Regla I-808 C - Adiestramiento del Personal
(a) El personal de la facilidad, deberá completar satisfactoriamente un programa de instruccion o adiestramiento en el trabajo que los capacite para efectuar sus labores en forma tal que asegure el cumplimiento de la facilidad con los requisitos de este reglamento. El dueño u operador, deberá asegurarse que dicho programa incluya todos los elementos descritos en el documento requerido bajo el párrafo 4(c) de esta Regla.
(b) Este programa deberá ser dirigido por una persona adiestrada en los procedimientos de manejo de desperdicio peligroso y deberá incluir lecciones que enseñen al personal de la facilidad los procedimientos para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos (incluyendo la implementacion del plan de contingencia) que son relevantes a las posiciones en las cuales ellos est in empleados.
(c) Como mínimo, el programa de adiestramiento deberá ser diseñado para garantizar que el personal de la facilidad pueda responder efectivamente a las emergencias, familiarizándolos con los procedimientos equipo y sistemas de emergencia, incluyendo donde sea aplicable: (1) Procedimientos para utilizar, inspeccionar, reparar y reponer el equipo de emergencia y monitoria de la facilidad.
(ii) Controles claves para el cierre automático de los alimentadores del desperdicio. (iii) Los sistemas de comunicacion o alarmas. (iv) Procedimientos de reaccion a fuegos o explosiones;
(v) Procedimientos de reaccion a incidentes de contaminacion del agua subterranea. (vi) Procedimientos para el cese de operaciones. 2. El personal de la facilidad debera completar satisfactoriamente el programa de instruccion requerido anteriormente en el Parrafo 1 dentro de seis (6) meses despues de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion o dentro de seis meses a partir de la fecha de empleo o nombramiento a una facilidad, o que se le asigne a una nueva posición en la facilidad, el plazo que resultase mayor. Aquellos empleados reclutados despues de la fecha de vigencia de esta reglamentacion no podrán trabajar en posiciones no supervisadas hasta tanto hayan completado los requisitos de adiestramiento del Parrafo 1 de esta Regla. 3. El personal de la facilidad debera tomar un repaso anual del adiestramiento inicial requerido en el Parrafo l(a) de esta Regla. 4. El duefio u operador mantendrá los siguientes documentos y registros en la facilidad:
(a) El titulo del puesto para cada posición en la facilidad relacionada con el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos y el nombre del empleado ocupando cada puesto.
(b) Una descripcion escrita del puesto para cada posición mencionada en el parrafo 4(a) de esta Regla. Esta descripcion debera ser consistente en su especificidad con las descripciones de otras posiciones similares en la misma compan1a, pero deberá incluir los requisitos de destrezas, educacion u otras calificaciones y deberes del personal de la facilidad asignado a cada posiC16n;
(c) Una descripcion escrita del tipo y cantidad de los adiestramientos introductorios y continuos que seran ofrecidos a cada persona ocupando una posición de las mencionadas en el parrafo 4(a) de esta Regla.
(d) Registros que comprueben que los adiestramientos - experiencia de trabajo requerido según parrafos (1), (2) y (3) de esta Regla han sido ofrecidos y completados por el personal de la facilidad. 5. Los registros de adiestramiento del personal activo deberán mantenerse hasta el cierre de la facilidad. Los registros de adiestramiento de personal anterior deben mantenerse al menos por un periodo de tiempo de tres (3) años contados a partir de la fecha en que el empleado trabajo por altima vez en la facilidad. Los
registros de adiestramiento de personal pueden estar acompañados por los de personal transferido dentro de la misma compania.
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.16.
Se enmienda la Regla I-814 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-814 Incineradores A. Aplicabilidad
a) Duettos u operadores de incineradores de desperdicios peligrosos segun definido en la Parte I. b) Duettos u operadores que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas de vapor o en hornos industriales de manera que se destruyan los mismos, o que queman desperdicios peligrosos en calderas u hornos industriales para propósitos de reciclaje y eligen ser regulados por esta regla.
a) Est clasificado como desperdicio peligroso en la Parte VI de este Reglamento, unicamente porque es inflamable (Código de Peligro I), corrosivo (Código de Peligro C), o ambos; o b) Est clasificado como desperdicio peligroso en la Parte VI de este Reglamento, unicamente porque es reactivo (Código de Peligro R) por otras caracteristicas que las mencionadas en la Regla 604 C (3) y (4), y no ser in quemados cuando esten presentes en la zona de combust1on otros desperdicios peligrosos; o c) Es un desperdicio peligroso finicamente porque posee la caracteristica de inflamable, corrosivo, o ambas, segin determinado por la prueba para caracteristicas de desperdicios peligrosos incluidas en la Parte VI de este Reglamento; o
d) Es un desperdicio peligroso únicamente porque posee la caracteristica de reactividad descrita por la Regla 604 C (1), (2), (3), (6), (7) u (8) de este Reglamento, y no sera quemado cuando esten presentes en la zona de combust16n otros desperdicios peligrosos.
Esta regla corresponde al 40 CFR Seccion 265.340.
Se enmienda la Regla I-814 para añadirle un nuevo inciso G que leera como sigue: G. Status Interino para Incineradores quemando Desperdicios Peligrosos Particulares.
a) El dueño u operador someterá una solicitud a la Junta conteniendo la informacion aplicable de las Reglas I-903 F y I-906, demostrativa de que el incinerador puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento cuando quemen estos desperdicios.
b) La Junta emitira una decision tentativa de si el incinerador puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento. La decision tentativa se notificara mediante un aviso público en un periodico y por radio en la jurisdiccion donde se encuntra localizado el incinerador. La Junta aceptara comentarios sobre la decisión tentativa por un periodo 60 dias y podra a su discreción o a petición de parte interesada celebrar una vista pública al respecto. c. Luego de finalizar el periodo para que el público comente la Junta emitira su decisión de certificar o no al incinerador.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.352.
Se enmienda la Regla I-815 A para que lea como sigue:
Regla I-815 Tratamiento Termal A. Aplicabilidad
Esta regla corresponde con el 40 CFR Sección 265.370.
Se enmienda la Regla I-815 para añadirle un nuevo inciso $K$ que lee como sigue: K. Status Interino para Artefactos de Tratamiento Termal Quemando Desperdicios Peligrosos Particulares.
a) El dueño u operador someterá una solicitud a la Junta conteniendo la informacion aplicable de las Regla I-903 F y I-906, demostrativa de que la unidad de tratamiento termal puede satisfacer las normas de cumplimiento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento cuando quemen estos desperdicios. b) La Junta emitira una decision tentativa de si la unidad de tratamiento termal puede satisfacer las normas de cumpliento de la Regla II-815 de este reglamento. La decision tentativa se notificara mediante un aviso público en un periodico y por radio en la jurisdiccion donde se encuentra localizada la unidad de tratamiento termal. La Junta aceptara comentarios
sobre la decisión tentativa por un periodo de 60 dias y podra a su discreción o a petición de parte interesada celebrar una vista pública al respecto. c) Luego de finalizar el periodo para el público comente la Junta emitira su decisión de certificar o no a la unidad de tratamiento termal.
Este nuevo Inciso equivale al 40 CFR Sección 265.383.
Regla I-816 B
(i) (A) El "monofill" posee al menos un revestimiento del cual no hay evidencia de que este filtrando. Para propositos de esta regla, cuando hablamos de revestimiento nos referimos al revestimiento disefiado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que desperdicios peligrosos pasen dentro del mismo en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad o para evitar que
desperdicios peligrosos migren mas alla del revestimiento hacia el subsuelo adyacente, agua subterranea o superficial en cualquier momento durante la vida activa de la facilidad. En caso de que cualquier embalse superficial exento de los requisitos de la Regla I-817 B (1) a base de un revestimiento disenado, construido, instalado y operado para evitar que los desperdicios peligrosos pasen mas alla del revestimiento, al cierre de dicho embalse el duefio u operador debera, al grado que sea práctico, remover o decontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y todo terreno contaminado. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o decontaminado, el duefio u operador de dicho embalse debera cumplir con los requisitos apropiados del periodo de cierre posterior incluyendo pero no limitado a monitoria de agua subterranea y accion correctiva. (B) El "monofill" esta localizado a mas de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterranea de agua potable; y (C) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permiso bajo esta parte y la sección 3005
(c) de RCRA.
(ii) El duefio u operador demostrará que el "monofill" esta localizado, disefiado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habra constituyente peligroso que migre hacia el agua subterránea o superficial en el futuro. 5. En caso de que alguna unidad en donde se haya instalado un revestimiento y sistema de recolección de lixiviacion segin requisitos del inciso (1) de esta regla y que cumpla de buena fe con dicho inciso y con los documentos y guias que regulan los revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion bajo el inciso (1) de esta regla, ningfin revestimiento o sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion que sea diferente de aquel que fue instalado segin el inciso (1) de esta regla se requerira por la Junta para dicha unidad al expedir el primer permiso a esa facilidad, excepto que la Junta no excluirá el requerir la instalacion de un nuevo revestimiento cuando tenga razones para creer que algin revestimiento instalado de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla esta filtrando.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 C (4) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: (4) 1. Al cierre final del relleno o cualquier celda, el duefio u operador colocara una cubierta final sobre los mismos, diseñada y construida para: a. Proveer por largo término la reduccion al minimo de la migracion de liquidos hacia el relleno cerrado; b. Funcionar con el mantenimiento minimo;
c. Promover el drenaje y reducir al minimo la erosic6n y abrasion de la cubierta; d. Ajustar los hundimientos y desplomes de modo que se mantenga la integridad de la cubierta; y e. Tener una permeabilidad menor o igual a la permeabilidad de cualquier sistema inferior de revestimiento o subsuelo natural presente. 2. Después del cierre final, el duefio u operador deberá cumplir con todos los requisitos de cierre posterior contenidos en las Reglas I-805 B (1)
(f) a I-805 C, incluyendo mantenimiento y monitorla durante todo el periodo de cierre posterior. El duefio u operador deberá: a. Mantener la integridad y efectividad de la cubierta final, incluyendo el hacer reparaciones a la cubierta que sean necesarias para corregir los efectos de hundimiento, desplome, erosión u otros eventos; b. Mantener y supervisar el sistema de monitorla de agua subterránea y cumplir con todo otro requisito aplicable de la Regla I-804; c. Evitar que las escorrentias hacia y desde la facilidad puedan corroer o de otra manera dañar la cubierta final; y
d. Proteger y mantener las marcas fijadas establecidas por levantamiento topográfico usadas en el cumplimiento con la Regla I-816 B (6).
Este inciso corresponde con el 40 CFR Seccion 265.310.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 D para añadir un inciso
(b) que leerá como sigue:
Desperdicios inflamables en receptáculos podrán ser dispuestos en rellenos sin reunir los requisitos del primer párrafo de esta Regla si son dispuestos de manera tal que sean protegidos de cualquier material o condiciones que pudieran causar que los mismos se incendien. Como minimo, los desperdicios inflamables deberán ser dispuestos en receptáculos que no tengan escapes, manejados y colocados cuidadosamente para evitar el calor, chispas, roturas, u otra condicion que pudiera causar el incendio de los desperdicios, deberán estar cubiertos diariamente con tierra u otro material no combustible para minimizar el potencial de incendio de los desperdicios y no deberán ser dispuestos en celdas que contengan o puedan contener otros desperdicios que pudieran generar suficiente calor como para causar el incendio del desperdicio.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.312.
Se enmienda la Regla I-816 F para que lea como sigue: 2. Receptáculo conteniendo liquidos libres no podrán colocarse en un relleno, a menos que: a. Todo liquido libre sostenido que haya sido removido por decantación u otro método que haya sido mezclado con un absorbente o solidificado a fin de que el liquido libre no se observe, o sea de otra manera eliminado; o b. El receptáculo sea muy pequeño, tal como una ampolleta; o c. El receptáculo esta diseñado para contener los liquidos libres para otro uso que no sea el almacenamiento, tal como una baterfa o condensador; 0 d. El receptáculo es un receptáculo sobre forrado ("paquetes de laboratorio") segfin se define y se dispone del mismo en la Regla I-816 H. 3. Para demostrar la ausencia o presencia de liquidos libres a un desperdicio en un receptáculo a granel se utilizara la prueba: Metodo 9095 segin decrito en Metodo de Análisis para evaluar desperdicios solidos métodos físicos y químicos (Publicacion de la APA No. SW-846). 4. La fecha para cumplir con el párrafo (1) de esta regla es el 19 de noviembre de 1981. La fecha para cumplir con el párrafo (3) de esta regla es el 22 de marzo de 1982 .
a) La única alternativa razonablemente disponible para la colocación del liquido es en dicho relleno o en un embalse superficial sin revestimiento, que contenga o razonablemente se anticipe que contenga desperdicios peligrosos, aunque no tenga permiso u este operando bajo status interino; y b) La colocacion en el relleno de dicho dueño u operador no representaria un riesgo de contaminacion a alguna fuente subterranea de agua potable.
Este inciso equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.314.
Se enmienda el lenguaje de la Regla I-816 G, que en lo sucesivo leera: G. Requisitos Especiales para la Disposicion de Receptáculos.
A menos que los receptáculos sean muy pequeños tal como una ampolleta; deberin:
Esta Regla equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.315.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: B. Requisitos de Diseño
práctico, remover o decontaminar todo residuo de desperdicio, todo material de revestimiento contaminado y todo terreno contaminado. Si todo el terreno contaminado no es removido o decontaminado, el dueño u operador de dicho embalse deberá cumplir con los requisitos apropiados del periodo de cierre posterior incluyendo pero no limitado a monitoria de agua subterranea y acción correctiva. (B) El "monofill" esta localizado a mas de un cuarto de milla de la fuente subterranea de agua potable; y
(c) El "monofill" cumple con los requisitos generalmente aplicables de monitoria de agua subterranea para facilidades con permiso bajo esta parte y la Sección 3005
(c) de RCRA. (ii) El dueño u operador demostrará que el "monofill" esta localizado, diseñado y operado de manera tal que asegure que no habrá constituyente peligroso que migre hacia el agua subterranea o superficial en el futuro. 5. En caso de que alguna unidad en donde se haya instalado un revestimiento y sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion según requisitos del inciso (1) de esta regla y que cumpla de buena fe con dicho inciso y con los documentos y guias que regulan los revestimientos y sistemas de recoleccion de lixiviacion bajo el inciso (1) de esta regla, ningGn revestimiento o sistema de recoleccion de lixiviacion que sea diferente de aquel que fue instalado segin el inciso (1) de esta regla se requerira por la Junta para dicha unidad al expedir el
primer permiso a esa facilidad, excepto que la Junta no excluirá el requerir la instalación de un nuevo revestimiento cuando tenga razones para creer que algún revestimiento instalado de acuerdo con los requisitos de esta regla esta filtrando.
Esta Regla I-817 B es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 265.221.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 B (17) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 17. Un embalse superficial debe mantener suficiente espacio libre para prevenir cualquier desbordamiento del dique causado por haberse llevado en exceso, acción de las olas o una tormenta. El espacio libre debe ser de al menos 60 centimetros (dos pies).
Esta enmienda es mas restrictiva que el 40 CFR Seccion 265.222.
Se enmienda la Regla I-817 G en su segundo inciso para sustituir el lenguaje del mismo y añadir a su vez un nuevo inciso (3) los que leerán como sigue: 2.
(a) El desperdicio sea manejado de manera tal que se encuentre protegido de cualquier material o condicion que pueda causar que Este reaccione o se incendie; y
(b) El duefio u operador obtendr8 una certificacion de un químico cualificado o ingeniero licenciado para practicar la profesion en Puerto Rico que, a su mejor entender y opinion, certifique que el disefo estructural y el plan de operaciones de la facilidad evitarian que este reaccione o se inflame; y 3. El embalse superficial se utilice exclusivamente para emergencias.
Ambos incisos de la Regla I-817 G equivale al 40 CFR Seccion 265.229
(b) (1), (2) y
(c) .
Se enmienda la Reg19 207 y se sustituye por el guiente texto:
Regla 207 - Plan de Operacion
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. One of the key principles in quantum mechanics is the wave-particle duality, which states that particles can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The primary objective of this research is to explore the interaction between light and matter at the quantum level. Specifically, we aim to:
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. The findings of this research are particularly relevant for the study of quantum systems.
The concept of wave-particle duality is central to understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
The principle of superposition is fundamental to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This is mathematically represented by a wave function, denoted as $$|\psi angle$$. This function is defined as:
$$ |\psi angle = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} e^{-in \psi n} $$
where $$|\psi angle$$ is the wave function, and $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{-in \psi n}$$ is the entanglement. Entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle is in a consistent state.
The principle of uncertainty principle is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. It is expressed as:
$$ \Delta x \cdot \Delta y \geq \frac{\hbar}{2} $$
where $$\Delta x$$ is the uncertainty in position, $$\Delta y$$ is the uncertainty in position, and $$\hbar$$ is the reduced Planck constant.
The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental conditions were as follows:
Data was collected over a period of three months. The data was analyzed using statistical methods and machine learning algorithms. The data was analyzed using statistical software to ensure accuracy.
The experimental results revealed that the light can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The experimental results showed that the light can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the quantum systems exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The study of quantum mechanics has transformed our understanding of the microscopic world. The findings of this research are consistent with the theoretical predictions and practical applications of quantum mechanics.
-VII-
40 CFR 266
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE XI
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. One of the key principles in quantum mechanics is the wave-particle duality, which states that particles can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The primary objective of this research is to explore the interaction between light and matter at the quantum level. Specifically, we aim to:
The study of quantum mechanics has revolutionized our understanding of the microscopic world. It provides a framework for describing the behavior of particles at atomic and subatomic scales. The findings of this research are particularly relevant for the study of quantum systems.
The concept of wave-particle duality is central to understanding the behavior of particles at the quantum level. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This duality is central to understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
The principle of superposition is fundamental to understanding the behavior of quantum systems. This is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics, with quantum entanglement and entanglement key. Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle instantly affects the state of the other, regardless of the distance between them. Entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of the other is not correlated.
The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles. The experimental setup involved a laser source with a laser source. The laser source was used to generate the quantum states of the particles.
The observations from the experimental setup revealed that the interference patterns observed in the laser source were consistent with the observed patterns. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The analysis of the experimental data revealed that the interference patterns observed in the laser source were consistent with the observed patterns. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties. The results indicate that the laser source can exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
The study of quantum mechanics has transformed our understanding of the microscopic world. The results support the theoretical framework of quantum mechanics and provide a framework for describing the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level. The findings of this research are consistent with the theoretical framework of quantum mechanics and provide a framework for understanding the behavior of quantum systems at the quantum level.
Se enmienda el Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S6lidos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos para añadir lo siguiente como Parte XI:
Parte XI Normas para el Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos Espec1ficos y Tipos Espec1ficos de Facilidades para el Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos.
Regla 1101-1102 (Reservada)
Regla 1103 Materiales Reciclables Utilizados en una Forma que Constituya Disposición. A. Aplicabilidad
(s) ; 0 b. Después de mezclarlos con cualquier otra substancia
(s) , a menos que el material reciclable sufra una reaccion química de forma que se vuelve inseparable de la otra substancia
(s) por medios físicos; 0 c. Después de combinarlos con cualquier otra substancia
(s) si el material combinado resultante no es producido para uso público general. Estos materiales se mencionaran a traves de esta Regla como "materiales utilizados en una forma que constituye disposicion."
Generadores y transportadores de materiales que son utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion están sujetos a los requisitos aplicables de las Partes V y VII de este reglamento, y a los requisitos de notificación bajo la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). C. Normas aplicables a almacenadores de materiales que van a ser utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion y que no son los últimos usuarios.
Los dueños u operadores de facilidades que almacenan materiales reciclables que serán utilizados en una forma que constituya disposicion, pero que no son los altimos usuarios de los materiales, están reglamentados bajo todas las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas II-801 a II-812, I-801 a
I-818, 502 a 505, de la Parte IX-I de este reglamento y de los requisitos de notificación bajo la Sección 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8). D. Normas aplicables a usuarios de materiales que son utilizados en una forma que constituye disposicion.
Regla 1104 Desperdicio Peligroso Quemado para el Recobro de Energia. A. Aplicabilidad
Reglas I-814 6 II-815 de este reglamento, excepto lo que se provee en el inciso A (2) de esta regla. Estos desperdicios peligrosos quemados para el recobro de energía serán denominados como "combustible de desperdicio peligroso". El combustible producido de los desperdicios peligrosos por medio del procesamiento, mezclado de desperdicio peligroso o de cualquier otro tratamiento es tambien combustible de desperdicio peligroso. (Esta regla no aplica, sin embargo, al gas recobrado de actividades de manejo de desperdicio peligroso cuando ese gas es quemado para el recobro de energía). 2. Los siguientes desperdicios peligrosos no están sujetos a reglamentación bajo esta regla: a. Aceite usado quemado para el recobro de energía que es tambien un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque exhibe una caracteristica de desperdicio peligroso identificado en la Regla 604 de este reglamento. Dicho aceite usado esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo la Regla 1105 y no bajo esta regla; y b. Desperdicios peligrosos que están exentos de reglamentacion bajo las exclusiones de materiales que no son desperdicio solido y la Regla 606 B (1)
(c) (5)-(9) de este reglamento, y desperdicios peligrosos que están sujetos a los requisitos especiales para generadores de pequeñas cantidades bajo la Regla 606 A de este reglamento.
B. Prohibiciones
(2) Calderas de Servicio utilizadas para producir energia eléctrica, vapor, o aire caliente o frio u otros gases o fluidos para la venta. 3. Ningún combustible que contenga cualquier desperdicio peligroso puede ser quemado en ningGn horno de cemento que estE localizado dentro de los limites de cualquier municipalidad con una población mayor de 500,000 (basada en el mas reciente censo estadistico) a menos que ese horno cumpla completamente con la reglamentacion aplicable a incineradores. C. Normas aplicables a generadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
D. Normas aplicables a transportadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Transportadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso (y desperdicio peligroso utilizado para producir combustible) están sujetos a las Reglas $504,505,706$ y 707 de este reglamento. E. Normas aplicables a mercaderes de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Aquellas personas que mercadean combustible de desperdicio peligroso serán denominadas como "mercaderes", y están sujetos a los siguientes requisitos. Entre los mercaderes se incluyen generadores que mercadean combustible de desperdicio peligroso directamente a un quemador, personas que reciben desperdicio peligroso de generadores y producen, procesan o mezclan combustible de desperdicio peligroso de estos desperdicios peligrosos y personas que distribuyen pero no procesan o mezclan combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
peligrosos y haya obtenido un Número de Identificacion de la APA, debe volver a notificar para identificar sus actividades con combustible de desperdicio peligroso; 3. Almacenaje. Las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas 704 D, II-801 a II-812, I-801 a I-818 y la Parte IX-I de este reglamento; 4. Embarque fuera de la facilidad. Las normas para generadores establecidas en las Reglas 503 a 505 y 702 a 705 de este reglamento cuando un mercader inicia un envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso; 5. Notificaciones requeridas. a. Antes de que un mercader inicie el primer envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso a un quemador o a otro mercader, debe obtener una notificacion escrita y firmada del quemador o mercader certificando que: (1) El quemador o mercader ha notificado a la APA bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) (enviando copia a la Junta) y ha identificado sus actividades de quema de desperdicio como combustible; y
(2) Si el recipiente es un quemador, el quemador deberá quemar el combustible de desperdicio peligroso solo en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en la Regla 607 B de este reglamento. b. Después que un mercader acepta el primer envio de combustible de desperdicio peligroso de otro mercader, debe proveerle al otro mercader una certificacion escrita y firmada de que 61 ha notificado a la APA bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8), con copia a la Junta, y que ha identificado sus actividades de combustible de desperdicio peligroso; y 6. Mantenimiento de Registros. Ademas de los requisitos aplicables de mantenimiento de registros de las Reglas 503 a 505 y las Partes VIII-I y VIII-II de este reglamento, el mercader debe retener y conservar una copia de cada certificacion que reciba o envie por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha de su altima transaccion de mercadeo del combustible de desperdicio peligroso con la persona que envia o recibe la certificacion. F. Normas aplicables a quemadores de combustible de desperdicio peligroso.
Los duemos y operadores de hornos industriales y calderas identificadas en el inciso B (2) de esta regla que queman combustible peligroso son "quemadores" y esten sujetos a los siguientes requisitos:
Regla 1105 Aceite Usado que es Quemado para el Recobro de Energia. A. Aplicabilidad
"combustible de aceite usado". El combustible de aceite usado incluye cualquier combustible producido del aceite usado mediante el procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento. 2. "Aceite usado" significa cualquier aceite que ha sido refinado de aceite crudo, usado y, como resultado de dicho uso, esta contaminado por impurezas fisicas o quimicas. 3. Excepto lo que se provee en el inciso A (4) de esta regla, el aceite usado que es mezclado con desperdicio peligroso y quemado para el recobro de energia esta sujeto a reglamentacion como combustible de desperdicio peligroso bajo la Regla 1104 de este reglamento. El aceite usado que contenga mas de $1,000 \mathrm{ppm}$ de halogeno total se presume un desperdicio peligroso porque ha sido mezclado con desperdicio peligroso halogeno anotado en la Regla 607 de este reglamento. Las personas pueden refutar esta presuncion demostrando que el aceite usado no contiene desperdicio peligroso (por ejemplo, demostrando que el aceite usado no contiene concentraciones significativas de constituyentes peligrosos halogenados anotados en el Anejo C-3 de este reglamento). 4. El aceite usado quemado para recobrar energia esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo esta regla, en vez de como combustible de desperdicio peligroso bajo la Regla 1104, si es un desperdicio peligroso solamente porque:
a. Exhíbe una caracteristica de desperdicio peligroso identificada en la Regla 604 de este reglamento, siempre y cuando no este mezclado con un desperdicio peligroso; o b. Contiene desperdicio peligroso generado solo por una persona sujeta a los requisitos especiales para generadores de pequeñas cantidades bajo la Regla 606 A de este reglamento. 5. Excepto lo provisto en el inciso A (3) de esta regla, el aceite usado quemado para recobrar energía, y cualquier combustible producido de aceite usado mediante procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento, esta sujeto a reglamentación bajo esta regla, a menos que se demuestre que no excede ninguno de los niveles permitidos de los constituyentes y propiedades en la especificación mostrada en la siguiente tabla. El combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones esta sujeto solo a los requisitos de analisis y mantenimiento de registros bajo los incisos D (2)
(a) y
(f) de esta regla. El combustible de aceite usado que excede cualquier nivel de especificación es denominado como "combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones."
Aceite Usado Excediendo Cualquier Nivel de Especificacion Esta Sujeto a Esta Regla Cuando es Quemado para Recobrar Energia
(a) .
Constituyente/Propiedad Nivel Permitido
ArsEnico Cadmio Cromio Plomo Punto de Ignicion HalGgenos Totales
5 ppm máximo 2 ppm máximo 10 ppm máximo 100 ppm máximo 100 F minimo 4,000 ppm máximo
(b) (a) La especificacion no aplica a combustible de aceite usado mezclado con otro desperdicio peligroso que no sea de un generador de pequeñas cantidades de desperdicio peligroso.
(b) Aceite usado conteniendo más de $1,000 \mathrm{ppm}$ de halGgenos totales se presume que es desperdicio peligroso bajo la presuncion refutable provista bajo el inciso A (3) de esta regla. Dicho aceite usado esta sujeto a la Regla 1104 de este reglamento en vez de a esta regla cuando es quemado para recobrar energía a menos que la presunción de mezclarse pueda ser refutada satisfactoriamente. B. Prohibiciones
a. A quemadores u otros mercaderes que hayan notificado a la APA y a la Junta de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado señalando la localizacion y una descripcion general de dichas actividades, y que tengan un numero de identificacion asignado por la APA; y b. A quemadores que quemen el aceite usado en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla. 2. El aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones puede ser quemado para el recobro de energía solamente en los siguientes equipos: a. Hornos industriales identificados en la Regla 102 de este reglamento; o b. Calderas, segun definida en la Regla 102 de este reglamento, que son identificadas como sigue: (1) Calderas industriales localizadas en una facilidad que utiliza un proceso manufacturero donde las substancias son transformadas en nuevos productos, incluyendo partes que componen los productos, por medio de procesos mecánicos o químicos; (2) Calderas de Servicio utilizadas para producir energía eléctrica, vapor o aire caliente o frio u otros gases o fluidos para la venta; o
(3) Calentadores que utilizan aceite usado siempre y cuando:
(a) El calentador queme s610 el aceite usado que el dueño u operador genere o el aceite usado recibido de aquellos que generan aceite usado como desperdicio doméstico de las operaciones de cambio de aceite realizadas por ellos mismos;
(b) El calentador esta diseñado para tener una capacidad máxima de no más de 0.5 millones de BTU por hora y;
(c) Los gases de combustión del calentador sean descargados al aire. C. Normas aplicables a generadores de aceite usado que es quemado para el recobro de energía.
D. Normas aplicables a mercaderes que queman aceite usado para el recobro de energia.
(1) Número de factura; (2) Su numero de identificacion asignado por la APA y el numero de identificacion asignado por la APA a la facilidad que recibe el embarque; (3) Los nombres y direcciones de las facilidades que envian y reciben el embarque; (4) La cantidad de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones que va a ser enviado; (5) La fecha o fechas del envio o entrega; y (6) La siguiente declaracion: "Este aceite usado esta sujeto a reglamentacion bajo la Parte XI del Reglamento para el Control de los Desperdicios S61idos Peligrosos y No-Peligrosos, version enmendada";
Nota: El aceite usado que cumple con la definicion de liquido combustible (punto de ignicion bajo $200^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ pero igual o mayor de $100^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ ) o liquido inflamable (punto de ignicion bajo $100^{\circ} \mathrm{F}$ ) esta sujeto a la Reglamentacion de Materiales Peligrosos del Departamento de Transportacion en el 49 CFR Partes 100-177.
e. Notificaciones requeridas: (1) Antes de que un mercader inicie el primer envio de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, a un quemador u otro mercader, debe obtener una notificación escrita y firmada del quemador o mercader certificando que:
(a) El quemador o mercader ha notificado a la Junta señalando la localización y una descripción general de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
(b) Si el recibidor es un quemador, el quemador quemará el aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, solamente en un horno industrial o caldera identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla; y (2) Antes de que un mercader acepte el primer envio de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, de otro mercader sujeto a los requisitos del inciso D de esta regla, debe proveer al mercader de una notificación escrita y firmada certificando que ha notificado a la Junta de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
f. Mantenimiento de Registros: (1) Combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones: Un mercader que reclame primero, bajo el inciso D (2)
(a) de esta regla, que el combustible de aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones debe mantener copia de los anâlisis (u otra informacion utilizada para llegar a esa determinacion) de aceite usado por tres (3) años. Esos mercaderes deben tambien registrar en un registro de operacion y mantener por tres (3) años la siguiente informacion para cada embarque de combustible de aceite usado que cumple con las especificaciones. Dicho combustible de aceite usado no esta sujeto a reglamentacion adicional a menos que sea mezclado posteriormente con desperdicio peligroso - a menos que sea mezclado con aceite usado para que no cumpla mas con las especificaciones.
(a) El nombre y direccion de la facilidad que recibe el embarque;
(b) La cantidad de combustible de aceite usado entregado;
(c) La fecha del envio o entrega; y
(d) Una referencia al archivo de los analisis de aceite usado (u otra informacion utilizada para hacer la determinacion de que el aceite cumple con las especificaciones) requerido bajo el inciso (2)
(f) (1) de esta regla. (2) Combustible de Aceite Usado que no cumple con las especificaciones. Un mercader que recibe o inicia una factura bajo los requisitos del inciso D de esta regla debe mantener una copia de cada factura por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha que la factura es recibida o preparada. Además, un mercader debe mantener una copia de cada notificación que reciba o envie por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que por última vez realiz6 una transaccion de mercadeo de combustible de aceite usado, que no cumple con las especificaciones, con la persona que envia o recibe la notificación sobre la certificacion. E. Normas aplicables a quemadores que queman aceite usado para el recobro de energía.
Duetios y operadores de facilidades que queman combustible de aceite usado son "quemadores" y están sujetos a los siguientes requisitos:
(b) de esta regla, estan exentos de estos requisitos de notificacion. Aán cuando un quemador haya previamente notificado a la APA (con copia a la Junta) de sus actividades de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos bajo la Seccion 3010 de RCRA (Anejo C-8) y haya obtenido un numero de identificacion, debe notificar nuevamente para identificar sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado. 3. Notificaciones requeridas: Antes de que un quemador acepte de un mercader el primer envio de combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones, debe proveer al mercader de una notificacion escrita y firmada certificando que: a. Ha notificado a la Junta señalando la localizacion y una descripcion general de sus actividades de manejo de aceite usado; y
b. Quemara el aceite usado en un horno industrial o caldera segin identificada en el inciso B (2) de esta regla; 4. Análisis de combustible de aceite usado: a. El combustible de aceite usado quemado por el generador esta sujeto a la reglamentacion bajo esta regla a menos que el quemador obtenga un analisis (u otra informacion) que documente que el aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones provistas bajo el inciso A (5) de esta regla. b. Quemadores que tratan combustible de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones por medio de procesamiento, mezclado u otro tratamiento para que cumpla con las especificaciones provistas bajo el inciso A (5) de esta regla, deben obtener los analisis (u otra informacion) que documenten que el aceite usado cumple con las especificaciones. 5. Mantenimiento de registros: Un quemador que recibe una factura bajo los requisitos del inciso E de esta regla debe mantener una copia de cada factura por tres (3) años a partir de la fecha en que se recibe la factura. Los quemadores deben mantener tambien, por tres (3) años, copia de los analisis de combustible de aceite usado segin requerido por el inciso E (4) de esta regla. Ademas, debe mantener una copia de cada notificacion que envia a un mercader por un periodo de
tres (3) años a partir de la fecha del Gltimo recibo de aceite usado que no cumple con las especificaciones enviado por ese mercader.
Regla 1106 Materiales Reciclables Utilizados para el Recobro de Metales Preciosos. A. Aplicabilidad y requisitos.
a. Registros que muestran el volumen de estos materiales almacenados al principio del año calendario; b. La cantidad de estos materiales generados - recibidos durante el año calendario; y c. La cantidad de materiales que quedan al final del año calendario. 4. Los materiales reciclables que están regulados bajo esta regla y que son acumulados especulativamente estan sujetos a todas las disposiciones aplicables de las Reglas 503, 504, 505 y las Partes VII, VIII-I, VIII-II y IX-I de este reglamento.
Regla 1107 Baterias Agotadas, con Electrodos de Plomo, que Han Sido Reclamadas. A. Aplicabilidad y requisitos.
Esta Parte es equivalente al 40 CFR Parte 266.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
-VIII-
40 CFR 270
REGLAMENTO PARA EL CONTROL DE LOS DESPERDICIOS SOLIDOS PELIGROSOS Y NO PELIGROSOS
PARTE IX - I
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (1)
(a) para sustituir la frase "en el caso de municipalidades...." por lo siguiente: "....en caso de municipalidades, agencias federales, estatales u otras por: el oficial ejecutivo principal u oficial de jerarquia electo. (Para propósitos de esta regla, un oficial ejecutivo principal u oficial de jerarquia electo incluye:
(i) el director ejecutivo de la agencia, (ii) el oficial ejecutivo mas antiguo con responsabilidad sobre toda la operación de una unidad geográfica principal de la agencia)."
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.11
(a) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 3. Cualquier persona que tiene una solicitud para un permiso para construir una facilidad nueva o modificada deberá hacer la siguiente certificacion: " Certifico bajo pena de ley que este documento y todos sus anejos fueron preparados bajo mi direccion o supervision de acuerdo a un sistema designado para asegurar que personal propiamente cualificado recopilaron y evaluaron la informacion sometida. Basado en las indagaciones que he efectuado de la persona o personas que manejan el sistema, o aquellas personas directamente responsables de recopilar la informacion, esta es, en mi mejor conocimiento y creencia, verdadera, precisa
y completa. Estoy conciente que existen penalidades significativas por someter informacion falsa incluyendo la posibilidad de multa y cárcel por violaciones conocidas.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.11.
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 K (1)
(a) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 K (1)
(a) (a) Generadores que acumulan desperdicios peligrosos en su facilidad por menos tiempo que aquel periodo provisto en la Regla 704 D de este reglamento.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.1
(c) (2)
(i) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 F (3) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue: 3. En el evento de un incumplimiento con el permiso, el solicitante debe tomar todas las medidas razonables para minimizar los escapes al ambiente, y deberá llevar a cabo estas medidas seglin sea razonable para prevenir impactos adversos significativos a la salud humana o al ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.30
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 B para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-912 B - Solicitudes de Permisos
sometida a satisfacción de la Junta. Una solicitud de permiso esta completa aunque el dueño u operador halla fallado en someter la información descrita en el inciso B (10) de esta regla. 4. Requisito de informacion. Todos los solicitantes de un permiso para manejar desperdicios peligrosos deben proveer a la Junta la informacion establecida en la Regla I-902 C y D y los requisitos aplicables de la Regla I-903 A-H, utilizando el modelo de solicitud provisto por la Junta. 5. Facilidades existente para el manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos y las cualificaciones para status interino. a. Los dueños u operadores de facilidades existentes para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos o de facilidades para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias bajo las cuales la facilidad esta sujeta a los requisitos de permiso según RCRA y/o este reglamento, tienen que someter la Parte A de su solicitud de permiso no más tarde de: (1) Seis meses después de la fecha de publicación de la reglamentacion que primero les requiere cumplir con las normas establecidas en las Partes VIII-I u XI de este reglamento, o (ii) Treinta dias después de la fecha que por primera vez estan sujetos a las normas establecidas en las Partes VIII-I u XI de este reglamento, lo que ocurra primero.
(iii) Para generadores que generan más de 100 kg pero menos de $1,000 \mathrm{~kg}$ de desperdicios peligrosos en un mes calendario y que tratan, almacenan o disponen de esos desperdicios en su facilidad, para el 24 de marzo de 1987. b. La Junta podrá extender la fecha para que los dueños u operadores de las clases especfficas de facilidades existentes de desperdicios peligrosos sometan la Parte A de su solicitud, mediante un aviso público a esos efectos, si:
(i) Existe una sustancial confusión sobre si los dueños u operadores de esas facilidades tenian que someter una solicitud, y (ii) Esta confusión es atribuible a ambiguedades de las Partes I, VI, VIII-I y XI. c. La Junta podrá extender la fecha para someter la Parte de solicitud del dueño u operador de una facilidad existente de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos mediante una orden administrativa según los poderes conferidos por la Ley Número 9 del 18 de junio de 1970, según enmendada. d. En cualquier momento la Junta podrá requerir al dueño y operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos que someta la Parte B de su solicitud de permiso. A todo dueño u operador se le puede permitir, al menos seis meses a partir de la fecha de solicitud, para someter la Parte B. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos puede
voluntariamente someter la Parte B de la solicitud en cualquier momento. No obstante lo anterior, cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad existente para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos debe someter la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso de acuerdo con las fechas establecidas en la Regla I-917. Cualquier dueño u operador de una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno, en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias que obligan a la facilidad a estar sujeta a los requisitos de tener un permiso para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos, tiene que someter la Parte B de la solicitud de acuerdo a las fechas establecidas en la Regla I-917 de este reglamento. e. El no cumplir con el requisito de someter la Parte B de su solicitud de permiso a tiempo, o el no suministrar toda la informacion requerida por la solicitud de Parte B, será motivo suficiente para dar por terminado el status interino de la facilidad según la Regla I-912. 6. Nuevas facilidades para el Manejo de los Desperdicios Peligrosos a. Excepto lo provisto en el inciso B (6)
(c) de esta regla, ninguna persona debe de comenzar la construccion fisica de una facilidad para el Manejo de los Desperdicios Peligrosos sin haber sometido la Parte A y Parte B de la solicitud de permiso y sin haber recibido finalmente un permiso valido para el manejo de los desperdicios peligrosos.
b. La solicitud de permiso para una nueva facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos (incluyendo Parte A y Parte B) debe ser sometida en cualquier momento después de la promulgación de los requisitos aplicables de la Parte VIII-II, para esa facilidad. Excepto lo provisto en el párrafo B (6)
(c) de esta regla, las solicitudes serán sometidas por 10 menos 180 dias antes de la fecha en que se espera comenzar la construcción de la facilidad. c. No obstante el inciso B (6)
(a) de esta regla, una persona puede construir una facilidad para la incineración de bifenilos policlorinados conforme a un permiso bajo la Sección (6)
(e) de la Ley Federal para el Control de la Substancias Toxicas y cualquier persona que sea dueta u opere una facilidad de este tipo debe, en cualquier momento despues de que la construcción u operación de esa facilidad haya comenzado, presentar una solicitud de permiso para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos para incinerar desperdicios peligrosos autorizando a esa facilidad a incinerar desperdicios identificados o anotados bajo la Regla 604 de este reglamento. 7. Actualizar las solicitudes de Permiso a. Si el dueño u operador de una facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos ha sometido la parte A de la solicitud de permiso y aún no ha sometido la Parte B, el dueño u operador deberá someter una Parte A enmendada:
(1) No mas tarde de la fecha de efectividad de una nueva reglamentacion en la que se enumeran o designan desperdicios peligrosos adicionales a los anotados o designados previamente en la reglamentacion, si ls facilidad esta tratando, almacenando o disponiendo de cualquier de estos nuevos desperdicios enumerados o designados; o (1i) Segun sea necesario para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla I-916 para realizar cambios durante el status interino. La Parte A revisada serf sometida a la Junta. b. El duefio u operador de una facilidad que no cumpla con los requisitos para actualizar su permiso segin se especifica en el parrafo B (7)
(a) de esta regla, no recibirf status interino en lo relacionado con los desperdicios no incluidos en la Parte A de su solicitud. 8. Renovacion de Permiso. Cualquier facilidad de manejo de desperdicios peligrosos con un permiso valido debera someter una solicitud de renovacion por lo menos 180 dias antes de la fecha de expiracion de dicho permiso a menos que la Junta le haya permitido solicitar el permiso en una fecha posterior. (La Junta no podra autorizar que se sometan solicitudes mas alla de la fecha de expiracion del permiso existente).
(i) El potencial de escape que razonablemente se puede preveer tanto de las operaciones normales como de accidentes en la unidad, incluyendo escapes asociados con la transportacion de o hacia la unidad; (ii) Las diferentes formas en que se puede dar la exposicion a humanos de desperdicios peligrosos o constituyentes que resulten de los escapes descritos en el inciso B (10)
(a) (i) de esta regla; y (iii) La posible magnitud y naturaleza de la exposicion humana resultante de esos escapes.
b. Los duemos u operadores de rellenos o embalses superficiales, que hayan sometido la Parte B de la solicitud, deben someter la informacion de exposicion requerida en el inciso B (10)
(a) de esta regla.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.10.
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 B (1)
(b) y
(c) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 B
(a) de esta regla o por un representante autorizado de esta persona. Una persona es un representante autorizado unicamente si:
(i) La autorizacion es hecha por una persona descrita en el párrafo B (1)
(a) de esta regla; (ii) La autorizacion especificara a un individuo o una posición con responsabilidad sobre la operacion general de la facilidad o la actividad reglamentada como por ejemplo, un gerente de planta, operador de un pozo o un área de pozos, superintendente, o una posición de responsabilidad equivalente, (Por lo tanto, el representante autorizado puede ser un individuo en particular, o un individuo ocupando una posición de renombre); y
(iii) La autorizacion por escrito es sometida a la Junta. c. Cambios de autorizacion. Si una autorizacion bajo el parrafo B (1)
(b) de esta regla ya no es exacta porque un nuevo individuo o una nueva posicion tiene la responsabilidad general de la facilidad, será necesario someter una nueva autorización cumpliendo los requisitos del párrafo B (1)
(b) de esta regla antes o a la misma vez que el nuevo representanterepresentante autorizado firme registros, solicitudes o informes.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.11
(b) y
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 A
(g) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 A
(g) Una copia del plan de contingencia requerida por la Regla II-804 de este reglamento. Nota: Incluir, cuando sea aplicable, como parte del plan de contingencia, los requisitos especificos de las Reglas II-811 E y II-810 H.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.14
(b) (7).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 C para añadir lo siguiente como perrafo
Regla I-903 C (7) Cuando sea aplicable, una descripcion de los sistemas de contencion y deteccion para demostrar el cumplimiento con la Regla II-810 H incluyendo por lo menos lo siguiente:
(a) Los dibujos y una descripcion de los parämetros básicos de diseno, dimensiones y materiales de construccion del sistema de contencion.
(b) La capacidad del sistema de contencion relativo a la capacidad de diseno de los tanques dentro del sistema.
(c) Una descripcion del sistema para detectar escapes y derrames y como la precipitacion y la escorrentia pueden ser prevenidas de entrar en el sistema de deteccion.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.16
(g) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 D para eliminar el parrafo (3). El actual parrafo (4) que lee como sigue pasara a ser el parrafo (3) y asi sucesivamente:
Regla I-903 D (3) Una descripcion de como cada embalse superficial, incluyendo el sistema de revestimiento y cubierta y otros anejos relativos al control de desbordamiento seran inspeccionados para cumplir con los requisitos
de la Regla II-811 D (1) y (2). Esta informacion debe ser incluida en el plan de inspeccion sometido bajo la Regla I-903 A (1)
(e) ;
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.17
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 D para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (9):
Regla I-903 D (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como el embalse superficialestá o será diseñado, construido, operado o mantenido para que cumpla con los requisitos de la Regla II-811. Deben incluirse tambien los siguientes detalles segin especificados en la Regla II-811:
(a) El volumen y caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes y circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefo o monitoria.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.17 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E (2) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 E (2) Si se busca una excepcton a las Reglas II-812 B y II-806 segin lo dispuesto en las Reglas II-812 A (3) 6 II-806 A (2), una explicacion de como los requisitos de la Regla II-812 A (3) serán cumplidos o planos detallados y un informe de ingenieria describiendo como se cumplirán los requisitos de la Regla II-806 A (2);
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.18
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E para eliminar el parrafo (4), y el actual parrafo (5), que en lo sucesivo leerá como sigue, pasara a ser el párrafo (4) y asi sucesivamente:
Regla I-903 E (4) Una descripcion de como cada monticulo de desperdicio, incluyendo el revestimiento y lo relacionado con los sistemas de control de escorrentias, seran inspeccionados de acuerdo con los requisitos de la Regla II-812 E (1) y (2). Esta informacion sera inclufda en el plan de inspeccion sometido bajo la Regla I-903 A (1)
(e) .
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.18
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 E para añadir lo siguiente como pårrafo (9):
Regla I-903 E (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027" describiendo como un montículo de desperdicio que no ha sido encerrado (como se define en la Regla II-812 A (3)) est£ o estara disefiado, constru1do, operado y mantenido para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-812 I. Deben de incluirse tambien los siguientes detalles como se especifica en la Regla II-812 I:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios a ser dispuesto en el montículo de desperdicio, incluyendo su potencial de migración a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atm6sfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefio o monitoria.
Este pårrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.18 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 G para añadir lo siguiente como părrafo (9):
Regla I-903 G (9) Un plan de manejo de desperdicio para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como una facilidad de tratamiento en el terreno esta o estará disenada, construida, operada y mantenida para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-813 K. Se deben de incluir tambien los siguientes detalles segun se especifica en la Regla II-813 K:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atm6sfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de tecnicas adicionales de tratamiento, disefo o monitoria.
Este părrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.20 (1).
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 H (8) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-903 H (8) Si desperdicios a granel o desperdicios liquidos que no se encuentran en receptáculos o desperdicios que contengan liquidos libres han sido colocados en el relleno antes del 8 de mayo de 1985, una explicacion de como se cumplira con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 I (1);
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.21
(h) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-903 H para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (10):
Regla I-903 H (10) Una plan de manejo de desperdicios para los desperdicios peligrosos listados como F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 y F027 describiendo como un relleno esta o estara diseñado construido, operado y mantenido para cumplir con los requisitos de la Regla II-814 L. Se deben de incluir tambien los siguientes detalles segin se especifica en la Regla II-814 L:
(a) El volumen y las caracteristicas fisicas y quimicas de los desperdicios, incluyendo su potencial de migracion a traves del terreno o de volatilizar o escapar hacia la atmosfera;
(b) Las propiedades atenuadoras de los terrenos subyacentes o circundantes o de otros materiales;
(c) Las propiedades movilizadoras de otros materiales co-dispuestos con estos desperdicios; y
(d) La efectividad de técnicas adicionales de tratamiento, diserio o monitoria.
Este pBrrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.21
(j) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 F (1) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-904 F (1) El poseedor del permiso debe retener registros de toda la informacion de monitoria, incluyendo todos los registros de calibracion y mantenimiento y todas las tablas de registro originales para la instrumentacion continua de monitoria, copias de todos los informes requeridos por este permiso, la certificacion requerida por la Regla II-805 D (2) de este reglamento y registros de todos los datos utilizados para completar la solicitud para este permiso, por un periodo de tiempo de por lo menos 3 años a partir de la fecha de la muestra, medida, informe, certificacion o solicitud. Este periodo puede ser extendido por la Junta en cualquier momento. El poseedor del permiso debe mantener registros de todos los pozos de monitoria de agua subterranea y las elevaciones del nivel freático asociado con estos pozos, durante la vida atil de la facilidad, y para facilidades de disposicion durante el periodo de cierre posterior.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.30
(j) (2).
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 F (10) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-902 F (10) ,(a) Todo permiso bajo este reglamento deberá incluir condiciones de permiso necesarias para lograr el cumplimiento con la ley y la reglamentacion, incluyendo cada requisito aplicable bajo las Partes VIII-II y XI. Para satisfacer estos requisitos, la junta podrá incorporar los requisitos aplicables de las Partes VIII-II y XI directamente a los permisos o establecer otras condiciones de permiso basadas en estas partes.
(b) Cada permiso emitido bajo este reglamento contendrá terminos y condiciones segon la Junta estime necesario para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.32
(b) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 D (9)
(a) para añadir lo siguiente como pärrafo (6):
Regla I-912 D (9)
(a) 6. No obstante cualquiera otro requisito de esta regla, cuando un permiso para una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno es revisado por la Junta bajo la Regla I-912 D (12) la Junta puede modificar el permiso como
sea necesario para asegurarse que la facilidad continua cumpliendo con todos los requisitos aplicables de este reglamento.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.41
(a) (6).
Se enmienda la Regla I-912 D para añadir lo siguiente como parrafo (12):
Regla I-912 D 12. Cada permiso para una facilidad de disposicion en el terreno debe ser revisado por la Junta cinco (5) años después de la fecha que se expidi6 o re-expidio el permiso y debe ser modificado como sea necesario segin lo provisto en la Regla I-912 D.
Este parrafo es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.50
(d) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-902 J (2)
(d) para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-912 J (2) d. Cumple con las siguientes reglas:
(i) Regla II-802 A, Numero de Identificacion; (ii) Regla II-805 B, Uso del sistema de manifiesto (iii) Regla II-805 C, Discrepancias en el manifiesto (iv) Regla II-805 D, Registro de Operacion
(v) Regla II-805 F, Informe Bienal (vi) Regla II-805 G, Informe de desperdicios no manifestados (vii) Regla II806 L para permisos NPDES emitidas después del 8 de noviembre de 1984.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.60
(c) (3).
Se enmienda la Regla I-904 para añadir lo siguiente como inciso L. El actual inciso L pasara a ser el inciso M.
Regla I-904 L. Permisos de Investigación, Desarrollo y Demostración
b. Debe proveer especificaciones para que la facilidad acepte y trate solo aquellos tipos y cantidades de desperdicios peligrosos que la Junta estime necesario para propósitos de determinar la eficacia y capacidad de ejecución de la tecnología o procesos y los efectos de esa tecnología o proceso en la salud humana y el ambiente, y c. Debe incluir aquellos requisitos que la Junta estime necesarios para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente (incluyendo, pero no limitado a, monitoria, operacion, responsabilidad financiera, cierre y accion remediativa), y aquellos con el experimento y el proveer informacion a la Junta con respecto a la operacion de la facilidad. 2. Con el propósito de facilitar la revisión y la otorgación de permiso bajo esta Regla I-904 L, la Junta puede, consistentemente con la proteccion de la salud humana y el ambiente, modificar o dispensarlo de una solicitud de permiso y los requisitos de emision de un permiso establecido en la Parte IX-I de este reglamento, excepto que aqui no habrá ninguna modificacion o dispensa de la reglamentacion relacionada con la responsabilidad financiera (incluyendo el seguro) o los procedimientos relacionados con la participacion pública. 3. La Junta puede ordenar un cese inmediato de todas las operaciones de la facilidad en cualquier momento en que determine que el mismo es necesario para proteger la salud humana y el ambiente.
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.65.
Se enmienda la Regla I-914 A para que en lo sucesivo lea como sigue:
Regla I-914 A A. Cualquier persona que es dueña u opera una facilidad existente para el manejo de desperdicios peligrosos o una facilidad en existencia para la fecha de efectividad de las enmiendas reglamentarias bajo la ley que obliga a la facilidad a estar sujeta a los requisitos de tener un permiso tendrá status interino y será tratada como si se le hubiera emitido un permiso, hasta el punto que El o ella haya:
(a) de RCRA (Anejo C-8) relacionados con la notificacion de actividad de desperdicios peligrosos. (COMENTARIO: Algunas facilidades exitentes no necesitan notificar bajo la Seccion 3010
(a) de RCRA (Anejo C-8). Estas facilidades pueden cualificar para status interino si cumplen con el inciso A (2) de esta regla.) 2. Cumplido con los requisitos de la Regla I-912 B relacionada con someter la Parte A de la solicitud de permiso;
Esta regla es equivalente al 40 CFR Seccion 270.70
(a) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-914 para añadir lo siguiente como inciso C:
Regla I-914 C C. El inciso A de esta regla no aplica a aquellas facilidades que se le haya denegado previamente un permiso o que se le haya terminado previamente la autorización para operar la facilidad.
Este inciso es equivalente al 40 CFR Sección 270.70
(c) .
Se enmienda la Regla I-917 para añadir lo siguiente como los incisos C, D, E y F:
Regla I-917 C C. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de disposicion en el terreno que se le haya otorgado un status interino previo al 8 de noviembre de 1984, para el 8 de noviembre de 1985, a menos que:
Regla I-917 D D. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de disposicion en el terreno que este en existencia para la fecha de efectividad en que enmiendas reglamentarias bajo la ley, hacen que la facilidad este sujeta al requisito de tener un permiso y a la cual se le ha otorgado un status interino, doce (12) meses despues de la fecha donde la facilidad por primera vez esta sujeta a ese requisito de permiso, a menos que el duefio u operador de esa facilidad:
Regla I-917 E E. Para dueños u operadores de cada facilidad de incineración para el 8 de noviembre de 1989, a menos que el duefio u operador de la facilidad someta la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso para una facilidad de incineración para el 8 de noviembre de 1986.
Regla I-917 F F. Para dueños u operadoręs de cualquier facilidad (que no sea de disposicion en el terreno o de incineración) para el 8 de noviembre de 1992, a menos que el dueño u operador de la facilidad someta la Parte B de la solicitud de permiso para la facilidad para el 8 de noviembre de 1988.
Estos incisos son equivalentes al 40 CFR Sección 270.73
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) y
(f) .
IX
DISPONIBILIDAD DE DOCUMENTOS
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.2.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.2.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.3.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.4.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.5.1. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
1.3.5.5.3. Basic Concepts
X
CARGOS POR PERMISO
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.2.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.3.4. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.2.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.3.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.2. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.3. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
1.1.4.4.1.4.1.1. Basic Concepts
A. Aplicabilidad
Esta regla requiere que se paguen cargos por solicitudes, permisos y renovaciones para:
B. Cargos por Radicación:
Los siguientes listados establecen los cargos por permisos para todas las facilidades de desperdicios sōlidos peligrosos y no peligrosos.
Listado 1: Facilidades de Almacenamiento, Tratamiento - Disposición en el Terreno.
Cualquier relleno, tratamiento en el terreno, y montículo de desperdicios ("waste piles") será gravada con un cargo por permiso basado en el total de cuerdas de la facilidad y la clase de desperdicio recibido, de acuerdo con el listado siguiente:
PARTE X - REGLA 1001
Cargos por | Permisos | |
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Sôlido No- | Sôlido | |
Tamaño del sitio (cuerdas) | Peligrosos | Peligroso |
Hasta 20 (inclusive) | $ 75.00 | $300.00 |
De 20 a 60 | 150.00 | 600.00 |
De 60 a 100 | 225.00 | 750.00 |
De 100 a 200 | 300.00 | 900.00 |
Por cada 200 o fracción | 300.00 | 450.00 |
Listado II: Tanques de almacenamiento y tratamiento y embalses superficiales.
Los tanques de almacenamiento y embalses superficiales serân gravados con un cargo por permiso basado en su capacidad de galones, o su equivalente en pies cûbicos, y el tipo de desperdicio recibido.
Cargo por | Permisos | |
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Capacidad (galones) | Sôlido No | Sôlido |
hasta 4,000 galones | Peligroso | Peligroso |
4,001 hasta 10,000 | ||
10,001 hasta 40,000 gals. | 150.00 | 600.00 |
40,001 hasta 100,000 gals. | 225.00 | 750.00 |
100,001 hasta 400,000 gals. | 300.00 | 900.00 |
400,001 hasta 1,000,000 gals. | 300.00 | $1,150.00$ |
1,000,001 hasta 1,500,000 gals. | 450.00 | $1,200.00$ |
1,500.001 hasta 2,000,000 gals. | 600.00 | $1,500.00$ |
500,000 adicional o fracción | 300.00 | 300.00 |
Basado en el tipo de facilidad y tipo de desperdicio, los siguientes cargos por permisos se gravarán a incineradores y a plantas de tratamiento termal (ej., plantas usadas primodialmente para disponer o tratar desperdicio combustible que consuma totalmente los materiales alimentados dejando solo cenizas o residuos); compactadores y trituradores; facilidades de tratamiento no termal (ej., tratamiento biológico, físico, o químico).
Cargos por Permisos | ||
---|---|---|
Desperdicio | Desperdicio | |
Sôlido No- | Sôlido | |
Tipo de Facilidad | Peligroso | Peligroso |
1. Domêstico | $ 75.00 | $300.00 |
2. Planta Central | 300.00 | 750.00 |
Listado IV: Servicios de Recolección y Tratamiento Los servicios para desperdicios sôlidos peligrosos y no peligrosos serán gravados con un cargo por permiso como sigue:
Tipo de Servicio Servicio de Recolección (desperdicio sôlido no peligroso) Servicio de Tratamiento (desperdicio sôlido peligroso)
Cargo por Permiso $300.00 750.00
Listado V: Misceláneos Cualquier facilidad de tratamiento, almacenamiento o disposición de desperdicio sôlido peligroso o no peligroso que no estê incluído en los listados precedentes serâ gravado por un cargo de permiso de $750.00.
F. Excepciones a los cargos de Permisos.
A pesar de las disposiciones de la Sección E de esta regla, se gravará un cargo de setenta y cinco (75.00) dólares a los permisos para las siguientes actividades o servicios:
Las siguientes personas estarán excluídas de esta Parte del reglamento:
H. Cargos por Transferencias de Propiedad o Cambio de Ubicación.
Cuando una solicitud para un permiso ha sido radicada porque la facilidad ha sido mudada a una nueva localización, o porque la propiedad ha sido transferida de una persona a otra y se ha otorgado previamente un permiso para esa facilidad y no han hecho alteraciones o adiciones, el solicitante pagará el cargo provisto en la Sección B y el cargo de permiso será equivalente al cincuenta porciento ( $50 %$ ) del cargo de permiso correspondiente, según establecido en la Sección E de esta regla. I. Duplicados de Permisos.
Toda solicitud de duplicado de permiso deberá ser hecho por escrito por el poseedor del permiso si dicho documento de permisos ha sido destruído, perdido o desfigurado. Un cargo de $30.00 será cargado por expedir un duplicado de permiso.
PARTE X - REGLA 1001 J. Cargos por Revisión.
Por la solicitud para la revisión de un permiso para construir, de un plan de cumplimiento, o de un permiso para operar, el solicitante deberá pagar una octava parte ( $1 / 8$ ) de los cargos provistos en la Sección C.
REGLA 1002 - CARGOS POR PRUEBAS A. Autoridad para Conducir Pruebas.
La Junta podrá, cuando lo crea necesario, llevar a cabo pruebas de funcionamiento de una facilidad de desperdicios sôlidos peligroso o no peligrosos para determinar el grado y cantidad de contaminantes que se están descargando al ambiente, aire, agua o al terreno; el grado de cumplimiento con las condiciones del permiso, o cumplimiento con este reglamento.
B. Procedimiento para las Pruebas.
En tal caso, la Junta notificará al dueño u ' operador de la facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligrosos de sus intenciones, y solicitará aquellos equipos o accesorios necesarios para llevar a cabo las pruebas. C. Gastos por Pruebas.
El dueño u operador de la facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligroso o no peligroso deberá pagar los cargos por la prueba de funcionamiento. D. Procedimientos para el Pago de los Gastos por Pruebas.
Después de completar las pruebas, el dueño u operador de una facilidad de desperdicio sōlido peligroso o no peligroso será notificado por escrito, por la Junta, de los cargos o gastos por las pruebas dentro de treinta (30) días de dicha notificación resultará en la cancelación de cualquier solicitud o permiso para operar la facilidad.
E. Copias de los Resultados de las Pruebas.
Al pagar los cargos o gastos incurridos al conducir las pruebas de funcionamiento, el dueño u operador recibirá una (1) copia del informe de las pruebas de funcionamient.
1.1.2. Basic Concepts
ANEJO C-1 Appendix II EP Toxicity Test Procedures
A representative sample of the waste to be tested (minimum size 100 grams) shall be obtained using the methods specified in Appendix I or any other method capable of yielding a representative sample within the meaning of Part 260. (For detailed guidance on conducting the various aspects of the EP see "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" (incorporated by reference, see § 260.11).)
The sample shall be separated into its component liquid and solid phases using the method described in "Separation Procedure" below. If the solid residue obtained using this method totals less than 0.5% of the original weight of the waste, the residue can be discarded and the operator shall treat the liquid phase as the extract and proceed immediately to Step 8.
The solid material obtained from the Separation Procedure shall be evaluated for its particle size. If the solid material has a surface area per gram of material equal to or greater than 3.1 cm² or passes through a 9.5 mm (0.375 inch) standard sieve, the operator shall proceed to Step 4. If the surface area is smaller or the particle size larger than specified above, the solid material shall be prepared for extraction by crushing, cutting or grinding the material so that it passes through a 9.5 mm (0.375 inch) sieve or, if the material is in a single piece, by subjecting the material to the "Structural Integrity Procedure" described below.
The solid material obtained in Step 3 shall be weighed and placed in an extractor with 16 times its weight of deionized water. Do not allow the material to dry prior to weighing. For purposes of this test, an acceptable extractor is one which will impart sufficient agitation to the mixture to not only prevent stratification of the sample and extraction fluid but also ensure that all sample surfaces are continuously brought into contact with well mixed extraction fluid.
After the solid material and deionized water are placed in the extractor, the operator shall begin agitation and measure the pH of the solution in the extractor. If the pH is greater than 5.0, the pH of the solution shall be decreased to 5.0 ± 0.3 by adding 0.5 N acetic acid. If the pH is equal to or less than 5.0, no acetic acid should be added. The pH of the solution shall be monitored, as described below, during the course of the extraction and if the pH rises above 5.2, 0.5N acetic acid shall be added to bring the pH down to 5.0 ± 0.2. However, in no event shall the aggregate amount of acid added to the solution exceed 4 ml of acid per gram of solid. The mixture shall be agitated for 24 hours and maintained at 20°C (68°-104°F) during this time. It is recommended that the operator monitor and adjust the pH during the course of the extraction with a device such as the Type 45-A pH Controller manufactured by Chemtris, Inc., Hillsboro, Oregon 97123 or its equivalent, in conjunction with a metering pump and reservoir of 0.5N acetic acid. If such a system is not available, the following manual procedure shall be employed:
(a) A pH meter shall be calibrated in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.
(b) The pH of the solution shall be checked and, if necessary, 0.5N acetic acid shall be manually added to the extractor until the pH reaches 5.0 ± 0.2. The pH of the solution shall be adjusted at 15, 30 and 60 minute intervals, moving to the next longer interval if the pH does not have to be adjusted more than 0.5N pH units.
(c) The adjustment procedure shall be continued for at least 6 hours.
(d) If at the end of the 24-hour extraction period, the pH of the solution is not below 5.2 and the maximum amount of acid (4 ml per gram of solids) has not been added, the pH shall be adjusted to 5.0 ± 0.2 and the extraction continued for an additional four hours, during which the pH shall be adjusted at one hour intervals.
$$ ext{V} = \left(\frac{20.0 imes 10^{3} ext{ N}}{ ext{ml}} ight) imes 10^{3} $$
where:
The material in the extractor shall be separated into its component liquid and solid phases as described under "Separation Procedure."
The liquid resulting from Steps 2 and 7 shall be combined. This combined liquid (or the waste itself if it has less than 1/2 percent solids, as noted in step 2) is the extract and shall be analyzed for the presence of any of the contaminants specified in Table 1 of § 261.24 using the Analytical Procedures designated below.
Equipment: A filter holder, designed for filtration media having a nominal pore size of 0.45 micrometers and capable of applying a 5.3 kg/cm³ (75 psi) hydrostatic pressure to the solution being filtered, shall be used. For mixtures containing nonabsorptive solids, where separation can be effected without imposing a 5.3 kg/cm³ pressure differential, vacuum filters employing a 0.45 micrometers filter media can be used. (For further guidance on filtration equipment or procedures see "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods" incorporated by reference, see § 260.11). Procedure:
(i) Following manufacturer's directions: The filter unit shall be assembled with a filter bed consisting of a 0.45 micrometer filter membrane. For difficult or slow to filter mixtures a prefilter bed consisting of the following prefilters in increasing pore size (0.65 micrometer membrane, fine glass fiber prefilter, and coarse glass fiber prefilter) can be used.
(ii) The waste shall be poured into the filtration unit.
(iii) The reservoir shall be slowly pressurized until liquid begins to flow from the filtrate outlet at which point the pressure in the filter shall be immediately lowered to 10-15 psig. Filtration shall be continued until liquid flow ceases.
(iv) The pressure shall be increased stepwise in 10 psi increments to 75 psig and filtration continued until flow ceases or the pressurizing gas begins to exit from the filtrate outlet.
(v) The filter unit shall be depressurized, the solid material removed and weighed and then transferred to the extraction apparatus, or, in the case of final filtration prior to analysis, discarded. Do not allow the material retained on the filter pad to dry prior to weighing.
(vi) The liquid phase shall be stored at 4°C for subsequent use in Step 8.
This procedure is intended to result in separation of the "free" liquid portion of the waste from any solid matter having a particle size >0.45 µm. If the sample will not filter, various other separation techniques can be used to aid in the filtration. As described above, pressure filtration is employed to speed up the filtration process. This does not alter the nature of the separation. If liquid does not separate during filtration, the waste can be centrifuged. If separation occurs during centrifugation, the liquid portion (centrifugate) is filtered through the 0.45 µm filter prior to becoming mixed with the liquid portion of the waste obtained from the initial filtration. Any material that will not pass through the filter after centrifugation is considered a solid and is extracted.
Equipment: A Structural Integrity Tester having a $3.18 \mathrm{~cm}(1.35 \mathrm{in}$.) diameter hammer weighing $0.33 \mathrm{~kg}(0.72 \mathrm{lbs}$.) and having a free fall of $16.24 \mathrm{~cm}(6 \mathrm{in}$.) Shall be used. This device is available from Associated Design and Manufacturing Company, Alexandria, VA 22314, as Part No. 125, or it may be fabricated to meet the specifications shown in Figure 1.
Analytical Procealures for Analysing Earac: Contaminents
The test methods for analyzing the extract are as follows:
For all analyses, the methods of standard addition shall be used for quantification of species concentration.
ELASTOMERIC SAMPLE HOLDER FABRICATED OF MATERIAL FIRM ENOUGH TO SUPPORT THE SAMPLE
COMPACTION TESTER
ANEJO C-2 Appendix III Chemical Analysis Test Methods
Tables 1, 2, and 3 specify the appropriate analytical procedures described in "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," incorporated by reference, see 260.11, which shall be used to determine whether a sample contains a given Appendix VII or VIII toxic constituent.
Table 1 identifies each Appendix VII or VIII organic constituent alone with the approved measurement method. Table 2 identifies the corresponding methods for inorganic species. Table 3 summarizes the contents of SW-846 and supplies specific section and method numbers for sampling and analysis methods.
Prior to final sampling and analysis method selection the analyst should consult the specific section or method described in SW-846 for additional guidance on which of the approved methods should be employed for a specific sample analysis situation.
[Amended by 50 FR 1999, January 14, 1985; revised by 50 FR 42942, October 23, 1985; amended by 51 FR 5330, February 13, 1986; 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
Compound | No. in ml |
---|---|
Acetonitrile | 8030, 8240 |
Acrolein | 8030, 8240 |
Acrylonitrile | 8015, 8240 |
Acrylonitrile | 8030, 8240 |
2-Amino-4-methylbenzene (p-Toluidine) | 8250 |
4-Amino-4-methylbenzene (p-Toluidine) | |
8250 | |
Aniline | 8250 |
Benzene | 8030, 8034 |
Benzylsenthracene | 8100, 8250 |
Benzoxypyrene | 8100, 8250 |
Benzothiothiol | 8120, 8250 |
Benzoyl chloride | 8120, 8250 |
Benzoylfluoranthene | 8100, 8250 |
Bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane | 8010, 8240 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ether | 8010, 8240 |
Bis(2-chloroethyl)ethylether | 8010, 8240 |
Carbon disulfide | 8015, 8240 |
Carbon tetrachloride | 8010, 8240 |
Chlordane | 8080, 8250 |
Chlorinated dibenzodioxins (Removed) | |
Chlorinated biphenyls | 8090, 8250 |
Chlorinated dibenzofurans | 8010, 8240 |
Chlorinated dibenzofurans | 8010, 8240 |
Chlorobenzene | 8020, 8240 |
Chlorobenzene | 8010, 8240 |
Chloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
Chloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
2-Chlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Chrysene | 8100, 8250 |
Cyanone | 8100, 8250 |
Cyanides | 8040, 8250 |
Cyanolic Acids | 8040, 8250 |
Dichlorobenzene(6) | 8010, 8120, 8250 |
Dichloromethane(6) | 8010, 8240 |
Dichloromethane | 8010, 8240 |
Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid | 8150, 8250 |
Dichloropropanol | 8120, 8250 |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | 8040, 8250 |
Dinitrobenzene | 8090, 8250 |
4,5-Dinitro-1-eneol | 8040, 8250 |
2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 8090, 8250 |
2,5-Dinitrotoluene | 8090 or 8250 |
Compound | Method No. |
---|---|
Endrin | 8080, 8250 |
2-Ethoxyethanol | 8030, 8240 |
Emollient | 8015, 8240 |
Ethylene diiron | 8010, 8240 |
Formaldehyde | 8015, 8240 |
Formic acid | 8250 |
Heptachlor | 8080, 8250 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 8120, 8250 |
Hexachlorobutadiene | 8120, 8250 |
Hexachlorobenzene | 8010, 8240 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 8120, 8250 |
Lindane | 8080, 8250 |
Maleic anhydride | 8010, 8240 |
Methanol | 8010, 8240 |
Methomyl | 8050 |
Methyl ethyl ketone | 8015, 8240 |
Methyl isobutyl ketone | 8015, 8240 |
Naphthalene | 8100, 8250 |
Naphthoquinone | 8090, 8250 |
Nitrobenzene | 8090, 8250 |
2-Nitrophorane | 8030, 8240 |
4-Nitrophenol | 8040, 8240 |
Paraldehyde (trimer of acetaldehyde) | 8015, 8240 |
Pentachlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Phenol | 8040, 8250 |
Phorate | 8140 |
Phosphorodithioic acid esters | 8140 |
Phthalic anhydride | 8090, 8250 |
2-Picoline | 8090, 8250 |
Pyridine | 8090, 8250 |
Tetrachlorobenzene(6) | 8120, 8250 |
Tetrachloroethane(6) | 8010, 8240 |
Tetrachloroethene | 8010, 8240 |
Tetrachlorophenol | 8040, 8250 |
Toluene | 8020, 8034 |
Toluenediamine | 8250 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
2,5-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
3,4-Toluenediamine | 8250 |
Compound | Tested with methods | Second edition |
---|---|---|
Arsenic | 8.50 | 7040, 7041 |
Arsenic | 8.51 | 7060, 7061 |
Barium | 8.52 | 7080, 7081 |
Cadmium | 8.53 | 7090, 7091 |
Chromium | 8.54 | 7180, 7181 |
Chromium: Hexavalent | 8.545, 8.546, 7185, 7190, 7195, 7197, 7199, 7198, 7199, 7191 | |
Lead | 8.56 | 7420, 7421 |
Mercury | 8.57 | 7470, 7471 |
Nickel | 8.58 | 7520, 7521 |
Selenium | 8.59 | 7740, 7741 |
Silver | 8.60 | 7760, 7761 |
Cyanides | 8.61 | 8010, 8010 |
Total Organic Halogen | 8.66 | 8020, 8021 |
Sulfides | 8.67 | 8030, 8031 |
Title | Tested with methods | Second edition |
---|---|---|
Section No. | Method No. | |
Sampling of Solid Wastes | 1.0 | 1.0 |
Development of Appropriate Sampling Plans | 1.0 | 1.1 |
Regulatory and Scientific Objectives | 1.0-2 | 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1.1, 1 |
TABLE 3-SAWING AND ANALYSIS METHODS CONTAINED IN SW-846-Continued
Title | |||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Frac eosior | |||||
Secche eosior | |||||
Section | Method | Section | Method | ||
No. | No. | No. | No. | ||
Channel-Cutting Recalls | 2.0-6 | 1.34 | |||
Sample Analysis Request Sheet | 2.0-9 | 1.35 | |||
Sample Delivery to Laboratory | 2.0-10 | 1.37 | |||
Shooting of Samples | 2.0-12 | 1.38 | |||
Receipt and Logging of Sample | 2.0-13 | 1.39 | |||
Assignment of Sample for Analysis | 2.0-13 | 1.39 | |||
Sampling Methodology | 3.0 | 1.4 | |||
Consumers | 3.2-2 | 1.41 | |||
Tanks | 3.2-2 | 1.42 | |||
Waste Piles | 3.2-2 | 1.43 | |||
Landfills and Lagrions | 3.2-2 | 1.44 | |||
Waste Evaluation Procedures | 2.0 | ||||
Characteristics of Hazardous Waste | 2.1 | ||||
Ignorability | 4.0 | 2.11 | |||
Pensky-Martens Closed-Cup Method | 4.1 | 2.11 | 1010 | ||
Seletlash Closed-Cup Method | 4.1 | 2.11 | 1020 | ||
Complexity | 5.0 | 2.12 | |||
Complexity Toward Steel | 5.2 | 2.12 | 1110 | ||
Reactivity | 6.0 | 2.13 | |||
Extraction Procedure Toxicity | 7.0 | 2.14 | |||
Extraction Procedure Toxicity Test | 7.1, 7.2, 7.5 | ||||
Method and Structural Integrity Test | 7.4 | 2.14 | 1310 | ||
Sample Workup Techniques | 4.0 | ||||
Inorganic Techniques | 8.49 | 4.1 | |||
Acid Digestion for Flame AAS | 4.1 | 3010 | |||
Acid Digestion for Furnace AAS | 4.1 | 3020 | |||
Acid Digestion of Oil, Grease, or Wax | 8.49-9 | 4.1 | 3030 | ||
Dissolution Procedure for Oil, Grease or Wax | 8.49-8 | ||||
Alkaline Digestion | 8.0 | 8.458 | 4.1 | 3060 | |
Organic Techniques | 8.0 | 4.2 | |||
Separatory Funnel Liquid-Liquid Extraction | 8.0 | 9.1 | 4.2 | 3510 | |
Continuous Liquid-Liquid Extraction | 8.0 | 9.01 | 4.2 | 3520 | |
Acid-Base Cleanup Extraction | 8.0 | 8.84 | 4.2 | 3530 | |
Soxhlet Extraction | 8.0 | 8.86 | 4.2 | 3540 | |
Sonication Extraction | 8.0 | 8.85 | 4.2 | 3550 | |
Sample Introduction Techniques | 5.0 | ||||
Headspace | 8.0 | 8.82 | 5.0 | 5020 | |
Purge-and-Trap | 8.0 | 8.83 | 5.0 | 5030 | |
Inorganic Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 7.0 | |||
Antimony, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.50 | 7.0 | 7470 | |
Antimony, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.50 | 7.0 | 7471 | |
Arsenic, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.51 | 7.0 | 7060 | |
Arsenic, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.51 | 7.0 | 7081 | |
Barium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.52 | 7.0 | 7080 | |
Barium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.52 | 7.0 | 7081 | |
Cadmium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.53 | 7.0 | 7130 | |
Cadmium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.53 | 7.0 | 7131 | |
Chromium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.54 | 7.0 | 7090 | |
Chromium, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.54 | 7.0 | 7181 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Coorecortator | 8.0 | 8.545 | 7.0 | 7195 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Colorimetric | 8.0 | 8.546 | 7.0 | 7196 | |
Chromium, Hexavalent, Chelation | 8.0 | 8.547 | 7.0 | 7197 | |
Lead, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.56 | 7.0 | 7420 | |
Lead, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.56 | 7.0 | 7421 | |
Mercury, Cold Vapor, Liquid | 8.0 | 8.57 | 7.0 | 7470 | |
Mercury, Cold Vapor, Solid | 8.0 | 8.57 | 7.0 | 7471 | |
Nickel, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.58 | 7.0 | 7520 | |
Nickel, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.58 | 7.0 | 7521 | |
Selenium, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.59 | 7.0 | 7740 | |
Selenium, Gasoline Hygiene AAS | 8.0 | 8.59 | 7.0 | 7741 | |
Silver, Flame AAS | 8.0 | 8.60 | 7.0 | 7760 | |
Silver, Furnace AAS | 8.0 | 8.60 | 7.0 | 7761 | |
Organic Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 8.0 | |||
Gas Chromatographic Methods | 8.0 | 8.1 | |||
Halogenated Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.01 | 8.1 | 8010 | |
Nonhalogenated Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.01 | 8.1 | 8015 | |
Aromatic Volatile Organics | 8.0 | 8.02 | 8.1 | 8020 | |
Acrolein, Acrylonitrile, Acetonitrile | 8.0 | 8.03 | 8.1 | 8030 | |
Phenols | 8.0 | 8.04 | 8.1 | 8040 | |
Phthalate Esters | 8.0 | 8.06 | 8.1 | 8060 | |
Organochlorine Pesticides and PCBs | 8.0 | 8.08 | 8.1 | 8080 | |
Nitrofurantoin and Cyclic Ketones | 8.0 | 8.09 | 8.1 | 8090 | |
Polynuclear Aromatic Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.10 | 8.1 | 8100 | |
Chlorinated Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.12 | 8.1 | 8120 | |
Organophosphorus Pesticides | 8.0 | 8.22 | 8.1 | 8140 | |
Chlorinated Herbicides | 8.0 | 8.40 | 8.1 | 8150 |
[Appendix III]
TABLE 3-SAMPLING AND ANALYSIS METHODS CONTAINED IN SW-846—Continued
Title | Feet adcort | Second adcort | ||
---|---|---|---|---|
Section | Method | Section | Method | |
No. | No. | No. | No. | |
Gas Chromatographic/Mass Spectroscopy Methods (GC/MS) | 5.0 | 8.2 | ||
GC/MS Volatiles | 8.0 | 8.24 | 8.2 | 8240 |
GC/MS Semi-Volatiles, Pipelac Column | 8.0 | 8.21 | 8.2 | 8250 |
GC/MS Semi-Volatiles, Capsules | 8.0 | 8.27 | 8.2 | 8270 |
Analysis of Chlorinated Dioxins and Dipeptamates | 8.2 | 8280 | ||
High Performance Liquid Chromatographic Methods (HPLC) | 8.0 | 8.3 | ||
Polynuclear Aromatic Hydrocarbons | 8.0 | 8.10 | 8.3 | 8310 |
Macromass Analytical Methods | 8.0 | 9.0 | ||
Cyanide, Total and Ammonia to Chlorination | 8.0 | 8.55 | 9.0 | 9010 |
Total Organic Halogen (TOX) | 8.0 | 8.66 | 9.0 | 9020 |
Sulfoxes | 8.0 | 8.67 | 9.0 | 9030 |
pH Measurement | 5.0 | 5.2 | 9.0 | 9040 |
Quality Control/Quality Assurance | 10.0 | 10.1 | ||
Introduction | 10.0 | 10.1 | ||
Program Design | 10.0 | 10.2 | ||
Sampling | 10.0 | 10.3 | ||
Analysis | 10.0 | 10.4 | ||
Data Handling | 10.0 | 10.5 |
*See specific metal.
ANEJO C-3 Appendix VIII Hazardous Constituents
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In the
In
3-Chloropropene (allyl chloride)
(Added by 49 FR 5312, February 10, 1984)
3-Chloropropionitrile (Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-)
Chromium and compounds. N.O.S.*
Chryseke (1,2-Benzphenanthrene)
Citrus red No. 2 (2-Naphthol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]-)
Coal tars
Copper cyanide
Creosote (Creosote, wood)
Cresols (Cresylic acid) (Phenol, methyl-)
Crotonaldehyde (2-Butenal)
Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes), N.O.S.*
Cyanogen (Ethanedinitrile)
Cyanogen bromide (Bromine cyanide)
Cyanogen chloride (Chlorine cyanide)
Cycasin (beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl-)
2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-)
Cyclophosphamide (2H-1,2,2-Oxazaphosphorine, [bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]-tetrahydro-, 2-oxide)
Daunomycin (5,12-Naphthacenedione, (8S-cis)-8-acetyl-10-[(5-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-)
DDD (Dichlorodiphenyldichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
DDE (Ethylene, 1,1-dichloro-2,2-bis(4-chlorophenyl)-)
DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2-bis(p-chlorophenyl)-)
Diallate (S-(2,3-dichloroallyl) diisopropylthiocarbamate)
Dibenz(a,h)acridine (1,2,5,6-Dibenzacridine)
Dibenz(a,j)acridine (1,2,7,8-Dibenzacridine)
Dibenz(a,h)anthracene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzanthracene)
7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole (3,4,5,6-Dibenzcarbazole)
Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene (1,2,4,5-Dibenzpyrene)
Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene (1,2,5,6-Dibenzpyrene)
Dibenzo[a,l]pyrene (1,2,7,8-Dibenzpyrene)
1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane (Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-)
1,2-Dibromoethane (Ethylene dibromide)
Dibromomethane (Methylene bromide)
Di-n-butyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester)
o-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-)
m-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-)
p-Dichlorobenzene (Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-)
Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S.* (Benzene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro-)
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-)
Dichlorodifluoromethane (Methane, dichlorodifluoro-)
1,1-Dichloroethane (Ethylidene dichloride)
1,2-Dichloroethane (Ethylene dichloride)
trans-1,2-Dichloroethene (1,2-Dichloroethylene)
Dichloroethylene, N.O.S.* (Ethene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,1-Dichloroethylene (Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-)
Dichloromethane (Methylene chloride)
2,4-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-)
2,6-Dichlorophenol (Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-)
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), salts and esters (Acetic acid, 2,4-dichlorophenoxy-, salts and esters)
Dichlorophenylarsine (Phenyl dichloroarsine)
Dichloropropane, N.O.S.* (Propane, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,2-Dichloropropane (Propylene dichloride)
Dichloropropanol, N.O.S.* (Propanol, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
Dichloropropene, N.O.S.* (Propene, dichloro-, N.O.S.*)
1,3-Dichloropropene (1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro-)
Dieldrin (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octa-hydro-endo,exo-1,4,5,6-Dimethanonaphthalene)
1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane (2,2'-Bioxirane)
Diethylarsine (Arsine, diethyl-)
N,N'-Diethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
O,O-Diethyl S-methyl ester of phosphorodithioic acid (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester)
O,O-Diethylphosphoric acid, O-p-nitrophenyl ester (Phosphoric acid, diethyl p-nitrophenyl ester)
Diethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester)
O,O-Diethyl O-3-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate (Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester)
Diethylstilbestemol (4,4'-Stilbenediol, alpha,alpha-diethyl, bis(dihydrogen phosphate, (E)-)
Dihydroazirole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-propyl-)
3,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol (1,2-Benzenediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)-)
Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) (Phosphoralluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester)
Dimethoate (Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-(2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl) ester)
3,3'-Dimethoxybenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy-)
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene (Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-)
7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene (1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-)
3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine ((1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl-)
Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride (Carbamoyl chloride, dimethyl-)
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-)
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-)
3,3-Dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-2-butanone, O-((methylamino) carbonyl)oxime (Thiofanox)
alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine (Ethanamine, 1,1-dimethyl-2-phenyl-)
2,4-Dimethylphenol (Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-)
Dimethyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester)
Dimethyl sulfate (Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester)
Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S.* (Benzene, dinitro-, N.O.S.*)
4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-methyl-, and salts)
2,4-Dinitrophenol (Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-)
2,4-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-)
2,6-Dinitrotoluene (Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro-)
Di-n-octyl phthalate (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester)
1,4-Dioxane (1,4-Diethylene oxide)
Diphenylamine (Benzenamine, N-phenyl-)
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine (Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-)
Di-n-propylnitrosamine (N-Nitroso-di-n-propylamine)
Disulfoton (O,O-diethyl S-(2-ethylthio)ethyl) phosphorodithioate
2,4-Dithiobiuret (Thioimidodicarbonic diamide)
Endosulfan (5-Norbornene, 2,3-dimethanol, 1,4,5,6,7,7-hexachloro-, cyclic sulfite)
Endrin and metabolites (1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-6,7-epoxy-1,4,4a,5,6,7,8,8a-octahydro-endo,enoo-1,4,5,6-dimethanonaphthalene, and metabolites)
Ethyl cyanide (propanenitrile)
Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters (1,2-Ethanediylbiocarbamodithioic acid, salts and esters)
Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether (Exthanol, 2-ethoxy)
[Added by 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
Ethyleneimine (Aziridine)
Ethylene oxide (Oxirane)
Ethylmethiourea (2-Imidazolidinethione)
Ethyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester)
Ethyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester)
Fluoranthene (Benzol, 3,3-fluorene)
Fluorine
2-Fluoroacetamide (Acetamide, 2-fluoro-)
Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt (Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt)
Formaldehyde (Methylene oxide)
Formic acid (Methanoic acid)
Glycidylaldehyde (1-propanol-2,3-exoxy)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Halomethane, N.O.S.*
Heptachlor (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-)
Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) (4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-2,3-epoxy-3a,4,7,7-tetrahydro-, alpha, beta, and gamma isomers)
Hexachlorobenzene (Benzene, hexachloro-)
Hexachlorobutadiene (1,3-Butadiene, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Hexachlorocyclohexane (all isomers) (Lindane and isomers)
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene (1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro-)
Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins
Hexachlorodibenzofurans
Hexachloroethane (Ethane, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
1,2,3,4,10,10-Hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1,4,5,6-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene (Hexachlorobenzahydro-endo,endo-dimethanonaphthalene)
Hexachlorophene (2,2'-Methylenebis(2,4,6-trichlorophenol))
Hexachloropropene (Propene, hexachloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII]
Hexaethyl tetraphorphate (Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester)
Hydrazine (Diamine)
Hydroxyanis acid (Hydrogen cyanide)
Hydrofluoric acid (Hydrogen fluoride)
Hydrogen sulfide (Sulfur hydride)
Hydroxydimethylarsine oxide (Cacodylic acid)
Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene (1,10-(1,2-phenylene)pyrene)
Iodomethane (Methyl iodide)
Iron dextran (Ferric dextran)
Isocyanic acid, methyl ester (Methyl isocyanate)
Isobutyl alcohol (1-Propanol, 2-methyl-)
Isosalrole (Benzene, 1,2-methylenedioxy-4-allyl)
Kepone (Decachlorooctahydro-1,3,4-meth-ano-2H-cyclobuta[cd]-pentalene-2-one)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Lasiocarpine (2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,2,5,7a-tetrahydro-[H-pyrrolidin-1-yl ester)
Lead and compounds, N.O.S.*
Lead acetate (Acetic acid, lead salt)
Lead phosphate (Phosphoric acid, lead salt)
Lead subacetate (Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri-)
Maleic anhydride (2,5-Purandione)
Maleic hydrazide (1,2-Dihydro-3,6-pyridazin-edione)
Malononitrile (Propanedinitrile)
Melphalan (Alanine, 3-(p-bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)phenyl-, L-)
Mercury fulminate (Fulminic acid, mercury salt)
Mercury and compounds, N.O.S.*
Methacrylonitrile (2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-)
Methanethiol (Thiomethanol)
Methapyrilene (Pyridine, 3-[(2-dimethylamino)ethyl]-2-(henylamino-)
Methoimyl (Acetimidic acid, N-[(methylcarbamoyl)oxy]thio-, methyl ester)
Methoxychlor (Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-2,2'-bis(p-methoxyphenyl)-)
2-Methylaziridine (1,2-Propylenimine)
2-Methylcholanthrene (Benz[a]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl-)
Methyl chlorocarbonate (Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester)
4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) (Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis-(2-chloro-)
Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (2-Butanone)
Methyl hydrazine (Hydrazine, methyl-)
2-Methyllactonitrile (Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-)
Methyl methacrylate (2-Propenoic acid, 3-methyl-, methyl ester)
Methyl methanesulfonate (Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester)
2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime (Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, o-(methylamino)carbonyl)oxime)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected 2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime to read "2-Methyl-2-(methylthio)propionaldehyde-o-(methylcarbonyl)oxime" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
N-Methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (Guanidine, N-nitroso-N-methyl-N'-nitro-)
Methyl parathion (O,O-dimethyl O-[4-nitrophenyl] phosphorothioate)
Methylthiouracil (4-1H-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo-)
Mustard gas (Sulfide, bis(2-chloroethyl)-)
Naphthalene
1,4-Naphthoquinone (1,4-Naphthalenedione)
1-Naphthylamine (alpha-Naphthylamine)
2-Naphthylamine (beta-Naphthylamine)
1-Naphthyl-2-thiourea (Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-)
Nickel and compounds, N.O.S.*
Nickel carbonyl (Nickel tetracarbonyl)
Nickel cyanide (Nickel [II] cyanide)
Nicotine and salts (Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts)
Nitric oxide (Nitrogen [II] oxide)
p-Nitroaniline (Benzenamine, 4-nitro-)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected Nitrobenzene to read "Nitrobenzene" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
Nitrobenzene (Benzene, nitro-)
Nitrogen dioxide (Nitrogen [IV] oxide)
Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt)
Nitrogen mustard N-oxide and hydrochloride salt (Ethanamine, 2-chloro-, N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-N-oxide, and hydrochloride salt)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Nitroglycerine (1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate)
4-Nitrophenol (Phenol, 4-nitro-)
2-Nitropropane (Propane, 2-nitro)
[Added by 51 FR 6541, February 25, 1986]
4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide (Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide-)
Nitrosamine, N.O.S.*
N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine (1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosodiethanolamine (Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitroaniminol)bis-)
N-Nitrosodiethylamine (Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosodimethylamine (Dimethylnitrosamine)
N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea (Carbamide, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosomethylethylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitroso-N-methylurea (Carbamide, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane (Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester)
N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine (Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosomorpholine (Morpholine, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosonornicotine (Nornicotine, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrosopiperidine (Pyridine, hexahydro-, N-nitroso-)
[Editor's note: EPA August 6, 1986, corrected Nitrosopyrrolidine to read "N-Nitrosopyrrolidine" (51 FR 28297). However, this hazardous constituent was never added to Appendix VIII.]
Nitrosopyrrolidine (Pyrroic, tetrahydro-, N-nitroso-)
N-Nitrososarccyine (Sarcosine, N-nitroso-)
5-Nitro-o-toluidine (Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro-)
Octamethylpyrophosphoramide (Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-)
Osmium tetroxide (Osmium [VIII] oxide)
7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid (Endothal)
Paraldehyde (1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-)
Parathion (Phosphoruthion, acid, O,O-diethyl O-[p-nitrophenyl] ester)
Pentachlorobenzene (Benz- a, pentachloro-)
Pentachlorodibenzo[2-c]dioxins
Pentachlorodibenzofurans
Pentachloroethane (Ethane, pentachloro-)
Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) (Benzene, pentachloronitro-)
Pentachlorophenol (Phenol, pentachloro-)
Percouromethyl mercaptan (Methanesul-enyl chloride, trichloro-)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
Phenacetin (Acetamide, N-[4-ethoxyphenyl-])
Phenol (Benzene, hydroxy-)
Phenylenediamine (Benzenediamine)
Phenylmercury acetate (Mercury, acetatophenyl-)
N-Phenylthiourea (Thiourea, phenyl-)
Phosgene (Carbonyl chloride)
Phosphine (Hydrogen phosphide)
Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-(tethyldio)methyl ester (Phorate)
Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p-(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl ester (Famphur)
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.* (Benzene, 1,2-dicarboxylic acid, esters, N.O.S.*)
Phthalic anhydride (1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid anhydride)
2-Picoline (Pyridine, 2-methyl-)
Polychlorinated biphenyl, N.O.S.*
Potassium cyanide
Potassium silver cyanide (Argentate(1-), dicyano-, potassium)
Pronamide (3,5-Dichloro-N-[1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl]benzamide)
1,3-Propane sultone (1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide)
Propionic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy salts and esters [2,4,5-TP, Silvex, salts and esters])
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
n-Propylamine (1-Propanamine)
Propylthiouracil (2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo-4[H]-pyrimidinone)
[Corrected by 51 FR 28297, August 6, 1986]
2-Propyn-1-ol (Propargyl alcohol)
Pyridine
Reserpine (Yohlmban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-16-[[2,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl]oxy], methyl ester)
Resorcinol (1,3-Benzenediol)
Saccharin and salts (1,2-Benzoisothiazolin-3-one, 1,4-dioxide, and salts)
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no. |
---|---|---|
Acetophenol | ||
Acetophenone | Ethenone, 1-phenyl- | 53-95-8 |
2-Acetoxymethylene | Acetamide, N-(4H-8)-p- | 53-95-3 |
Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothiocymethyl)- | 591-28-2 |
Acrolein | 2-Propanol | 107-52-6 |
Acrylamide | 2-Propanamide | 76-06-1 |
Acrylonitrile | 2-Propanonitrile | 107-13-1 |
Atrazine | Atrazine | 1402-88-2 |
Atrazine | Propane, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methyltetraenoic-carbony-1)oxime | 115-06-3 |
Folic acid | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,16-hexapenteno-1,4,4a,5,6,8a-hexahydro-, 2-amino-4,6-diphenylethyl, 2-amino-4-hydroxy-, | 306-00-2 |
Allyl alcohol | 2-Propan-1-ol | 107-16-6 |
Allyl chloride | 1-Propanol, 3-chloro- | 107-06-1 |
Aluminum propionate | Same | 20859-73-6 |
4-Aminobis(1-enyl) | 1,1-Biphenyl-4-amine | 82-67-1 |
5-Unhomylthio-3-isoxazole | 3(3H)-doxazocine, 3-(aminomethyl)- | 2753-96-4 |
4-Aminopimelate | 4-Pyridoxamine | 604-24-5 |
Ametron | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 |
Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-35-6 |
Arsenic | Benzamidine | 62-53-3 |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-36-0 | |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | Arsenic | 7440-36-2 |
Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid AsN.O. | 7778-39-4 |
Arsenic peroxyde | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1303-26-2 |
Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1327-53-3 |
Auramine | Benzamine, 4,4'-carbonimethylbis(1(3H-dimethyl) | 492-80-6 |
[Appendix VIII revised by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII revises by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII revises by 51 FR 28279. August 6, 1986]
[Appendix VIII: Hazardous Constituents]
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no. |
---|---|---|
Acetophenol | Same | 75-05-8 |
Acetophenone | Ethenone, 1-phenyl- | 56-85-2 |
2-Acetoxymethylene | Acetamide, N-(4H-8)-p- | 53-95-3 |
Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 |
1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothiocymethyl)- | 591-28-2 |
Acrolein | 2-Propanol | 107-52-6 |
Acrylamide | 2-Propanamide | 76-06-1 |
Acrylonitrile | 2-Propanonitrile | 107-13-1 |
Atrazine | Atrazine | 1402-88-2 |
Atrazine | Propane, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-(methyltetraenoic-carbony-1)oxime | 115-06-3 |
Folic acid | 1,4,5,6-Dimethanonephthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,16-hexapenteno-1,4,4a,5,6,8a-hexahydro-, 2-amino-4,6-diphenylethyl, 2-amino-4-hydroxy-, | 306-00-2 |
Allyl alcohol | 2-Propan-1-ol | 107-16-6 |
Allyl chloride | 1-Propanol, 3-chloro- | 107-06-1 |
Aluminum propionate | Same | 20859-73-6 |
4-Aminobis(1-enyl) | 1,1-Biphenyl-4-amine | 82-67-1 |
5-Unhomylthio-3-isoxazole | 3(3H)-doxazocine, 3-(aminomethyl)- | 2753-96-4 |
4-Aminopimelate | 4-Pyridoxamine | 604-24-5 |
Ametron | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 |
Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-35-6 |
Arsenic | Benzamidine | 62-53-3 |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-36-0 | |
Arsenic and compounds, N.O.S. | 7440-37-8 | |
Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid AsN.O. | 7440-36-2 |
Arsenic peroxyde | Arsenic oxide As2O | 7778-39-4 |
Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2O | 1303-26-2 |
Auramine | Benzamine, 4,4'-carbonimethylbis(1(3H-dimethyl) | 1327-53-3 |
Common name | Chemical substance name | Chemical content |
---|---|---|
Azaserine | L-3- trans - diphosphate (dip) | 115-02-7 |
Banum and compounds, N.O.S. | Banum | 7440-39-0 |
Banum cyanide | Same | 542-82-7 |
Benz[a]anthracene | Same | 225-57-4 |
Benz[a]anthracene | Same | 56-50-0 |
Benzo [a]thiobarcene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 86-87-2 |
Benzene | Same | 74-47-2 |
Benzene, trienol, and other | Arsenic and phenyl | 96-05-5 |
Benzene | 11-1-(Benzene)-4,4-diamine | 91-87-1 |
Benzo[a]thiobarcene | Benzo[a]anthracene | 206-59-2 |
Benzo[a]thiobarcene | Same | 205-82-3 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | Same | 50-32-8 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione | 108-01-4 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 86-07-7 |
Benzo[a]pyrene | Benzoate (dichloromethyl) | 100-44-7 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Benzene | 7440-41-7 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Ethane, 1,1-2-(methylenedioxynyl)-2-chlorobenzene | 111-81-1 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Ethane, 1,1-4- trans -2-chlorobenzene | 111-44-4 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Propane, 2,2-pxybis(2-chloro-2,2,2,2,2,2,2)-diethyl ether | 39636-32-9 |
Benzo[a]anthracene | Methane, 2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2,2, |
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts name |
---|---|---|
p-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- | 106-40-7 |
Dichlorobenzene N.O.S. | Benzene, dichloro- | 25321-20-5 |
2,3-Dichlorobenzene | [1,1-Biphenyl]-4,4-diamine, 3,3-dichloro- | 91-84-1 |
1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- | 764-41-2 |
Dichlorodihydrophenone | Methane, dichlorodihloro- | 75-71-8 |
1,2-Dichloranthrene | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- | 75-71-8 |
Dichloroethylene N.O.S. | Dichloroethylene | 25323-30-2 |
1,1-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-35-4 |
2,4-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- | 126-83-2 |
2,6-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- | 87-65-0 |
Dichlorophenolamine | Anionous dichloride, phenyl- | 696-21-6 |
Dichloropropane N.O.S. | Propane, dichloro- | 26638-19-7 |
Dichloropropanol N.O.S. | Propanol, dichloro- | 26345-73-3 |
Dichloropropene N.O.S. | 1-Propanol, dichloro- | 26352-23-8 |
1,3-Dichloropropene | 1-Propanol, 1,3-dichloro- | 540-75-4 |
Dieldrin | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanocaprozin (2,3,6) (corona, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro- | 80-57-1 |
(sabina,2beta,2sabina,3beta,6beta,6sabina,7beta,7saphal)- | ||
1,2,3,4-Diepoxybutane | 2,2'-Benzene | 1454-53-5 |
Dichlorofenol | Anane, diethyl- | 892-42-2 |
1,4-Dichlorobenzene | 1,4-Decane | 123-91-1 |
N,N'-Dethylihydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- | 1615-80-1 |
O,O-Diethyl 5-methylaminophosphate | Phosphorodienoic acid, O,O-diethyl 5-methyl ester | 3286-58-2 |
Diethyl-p-nitro-phenyl phosphate | Phosphoric acid, diethyl-4-nitrophenyl ester | 311-45-5 |
Diethylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, diethyl ester | 84-60-2 |
O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester | 297-97-2 |
Diethylstilbestrol | Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis,(E)- | 56-52-1 |
Dihydrocarban | 1,3-Benzodioxide, 5-propyl- | 84-58-4 |
2,4-Dihydroxy-alpha-(methylamino)methyl benzyl alcohol | (+)-1,1,2-Benzanediol, 4-(1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl)- | 329-65-7 |
Dihydroxyethylenaphosphate (DFP) | Phosphorothioridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester | 55-61-4 |
Dimethoate | Phosphorodihtioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-(2- | 60-51-5 |
3,2'-Dimethoimethoate | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethoxy- | 119-80-4 |
p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | Benzeneamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- | 60-11-7 |
7,12-Dimethobenz(a)anthracene | Benz(a)anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- | 67-97-6 |
3,2'-Dimethylbenzene | [1,1'-Biphenyl]-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl- | 119-83-7 |
Dimethyloctamoyl chloride | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- | 76-44-7 |
1,1-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- | 87-14-7 |
1,2-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- | 845-73-6 |
alpha, alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- | 122-09-8 |
2,4-Dimethylphenol | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- | 105-67-9 |
Dimethylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, dimethyl ester | 131-11-3 |
Dimethyl sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | 77-78-1 |
Dinitrobenzene N.O.S. | Benzene, dinitro- | 25154-54-5 |
4,6-Dinitro-o- cresol and salts | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and salts | 834-52-1 |
2,4-Dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- | 91-28-3 |
2,4-Dinitrohexane | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- | 121-14-2 |
2,6-Dinitro toluene | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- | 806-20-2 |
Dinoseb | Phenol, 3,6-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- | 88-85-7 |
Di-n-octylphthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarborylic acid, dioctyl ester | 117-64-0 |
Diphenylamine | Benzeneamine, N-phenyl- | 122-39-4 |
1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- | 122-66-7 |
Di-nitrophenyl selenite | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- | 821-64-7 |
Deufloron | Phosphorodihtioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester | 298-04-4 |
Dinebulus | Thiamidazocarbonic diamide | 541-53-7 |
Endosulfan | 6,9-Metheno-2,4,3-benzodiazethepen, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-3-oxide | 115-29-7 |
Endothal | 1-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid | 145-73-3 |
Endrin | 2,7,3,6-Dimethanocaprozin (2,3,6) (corona, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro- | 72-20-8 |
Ethyl carbamate (urethane) | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester | 91-75-6 |
Ethyl cyanide | Propylenol | 107-12-6 |
Ethylenediacetibenzoribanic acid, salts and esters | Carbamodihtioic acid, 1,2-ethenediylbis-, salts and esters | 111-84-6 |
Ethylene dibromide | Ethene, 1,2-dibromo- | 108-93-4 |
Ethylene dichloride | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro- | 107-05-2 |
Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- | 110-80-5 |
Ethylenamine | Xylenamine | 151-55-4 |
Ethylene | Osterone | 75-21-6 |
Ethylmethylsulfo | 2-Imidazoledimethione | 95-45-7 |
Ethylidene dichloride | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-24-3 |
Ethyl methacrylate | 2-Propanolic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | 97-63-2 |
Ethylmethane sulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester | 63-30-0 |
Fentanyl | Phosphorothioic acid, 0-[4-(dimethylamino) sulfonyl] phenyl) O,O-dimethyl ester | 22-65-1 |
Fluoranthene | Same | 258-44-0 |
Fluorine | Same | 7792-41-4 |
Fluoroscotamide | Azotamide, 2-fluoro- | 640-19-7 |
Fluoroscotic acid, sodium salt | Azotic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt | 62-74-8 |
Formaldehyde | Same | 50-00-0 |
Fluoropyrrolamide | Ouranocarboxyaldehyde | 795-34-4 |
Heptosulfone N.O.S. | 4,7-Metheno-1H-dodeca, 1,4,5,6,7,8,9-heptachloro-bis,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- | 76-44-6 |
Heptachlor epoxide | 2,5-Metheno-2H-dodeca (1,2b)octano, 2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-b,2b,5,5a,6,8a-hexahydro-alpha, beta and gamma isomers | 1024-57-9 |
Hexachlorobenzene | Benzene, hexachloro- | 119-74-1 |
Hexachlorododecane | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- | 87-69-5 |
Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- | 77-47-4 |
Hexachlorodibenzofurans | Ethane, hexachloro- | 67-72-1 |
Hexachlorosiloxane | Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis(3,4,6-dichloro- | 70-20-4 |
Hexachloropropene | 1-Propanol, hexachloro- | 1885-71-7 |
Hexachlorobenzophenol | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexachlorol ester | 767-68-4 |
Hydrazine | Same | 202-01-2 |
[Appendix VIII]
| Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical texts | | --- | --- | --- | | Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrocyanic acid | 74-90-8 | | Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrochloric acid | 7664-39-3 | | Hydrogen sulfide | Same | 7783-56-4 | | Indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene | Same | 192-39-5 | | Iodo
(e) OMe | Same | 9054-66-4 | | Isobutyl alcohol | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- | 78-83-1 | | Isoprene | 1,4,5,6-D-methanomaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-1-alpha,4alpha,4alpha,5beta,5beta,5alpha,5 | | | Isoprene | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- | 120-56-1 | | Isoprene | 1,3,4-Methoxy-2H-pyrido[o] (octyl)pentyl-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorocyclahydro- | 143-50-6 | | Levodamine | 2-Butanolic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[(2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1-oxobutoxy)methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolam-1-yl ester, [1S-(1st)met(2,7t)3,3P,7eatm] | 303-34-4 | | Lead and compounds, N.O.S. | | 7439-92-1 | | Lead alkaloid | Acetic acid, lead(2-1) salt | 301-04-2 | | Lead propionate | Phosphoric acid, lead(2-1) salt | 7445-27-7 | | Lead subacidate | Lead, bisacidato-O[isox]hydroxyl | 1325-32-6 | | Linalool | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-Hexachloro- | 58-49-5 | | Malonic anhydride | 2,5-Furandione | 108-31-6 | | Maneb hydrazide | 3,5-Pyroclonadione, 1,2-dihydro- | 123-33-1 | | Malononitrite | Propanedonitrite | 109-77-3 | | Melonitrate | 1-Phenyralanine, 4-[(bis(2-chloroethyl)amino)]- | 148-62-3 | | Mercury fumarate | Fumonic acid, mercury(2-1) salt | 625-09-4 | | Mercury and compounds, N.O.S. | Same | 7439-97-6 | | Methacrylonitrile | 2-Propanenitrile, 2-methyl- | 128-96-7 | | Methacrylone | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N-(2-pyridinyl-N-(2-thenylmethyl)- | 91-60-5 | | Methomyl | Acetimidic acid, N-[(methyloxido)oxyl]oxy [thio- methyl ester | 18752-77-5 | | Methoxychlor | Benzene, 1,1'-(2,2,2-tetrahydrofolane)]-4-methoxy- | 78-43-5 | | Methyldenone | Methane, bromo- | 74-83-9 | | Methyl chloride | Methane, chloro- | 74-87-3 | | Methyldenol | Carbonothiologic acid, methyl ester | 79-22-1 | | Methyl chlordane | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- | 71-59-6 | | 3-Methylcholanthrene | Benz[1]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- | 56-49-5 | | 4,4-Methylenedio[2-chlorobenzene] | Benzeneamine, 4,4'-methylenedio[1-chloro- | 101-14-4 | | Methylene bromide | Methane, doro- | 74-99-3 | | Methylsulfo chloride | Methane, dichloro- | 75-09-2 | | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) | 2-Butanone | 75-83-3 | | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide | 2-Butanone, peroxide | 1338-23-4 | | Methyl hydrazine | Hydrazine, methyl- | 85-34-4 | | Methyl iodide | Methane, iodo- | 74-68-4 | | Methyl isocyanate | Methane, isocyanate | 824-63-9 | | 2-Methylisocontine | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- | 75-66-5 | | Methyl methacrylate | 5-Propanolic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester | 60-62-6 | | Methyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester | 66-27-2 | | Methyl parafluor | Phosphorothioic acid, C(O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 296-00-6 | | Methylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyronidino[2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thio[o- | 58-04-2 | | Mcomycin C | Amino[2,3,3,4]pyrro[2,3,4] imidile-4,7-dione, 6-amino-6-[[(aminocarbonyloxy)methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl- [1aR-diezione,8beta,8betaR]tetrahydro-] | 50-07-7 | | Methyl | Guanosine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso- | 70-25-7 | | Mustard gas | Ethane, (-)-thiobis(2-chloro- | 505-60-2 | | Naphthalene | Same | 91-20-3 | | 1,4-Naphthoquinone | 1,4-Naphthalenadione | 130-15-4 | | alpha-Naphthylamine | 1-Naphthalenamine | 134-32-7 | | beta-Naphthylamine | 2-Naphthalenamine | 91-59-6 | | alpha-Naphthylthiourea | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | 86-66-4 | | Nickel and compounds, N.O.S. | Same | 7440-02-0 | | Nickel carbonyl | Nickel carbonyl, (1-4)- | 13453-39-3 | | Nickel cyanide | Same | 557-19-7 | | Nicotine and salts | Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)- and salts | 94-11-6 | | Nitric oxide | Nitrogen oxide, NO | 10102-43-8 | | p-Nitroaniline | Benzeneamine, 4-nitro- | 100-01-6 | | Nitrofurantoin | Benzene, nitro- | 98-88-3 | | Nitrogen dioxide | Nitrogen oxide, NO2 | 10102-44-0 | | Nitrogen mustard and hydrochloride salt | Ethanamine, 2-chloro- N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, and hydrochloride salt | 91-75-2 | | Nitrogen mustard N-oxide and hydrochloride salt | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, N-oxide, and hydrochloride salt | 126-89-2 | | Nitroglycerin | 1,2,5-Propanetriol, trinitrate | 56-63-0 | | p-Pirroophenol | Phenol, 4-nitro- | 100-02-7 | | 2-Nitropropane | Propane, 2-nitro- | 79-46-9 | | 4-Nitroquinoline-1-oxide | Quinoline, 4-nitro-1-oxide | 56-57-5 | | Nitroaniline, N.O.S. | | 35576-91-1 | | N-Nitrosodi-4-butylamine | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso | 924-16-3 | | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine | Ethanol, 2,2'-dinitroanilin- | 1116-54-7 | | N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Ethenamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso | 55-18-5 | | N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Methamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 62-75-8 | | N-Nitroso-N-ethyl urea | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso | 759-75-9 | | N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 10595-95-6 | | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 684-83-6 | | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane | Carbonic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester | 615-53-2 | | N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 4549-45-0 | | N-Nitrosomorpholine | Morpholine, N-nitroso | 58-89-2 | | N-Nitrosomethyloline | Pyridine, 3-(1-nitroso-2-pyrrolidinyl), (3)- | 18543-55-8 | | N-Nitrosopiperidine | Piperidine, 1-nitroso | 100-75-4 | | Nitrosopimorphine | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso | 930-55-2 | | N-Nitrososarcosine | Glycine, N-methyl-N-nitroso | 10259-22-9 | | 5-Nitro-o-bisulene | Benzeneamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- | 88-65-8 | | Octamethylpyrrochlorobenzene | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- | 152-10-3 | | Osmium benzoate | Osmium oxide (OsO2) | 20816-12-0 | | Parafarnes | 1,2,5-Triazene, 2,4,5-trimethyl- | 123-63-7 | | Parafuran | Phosphorothioic acid, C(O-methyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 56-36-2 | | Pentachlorobenzene | Benzene, pentachloro- | 608-93-5 | | Pentachlorodibenzo-o-dioxins | | | | Pentachlorodibenzofurans | | |
[Appendix VIII]
Common name | Chemical substance name | Chemical substance |
---|---|---|
Pentachlorobenzene | Ethene, pentachloro- | 76-01-7 |
Pentachlorobenzene (PCNB) | Benzene, pentachlorobenzene | 82-48-4 |
Pentachlorophenol | Phenol, pentachloro- | 87-86-1 |
Phenacetin | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- | 82-44-2 |
Phenol | Same | 106-85-2 |
Phenylenediamine | Benzenediamine | 25265-76-2 |
Phenylmercury acetate | Mercury, Isostato-Ciphenyl- | 82-38-4 |
Phenylthiourea | Thiourea, phenyl- | 103-80-5 |
Phosphine | Carbonic dichloride | 75-44-5 |
Phosphine | Same | 7803-51-2 |
Phorine | Phosphorodithioic acid, 0,0-diethyl 5-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester | 298-02-2 |
Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S. | ||
Phthalic anhydride | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione | 85-44-8 |
2-Picotine | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | 109-06-8 |
Polychlorinated biphenyls, N.O.S. | ||
Potassium cyanide | Same | 151-50-8 |
Potassium silver cyanide | Argentate (1), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium | 308-61-6 |
Pheneroate | Benzamide, 2,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- | 23950-58-5 |
1,3-Propanesulfone | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide | 1120-71-4 |
2-Propyramine | 1-Propanamine | 107-10-8 |
Propyl alcohol | 2-Propyl-1-ol | 107-19-7 |
Propylene dichloride | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- | 78-87-5 |
1,2-Propylenimine | Azindine, 2-methyl- | 75-55-8 |
Propylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo | 51-52-5 |
Pyridine | Same | 110-86-1 |
Reserpine | Yohimbim-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethylpy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy], methyl ester | 50-50-5 |
Reserpine | 1,3-Benzanediol | 108-48-3 |
Saccharin and salts | 1,2-Benzacitracyl-3(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide and salts | 81-07-2 |
Saffrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl) | 94-59-7 |
Selenium dioxide | Selenium | 7782-00-2 |
Selenium and compounds, N.O.S. | Selenium | 7762-49-2 |
Selenium sulfate | Same | 7445-34-8 |
Selenoones | Same | 830-10-4 |
Silver and compounds, N.O.S. | Silver | 7440-22-4 |
Silver cyanide | Same | 506-64-9 |
Silver (2,4,5-TP) | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-72-1 |
Sodium cyanide | Same | 143-33-8 |
Streptozotocin | D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3-nitrosourea)py | 18883-66-4 |
Strontium sulfide | Same | 1314-96-1 |
Strontium and salts | Strontium-10-one and salts | 57-24-8 |
TCDD | Dipenzyl (o.a.) (1,4)dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro- | 1745-01-6 |
1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- | 95-84-3 |
Tetrachlorodipenzo-p-dioxins | ||
Tetrachlorodipenzolurans | ||
Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S. | Ethene, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. | 25322-20-7 |
1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- | 830-20-6 |
1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- | 79-34-5 |
Tetrachloroethylene | Ethene, tetrachloro- | 127-19-4 |
2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- | 58-90-2 |
Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 3669-24-5 |
Tetraethyl lead | Fluoribenz, tetraethyl- | 78-00-2 |
Tetraethylpyrophosphate | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 107-48-3 |
Tetrachloroethylene | Methane, tetranitro- | 509-14-8 |
Thallium and compounds, N.O.S. | Thallium | 7440-38-0 |
Thallium oxide | Thallium (III) oxide | 1314-32-5 |
Thallium (I) acetate | Acetic acid, thallium (1+) salt | 565-68-8 |
Thallium (II carbonate) | Carbonic acid, dithallium (1+) salt | 8533-73-9 |
Thallium (I) chloride | Thallium chloride | 7791-12-0 |
Thallium (I) nitrate | Nitric acid, thallium (1+) salt | 10102-45-1 |
Thallium selenite | Thallium selenide | 12039-52-0 |
Thallium (II sulfate) | Sulfuric acid, thallium salt | 12031-59-1 |
Thioacetamide | Ethylmethoxamide | 82-55-5 |
Thiofuran | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-D-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime | 29190-18-4 |
Thiamethanol | Methane:thiol | 74-93-1 |
Thiophenol | Benzene:thiol | 106-98-5 |
Thioxamiconazole | Hydroximercaricothioamide | 79-19-6 |
Thiourea | Same | 62-58-8 |
Thirum | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, Tetramethyl- | 137-26-6 |
Toluene | Benzene, methyl- | 108-99-7 |
Toluenediamine | Benzenediamine, α-methyl- | 25376-45-8 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, α-methyl- | 95-90-7 |
2,6-Toluenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-methyl- | 823-40-5 |
2,4-Toluenediamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 496-72-0 |
Toluene diisocyanide | Benzene, 2,4-diisocyanido-1-methyl- | 584-84-9 |
α-Toluidine | Benzene:α, α-methyl- | 106-49-0 |
α-Toluidine hydrochloride | Benzene:α, α-methyl-, hydrochloride | 838-21-0 |
Thiophene | Same | 8001-35-2 |
1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- | 120-82-1 |
1,1,2-Trichloroethane | Ethene, 1,1,2-trichloro- | 79-00-5 |
Trichloroethylene | Ethene, trichloro- | 76-01-6 |
Trichloromethanethiol | Methane:thiol, trichloro- | 75-70-7 |
Trichloromonofluoromethane | Methane, trichlorofluoromethane | 75-69-4 |
2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- | 86-55-4 |
2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- | 88-06-2 |
2,4,5-T | Acetic acid, (2,4,6-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-76-5 |
Trichloropropene, N.O.S. | ||
1,2,3-Trichloropropene | Propene, 1,2,3-trichloro- | 98-18-4 |
0,0,0,1-tethiophosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, 0,0,0-methyl ester | 126-68-1 |
α,1,2,4,5,6-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,5-trichloro- | 99-20-4 |
Tri-2,3-dibromopropylphosphate | Azindine, 1,1',1''-phosphorothiophosphate | 52-24-4 |
Tri-2,3-dibromopropylphosphate | 1-Propanol, 2, 3-dibromo-, phosphate (9:1) | 126-72-7 |
APPENDIX VIII.—HAZARDOUS CONSTITUENTS—Continued
Common name | Chemical abstracts name | Chemical abstracts no |
---|---|---|
Trojan blue | 2,7-Asp(2,4-Bis(2,4,4'-diphenyl)-4,4'-diphenyl)-2,4,3,3,3,3-dimethyl-2,4,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3,3, |
ANEJO C-4 Appendix IX Wastes Excluded Under Sections 260.20 and 260.22
[Appendix IX added by 49 FR 37070, September 21, 1984]
Facility | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Arco Chemical | Miami, FL | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after April 29, 1986. |
Chamber | ||
San | ||
Feather | Hot Springs, AR | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after July 18, 1986. |
Feather | ||
Site, Inc. | ||
Capitol | Harrisburg, PA | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) generated from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum after September 12, 1985. |
Piccucito | ||
Corp. | ||
Cincinnati | Cincinnati, OH | Glued bottom ash sludge (approximately 25,000 cubic yards) contained in the South Lagoon on September 13, 1984, which contains EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F001, F002, F003, F004, and F005. |
Cinninnati | ||
Metropolitan | ||
Sewer District | ||
Cinninnati | ||
Cen Co. | ||
Dover | ||
Dover Corp. | ||
Norris Div. | ||
Cen Co. | ||
Dynas, OK | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
EPA's Mobile | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Inc. | ||
Table | I amended by 50 FR 30274. July 25, 1985: 20 FR 34692. August 27, 1985: 50 FR 37370. September 13, 1985: 50 FR 48910. November 27, 1985: 51 FR 1254. January 10, 1986: 51 FR 15889. April 29, 1986: 51 FR 25701. July 16, 1986: 51 FR 25891. July 17, 1986: corrected by 51 FR 27038. July 29, 1986: amended by 51 FR 32460. September 12, 1986 |
---|
Table 2.-Wastes Excluded From Specific Sources
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Amoco Oil Company | Wood River, IL |
(a) Wastes excluded from non-specific sources
150 million gallons of DAF float from petroleum refining contained in four surge ponds after treatment with the Chemitis stabilization process. This exclusion applies to the 150 million gallons of waste after chemical stabilization as long as the mixing ratios of the reagent with the waste are monitored continuously and do not vary outside of the limits presented in the demonstration samples; one grab sample is taken each hour from each treatment unit, composited, and EP toxicity tests performed on each sample. If the levels of lead or total chromium exceed 0.5 ppm in the EP extract, then the waste that was processed during the compositing period is considered hazardous; the treatment residue shall be pumped into bermed cells to ensure that the waste is identifiable in the event that removal is necessary. |
| LPC Chem. cal. | Ormington, MI | Brine purification muds and wastewater treatment sludges generated after August 27, 1985 from their chloralkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. K071 and K106) that have been batch tested for mercury using the EPA toxicity procedures and have been found to contain less than 0.05 ppm mercury in the EP extract. Brine purification muds and wastewater treatment sludges that exceed this level will be considered a hazardous waste. |
| Meal Corp. | Peekskill, NY | Wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. K006 and K007) generated from the production of chrome oxide green and iron blue pigments after November 27, 1985. |
Table 2 -Wastes Excluded From Specific Sources -Contd.
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
Slaufer Chemica Co | Avis, AL | Brine purification muds generated from their chloralkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K078) and disposed of in brine mud pond HATF, 5 EP-201 |
Stauffer Chemical CL | St. Gabriel, LA | Brine purification muds, which have been washed and vacuum filtered, generated after August 27, 1985 from their chlor-alkali manufacturing operations (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K071) that have been batch tested for mercury using the EP toxicity procedure and have been found to contain less than 0.05 ppm in mercury in the EP extract. Brine purification muds that exceed this level will be considered a hazardous waste |
[Table 2 added by 50 FR 34692. August 27, 1985; amended by 50 FR 37370. September 13, 1985: 50 FR 48910. November 27, 1985: corrected by 51 FR 27038. July 29, 1986] Table 3-Wastes Excluded From Commercial Chemical Products. Off-Specification Species. Container Residues, and Soil Residues Thereof
Facing | Address | Waste description |
---|---|---|
- Union Carbide Corp. | Taft, LA | Contaminated soil (approximately 11,000 cubic yards), which contains sorption in concentrations of less than 9 ppm |
ANEJO C-5 Appendix X Methods of Analysis for Chlorinated Dibenzo-p-Diocins and Dibenzofurans ${ }^{1} 234$
[Appendix X added by 50 FR 1999, January 14, 1985]
This method is appropriate for the analysis of tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans.
Analytical protocol for determination of TCDDs in phenolic chemical wastes and soil samples obtained from the proximity of chemical dumps. T.O. Tiernan and M. Taylor, Brelon Laboratory, Wright State University, Dayton, OH 45435.
Analytical protocol for determination of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in river water. T.O. Tiernan and M. Taylor, Brelon Laboratory, Wright State University, Dayton, OH 45435.
In general, the techniques that should be used to handle these materials are those which are followed for radioactive or infectious laboratory materials. Assistance in evaluating laboratory practices may be obtained from industrial hygienists and persons specializing in safe laboratory practices. Typical infections waste incinerators are probably not satisfactory devices for disposal of materials highly contaminated with CDDs or CDFs. Safety instructions are outlined in EPA Test Method #184.01.
See also: 1) "Program for monitoring potential contamination in the laboratory following the handling and analysis of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and dibenzofurans" by F.D. Hilleman, et al., In: Human and Environmental Risks of Chlorinated Dioxins and Related Compounds.
1.1 This method measures the concentration of chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in chemical wastes including still bottoms, filter aids, sludges, spent carbon, and reactor residues, and in soils.
1.2 The sensitivity of this method is dependent upon the level of interferences.
1.3 This method is recommended for use only by analysts experienced with residue analysis and skilled in mass spectral analytical techniques.
1.4 Because of the extreme toxicity of these compounds, the analyst must take necessary precautions to prevent exposure to himself, or to others, of materials known or believed to contain CDDs or CDFs.
2.1 This method is an analytical extraction cleanup procedure, and capillary column gas chromatograph-low resolution mass spectrometry method, using capillary column GC/MS conditions and internal standard techniques, which allow for the measurement of PCDDs and PCDFs in the extract.
2.2 If interferences are encountered, the method provides selected general purpose cleanup procedures to aid the analyst in their elimination.
3.1 Solvents, reagents, glassware, and other sample processing hardware may yield discrete artifacts and/or elevated baselines causing misinterpretation of gas chromatograms. All of these materials must be demonstrated to be free from interferences under the conditions of the analysis by running method blanks. Specific selection of reagents and purification of solvents by distillation in all-glass systems may be required.
3.2 Interferences co-extracted from the samples will vary considerably from source to source, depending upon the diversity of the industry being sampled. PCDD is often associated with other interfering chlorinated compounds such as PCB's which may be at concentrations several orders of magnitude higher than that of PCDD. While general cleanup techniques are provided as part of this method, unique samples may require additional cleanup approaches to achieve the sensitivity stated in Table 1.
3.3 The other isomers of tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin may interfere with the measurement of 2,3,7,8-TCDD. Capillary column gas chromatography is required to resolve those isomers that yield virtually identical mass fragmentation patterns.
4.1 Sampling equipment for discrete or composite sampling.
4.1.1 Grab sample bottle—amber glass, 1-liter or 1-quart volume. French or Boston Round design is recommended. The container must be washed and solvent rinsed before use to minimize interferences.
4.1.2 Bottle caps—threaded to screw on to the sample bottles. Caps must be lined with Teflon. Solvent washed foil, used with the shiny side towards the sample, may be substituted for the Teflon if sample is not corrosive.
4.1.3 Composting equipment—automatic or manual composing system. No tygon or rubber tubing may be used, and the system must incorporate glass sample containers for the collection of a minimum of 250 ml. Sample containers must be kept refrigerated after sampling.
R.E. Tucker, et al., eds., Plenum Publishing Corp., 1985. 2) Safety procedures outlined in EPA Method 815, Federal Register volume 44, No. 250, December 5, 1979.
[Appendix X]
4.2 Water bath - heated with concentrated, non-condensate, and a temperature of 2°C. The bath should be used in a hood.
4.3 Gas chromatography/mass spectrometer data system.
4.3.1 Gas chromatograph. An analytical system with a temperature-programmable gas chromatograph and all required accessories including syringes, analytical columns, and gases.
4.3.2 Column: SP-2230 coated on a 30 m long x 0.25 mm I.D. glass column (Supelco No. 2-3714 or equivalent). Glass capillary column conditions: Helium carrier gas at 30 cm/sec; linear velocity run splitless; Column temperature is 210°C.
4.3.3 Mass spectrometer: Capable of scanning from 35 to 450 amu every 1 sec or less, utilizing 70 volts (nominal) electron energy in the electron impact ionization mode and producing a mass spectrum which meets all the criteria in Table 2 when 50 ng of decafluorotriphenyl-phosphine (DFTPP) is injected through the GC inlet. The system must also be capable of selecting ion monitoring (SIM) for at least 4 ions simultaneously, with a cycle time of 1 sec or less. Minimum integration time for SIM is 100 ms. Selected ion monitoring is verified by injecting 815 ng of TCDD (2.5% to give a minimum signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1 at mass 328).
4.3.4 GC/MS interface: Any GC-to-MS interface that gives acceptable calibration points at 50 ng per injection for each compound of interest and achieves acceptable tuning performance criteria (see Sections 6.1-6.3) may be used. GC-to-MS interfaces constructed of all glass or glass-lined materials are recommended. Glass can be deactivated by stianizing with dichlorodimethylsilane. The interface must be capable of transporting at least 10 ng of the components of interest from the GC to the MS.
4.3.5 Data system: A computer system must be interfaced to the mass spectrometer. The system must allow the continuous acquisition and storage on machine-readable media of all mass spectra obtained throughout the duration of the chromatographic program. The computer must have software that can search any GC/MS data file for ions of a specific mass and that can plot such ion abundances versus time or scan number. This type of plot is defined as an Extracted Ion Current Profile (EICP). Software must also be able to integrate the abundance, in any EICP, between specified time or scan number limits.
4.4 Pipettes-Disposable. Pasteur, 150 mm long x 5 mm ID (Fisher Scientific Co. No. 13-678-6A or equivalent).
4.5 Flint glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap).
4.6 Reach-vial (silanized) (Pierce Chemical Co.).
5.1 Potassium hydroxide-(ACS), 2% in distilled water.
5.2 Sulfuric acid-(ACS), concentrated.
5.3 Methylene chloride, hexane, benzene, petroleum ether, methanol, tetradecane-pesticide quality or equivalent.
5.4 Prepare stock standard solutions of TCDD and 2,3-TCDD (molecular weight 328) in a glovebox. The stock solutions are stored in a glovebox, and checked frequently for signs of degradation or evaporation, especially just prior to the preparation of working standards.
5.5 Alumina-basic. Woolin: 60/200 mesh. Before use, activate overnight at 600°C, cool to room temperature in a desiccator.
5.6 Prepurified nitrogen gas.
6.0 Calibration
6.1 Before using any cleanup procedure, the analyst must process a series of calibration standards through the procedure to validate elution patterns and the absence of interferences from reagents.
6.2 Prepare GC/MS calibration standards for the internal standard technique that will allow for measurement of relative response factors of at least three CDD+ CDD ratios. Thus, for TCDDs, at least three TCDD+ Cl-TCDD and TCDF+ Cl-TCDF must be determined. The Cl-TCDD/F concentration in the standard should be fixed and selected to yield a reproducible response at the most sensitive setting of the mass spectrometer. Response factors for PCDD and HxCDD may be determined by measuring the response of the tetrachlorodimethylsilane compounds relative to that of the unlabelled 1,2,3,4- or 2,3,7,8-TCDD 1,2,3,4,7-PCDD or 1,2,3,4,7,8-HxCDD, which are commercially available.
6.3 Assemble the necessary GC/MS apparatus and establish operating parameters equivalent to those indicated in Section 11.1 of this method. Calibrate the GC/MS system according to Eichelberger et al. (1975) by the use of decafluorotriphenyl-phosphine (DFTPP). By injecting calibration standards, establish the response factors for CDDs vs. 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 1,2,3,4,7-CDFS vs. 2,3,7,8-TCDF. The detection limit provided in Table 1 should be verified by injecting 0.015 ng of 2,3,7,8-TCDD which should give a minimum signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1 at mass 328.
7.1 Before processing any samples, the analyst should demonstrate through the analysis of a distilled water method blank that all glassware and reagents are interference-free. Each time a set of samples is extracted, or there is a change in reagents, a method blank should be processed as a safeguard against laboratory contamination.
7.2 Standard quality assurance practices must be used with this method. Field replicates must be collected to measure the precision of the sampling technique. Laboratory replicates must be analyzed to establish the precision of the analysis. Fortified samples must be analyzed to establish the accuracy of the analysis.
8.1 Grab and composite samples must be collected in glass containers. Conventional sampling practices should be followed, except that the bottle must not be prewashed with sample before collection. Composite samples should be collected in glass containers in accordance with the requirements of the RCRA program. Sampling equipment must be free of rayon and other potential sources of contamination.
*Cishettol: 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 2,3,7,8-TCDF are available from X.O.S. Isotopes, and Cambridge Isotopes, Inc., Cambridge, MA. Proper standardization requires the use of a specific labelled isomer for each congener to be determined. However, the only labelled isomers readily available are 2,3,7,8-TCDD and 2,3,7,8-TCDF. This method therefore uses these isomers as surrogates for the CDDs and CDFs. When other labelled CDDs and CDFs are available, their use will be required.
8.2 The samples must be used or refrigerated from the time of collection, until extraction. Chemical preservatives should not be used in the field unless more than 24 hours will elapse before delivery to the laboratory. If an aqueous sample is taken and the sample will not be extracted within 48 hours of collection, the sample should be adjusted to a pH range of 6.0-8.0 with sodium hydroxide or sulfuric acid.
8.3 All samples must be extracted within 7 days and completely analyzed within 30 days of collection.
9.1 Use an aliquot of 1-10 g sample of the chemical waste or soil to be analyzed. Soils should be dried using a stream of prepurified nitrogen and pulverized in a ball-mill or similar device. Perform this operation in a clean area with proper hood space. Transfer the sample to a tared 125 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap) and determine the weight of the sample. Add an appropriate quantity of Cl-labelled 2,3,7,8-TCDD (adjust the quantity according to the required minimum detectable concentration), which is employed as an internal standard.
9.2 Extraction
9.2.1 Extract chemical waste samples by adding 10 ml methanol, 40 ml petroleum ether, 50 ml doubly distilled water, and then shaking the mixture for 2 minutes. Tars should be completely dissolved in any of the recommended neat solvents. Activated carbon samples must be extracted with benzene using methanol 3540 in SW-846 (Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste-Physical/Chemical Methods, available from G.P.O. Stock #055-022-81001-2). Quantitatively transfer the organic extract or dissolved sample to a clean 250 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap), add 50 ml doubly distilled water and shake for 2 minutes. Discard the aqueous layer and proceed with Step 9.3.
9.2.2 Extract soil samples by adding 40 ml of petroleum ether to the sample, and then shaking for 20 minutes. Quantitatively transfer the organic extract to a clean 250 ml film glass bottle (Teflon-lined screw cap), add 50 ml doubly distilled water and shake for 2 minutes. Discard the aqueous layer and proceed with Step 9.3.
9.3 Wash the organic layer with 50 ml of 20% aqueous potassium hydroxide by shaking for 10 minutes and then remove and discard the aqueous layer.
9.4 Wash the organic layer with 50 ml of doubly distilled water by shaking for 2 minutes, and discard the aqueous layer.
9.5 Cautiously add 50 ml concentrated sulfuric acid and shake for 10 minutes. Allow the mixture to stand until layers separate (approximately 10 minutes), and remove and discard the acid layer. Repeat acid washing until no color is visible in the acid layer.
9.6 Add 50 ml of doubly distilled water to the organic extract and shake for 2 minutes. Remove and discard the aqueous layer and dry the organic layer by adding 10g of anhydrous sodium sulfate.
9.7 Concentrate the extract to incipient dryness by heating in a 55°C water bath and simultaneously flowing a stream of prepurified nitrogen over the extract. Quantitatively transfer the residue to an alumina microcolumn fabricated as follows:
[Appendix X]
9.7.1 Cut off the top section of a 10 ml disposable Pyrex pipette at the 4.0 ml mark and insert a plug of silanized glass wool into the tip of the lower portion of the pipette.
9.7.2 Add 2.5g of Woelm basic alumina (previously activated at 600°C overnight and then cooled to room temperature in a desiccator just prior to use).
9.7.3 Transfer sample extract with a small volume of methylene chloride.
9.8 Elute the microcolumn with 10 ml of 3% methylene chloride-in-hexane followed by 15 ml of 20% methylene chloride-in-hexane and discard these effluents. Elute the column with 15 ml of 50% methylene chloride-in-hexane and concentrate this effluent (55°C water bath, stream of prepurified nitrogen) to about 0.5-0.5 ml.
9.9 Quantitatively transfer the residue (using methylene chloride to rinse the container) to a silanized Reacti-Vial (Pierce Chemical Co.). Evaporate, using a stream of prepurified nitrogen, almost to dryness, rinse the walls of the vessel with approximately 0.5 ml methylene chloride, evaporate just to dryness, and tightly cap the vial. Store the vial at 5°C until analysis, at which time the sample is reconstituted by the addition of tridecane.
9.10 Approximately 1 hour before GC-MS (HPLC-LRMS) analysis, dilute the residue in the micro-reaction vessel with an appropriate quantity of tridecane. Gently swirl the tridecane on the lower portion of the vessel to ensure dissolution of the CDDs and CDFs. Analyze a sample by GC/EC to provide insight into the complexity of the problem and to determine the manner in which the mass spectrometer should be used. Inject an appropriate aliquot of the sample into the GC-MS instrument, using a syringe.
9.11 If, upon preliminary GC-MS analysis, the sample appears to contain interfering substances which obscure the analyses for CDDs and CDFs, high performance liquid chromatographic (HPLC) cleanup of the extract is accomplished, prior to further GC-MS analysis.
10.1 Place approximately 2 ml of hexane in a 50 ml film glass sample bottle fitted with a Teflon-lined cap.
10.2 At the appropriate retention time, position sample bottle to collect the required fraction.
10.3 Add 2 ml of 2% (w/v) sodium carbonate to the sample fraction collected and shake for one minute.
10.4 Quantitatively remove the hexane layer (top layer) and transfer to a micro-reaction vessel.
10.5 Concentrate the fraction to dryness and retain for further analysis.
11.1 The following column conditions are recommended: Glass capillary column conditions: SP-2250 coated on a 30 m long x 0.25 mm I.D. glass column (Supelco No. 2-3714, or equivalent) with helium carrier gas at 30 cm/sec linear velocity; run splitless. Column temperature is 210°C. Under these conditions the retention time for TCDDs is about 9.5 minutes. Calibrate the system daily with a minimum three injections of standard mixtures.
11.2 Calculate response factors for standards relative to $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F (see Section 12).
11.3 Analyze samples with selected ion monitoring of at least two ions from Table 3. Proof of the presence of CDD or CDF exists if the following conditions are met:
11.3.1 The retention time of the peak in the sample must match that in the standard within the performance specifications of the analytical system.
11.3.2 The ratio of ions must agree within 10% with that of the standard.
11.3.3 The retention time of the peak maximum for the ions of interest must exactly match that of the peak.
11.4 Quantitate the CDD and CDF peaks from the response relative to the $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F internal standards. Recovery of the internal standard should be greater than 50 percent.
11.5 If a response is obtained for the appropriate set of ions, but is outside the expected ratio, a co-eluting impurity may be suspected. In this case, another set of ions characteristic of the CDD/CDF molecules should be analyzed. For TCDD a good choice of ions is m/e 257 and m/e 259. For TCDF a good choice of ions is m/e 241 and 243. These ions are useful in characterizing the molecular structure of TCDD or TCDF. For analysis of TCDD good analytical technique would require using all four ions, m/e 257, 320, 322, and 328, to verify detection and signal to noise ratio of 5 to 1. Suspected impurities such as DDE, DDD, or PCB residues can be confirmed by checking for their major fragments. These materials can be removed by the cleanup columns. Failure to meet criteria should be explained in the report, or the sample reanalyzed.
11.6 If broad background interference restricts the sensitivity of the GC/MS analysis, the analyst should employ cleanup procedures and reanalyze by GC/MS. See section 10.0.
11.7 In those circumstances where these procedures do not yield a definitive conclusion, the use of high resolution mass spectrometry is suggested.
12.1 Determine the concentration of individual compounds according to the formula:
$$ ext{Concentration, μg/g·cm}^3 = \frac{A imes A_0}{G imes A_0 imes B} $$
where:
$$ A = ext{μg of internal standard added to the sample} $$
$$ G = ext{g of sample extracted} $$
$$ A_0 = ext{area of characteristic ion of the compound being quantified} $$
$$ A_0 = ext{area of characteristic ion of the internal standard} $$
$$ B_0 = ext{response factor} $$
Response factors are calculated using data obtained from the analysis of standards according to the formula:
$$ Rf = \frac{A_0 imes C_0}{A_0 imes C_0} $$
where:
$$ C_0 = ext{concentration of the internal standard} $$
$$ C_0 = ext{concentration of the standard compound} $12.2 Report results in micrograms per gram without correction for recovery data. When duplicate and spiked samples are analyzed, all data obtained should be reported.
12.3 Accuracy and Precision. No data are available at this time.
Column | Return (mm) | Detection limit (mm) | Detection limit (μg/kg) |
---|---|---|---|
Glass capillary | 0.5 | 0.003 |
Mass | Ion abundance criteria |
---|---|
51 | 70-80% of mass 166 |
62 | Less than 2% of mass 60 |
70 | Less than 2% of mass 69 |
127 | 40-60% of mass 166 |
197 | Less than 1% of mass 198 |
198 | Same peak, 100% relative abundance |
199 | 5-8% of mass 196 |
275 | 10-30% of mass 196 |
305 | Greater than 1% of mass 198 |
441 | Present but less than mass 443 |
442 | Greater than 40% of mass 198 |
443 | 17-20% of mass 442 |
J. W. Eichstetter, L.E. Harris, and W.L. Budde, 1975. Reference compounds to columns on abundance measurements in gas chromatography-mass spectrometry. Analytical Chemistry 47:995.
The proper amount of standard to be used is determined from the calibration curve (See Section 6.8).
If standards for PCDDs/Fs and HxCDDs/Fs are not available, response factors for ions derived from these congeners are calculated relative to $$^{13}C$$-TCDD/F. The analyst may use response factors for 1,2,3,4- or 2,3,7,8-TCDD, 1,2,3,4,7-PeCDD, or 1,2,3,4,7,8-HxCDD for quantitation of TCDDs/Fs. PeCDDs/Fs and HxCDDs/Fs, respectively, implicit in this requirement is the assumption that the same response is obtained from PCDDs/Fs maintaining the same numbers of chlorine atoms.
[Appendix X]
TABLE 3.—LIST OF ACCURATE MASSES MONITORED USING GC SELECTED-ION MONITORING, LOW RESOLUTION, MASS SPECTROMETRY FOR SIMULTANEOUS DETERMINATION OF TETRA-, PENTA-, AND HEXACHLORINATED DIBENZO-β-DIOXINS AND DIBENZOFURANS
| Class of chlorinated dibenzodioxin or dibenzofuran | Number of specific activity forms
(a) | Monitored m/z for dibenzofurans C₁₁₄₄₀O₂₄ | Monitored m/z for dibenzofurans C₁₁₄₄₀O₂₄ | Approx. mass assumed or assumed on basis of epidemic alternatives | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Tetra | 4 | 1 316.657 221.894 1 327.865 1 256.033 1 256.630 | 1 300.902 305.903 1 311.894 1 311.894 | 0.74 1.00 0.21 0.20 | | Pental | 5 | 1 353.858 355.855 380.816 381.813 gm | 1 387.863 328.860 373.821 375.818 | 0.57 1.00 1.00 0.97 |
ANEJO C-6 40 CFR Parte 122 National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
(40 CFR 122; 45 FR 33418, May 19, 1980, Effective July 18, 1980; Amended as shown in Volume 40, Code of Federal Regulations, Revised as of July 1, 1981; Amended by 46 FR 35091, 35249, July 7, 1981; 46 FR 36703, July 15, 1981; 46 FR 43160, August 27, 1981; 46 FR 55113, November 6, 1981; 47 FR 4996, February 3, 1982; 47 FR 8306, February 25, 1982; 47 FR 15306, April 8, 1982; 47 FR 24920, June 8, 1982; 47 FR 27533, June 24, 1982; 47 FR 32129, 32369, July 26, 1982, Effective January 23, 1982; 47 FR 41563, September 21, 1982; 48 FR 2511, January 19, 1983; 48 FR 2939, January 21, 1983; 48 FR 3981, January 28, 1983; Revised by 48 FR 14153, April 1, 1983; Amended by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; 49 FR 25981, June 25, 1984; 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984; 49 FR 37009, September 20, 1984; 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984; 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985; Corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985; 50 FR 7912, February 27, 1985; 50 FR 35203, August 29, 1985; 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986)
[Editor's note: The modified information requirements contained in §§122.29(c)(5), 122.41(l)(1), 122.42(a), 122.45(b), and 122.62(a), have not been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and they are not effective until OMB has approved them.
Form 2c is published at the end of Part 125.]
Sec.
7-11-86
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
179
(a) Coverage. (1) These regulations contain provisions for the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) Program under sections 318, 402, and 405(a) of the Clean Water Act (CWA) (Pub. L. 92-500, as amended by Pub. L. 95-217, Pub. L. 95-576, Pub. L. 96-483, and Pub. L. 97-117; 33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.).
(2) These regulations cover basic EPA permitting requirements (Part 122), what a State must do to obtain approval to operate its program in lieu of a Federal program and minimum requirements for administering the approved State program (Part 123), and procedures for EPA processing of permit applications and appeals (Part 124). Part 124 is also applicable to other EPA permitting programs, as detailed in that Part.
(b) Scope of the NPDES permit requirement. (1) The NPDES program requires permits for the discharge of "pollutants" from any "point source" into "waters of the United States." The terms "pollutant," "point source," and "waters of the United States" are defined in § 122.2.
(2) The following are point sources requiring NPDES permits for discharges:
(i) Concentrated animal feeding operations as defined in § 122.23;
(ii) Concentrated aquatic animal production facilities as defined in § 122.24;
(iii) Discharges into aquaculture projects as set forth in § 122.25;
(iv) Discharges from separate storm sewers as set forth in § 122.26; and
(v) Silvicultural point sources as defined in § 122.27.
(c) State programs. Certain requirements set forth in Parts 122 and 124 are made applicable to approved State programs by reference in Part 123. These references are set forth in § 122.25. If a section or paragraph of Parts 122 or 124 is applicable to States, through reference in § 123.25, that fact is signaled by the following words at the end of the section or paragraph heading: (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25). If these words are absent, the section (or paragraph) applies only to EPA administered permits.
(d) Relation to other requirements. (1) Permit application forms. Applicants for EPA issued permits must submit their applications on EPA permit application forms when available. Most of the information requested on these application forms is required by these regulations. The basic information required in the general form (Form 1) and the additional information required for NPDES applications (Forms 2a-d) are listed in § 122.21. Applicants for State issued permits must use State forms which must require at a minimum the information listed in these sections.
(2) Technical regulations. The NPDES permit program has separate additional regulations that contain technical requirements. These separate regulations are used by permit issuing authorities to determine what requirements must be placed in permits if they are issued. These separate regulations are located at 40 CFR Parts 125, 129, 133, 136, and 40 CFR Subchapter N (Parts 400-460).
(e) Public participation. This rule establishes the requirements for public participation in EPA and State permit issuance and enforcement and related variance proceedings, and in the approval of State NPDES programs. These requirements carry out the purposes of the public participation requirements of 40 CFR Part 25 (Public Participation), and supersede the requirements of that Part as they apply to actions covered under Parts 122, 123, and 124.
(f) State authorities. Nothing in Parts 122, 123, or 124 precludes more stringent State regulation of any activity covered by these regulations, whether or not under an approved State program.
(g) Authority. (1) Section 301(a) of CWA provides that "Except as in compliance with this section and sections 302, 306, 307, 318, 402, and 404 of this Act, the discharge of any pollutant by any person shall be unlawful."
(2) Section 402(a)(1) of CWA provides in part that "The Administrator may, after opportunity for public hearing, issue a permit for the discharge of any pollutant, or combination of pollutants, upon condition that such discharge will meet either all applicable requirements under sections 301, 302, 306, 307, 308, and 403 of this Act, or prior to the taking of necessary implementing actions relating to all such requirements, such conditions as the Administrator determines are necessary to carry out the provisions of this Act."
(3) Section 318(a) of CWA provides that "The Administrator is authorized, after public hearings, to permit the discharge of a specific pollutant or pollutants under controlled conditions associated with an approved aquaculture project under Federal or State supervision pursuant to section 402 of this Act."
(4) Section 405 of CWA provides, in part, that "Where the disposal of sewage sludge resulting from the operation of a treatment works as defined in section 212 of this Act (including the removal of in-place sewage sludge from one location and its deposit at another location) would result in any pollutant from such sewage sludge entering the navigable waters, such disposal is prohibited except in accordance with a permit issued by the Administrator under section 402 of this Act."
(5) Sections 402(b), 318(b), and
(c) , and 405(c) of CWA authorize EPA approval of State permit programs for discharges from point sources, discharges to aquaculture projects, and disposal of sewage sludge.
(6) Section 304(i) of CWA provides that the Administrator shall promulgate guidelines establishing uniform application forms and other minimum requirements for the acquisition of information from dischargers in approved States and establishing minimum procedural and other elements of approved State NPDES programs.
(7) Section 501(a) of CWA provides that "The Administrator is authorized to prescribe such regulations as are necessary to carry out his functions under this Act."
(8) Section 101(e) of CWA provides that "Public participation in the development, revision, and enforcement of any regulation, standard, effluent limitation, plan, or program established by the Administrator or any State under this Act shall be provided for, encouraged, and assisted by the Administrator and the States. The Administrator, in cooperation with the States, shall develop and publish regulations specifying minimum guidelines for public participation in such processes."
The following definitions apply to Parts 122, 123, and 124. Terms not defined in this section have the meaning given by CWA. When a defined term appears in a definition, the defined term is sometimes placed in quotation marks as an aid to readers.
[Sec. 122.2]
Administrator means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, or an authorized representative.
Applicable standards and limitations means all State, interstate, and Federal standards and limitations to which a "discharge" or a related activity is subject under the CWA, including "effluent limitations," water quality standards, standards of performance, toxic effluent standards or prohibitions, "best management practices," and pretreatment standards under sections 301, 302, 303, 304, 306, 307, 308, 403, and 405 of CWA.
Application means the EPA standard national forms for applying for a permit, including any additions, revisions or modifications to the forms; or forms approved by EPA for use in "approved States," including any approved modifications or revisions.
Approved program or approved State means a State or interstate program which has been approved or authorized by EPA under Part 123.
Average monthly discharge limitation means the highest allowable average of "daily discharges" over a calendar month, calculated as the sum of all "daily discharges" measured during a calendar month divided by the number of "daily discharges" measured during that month.
Average weekly discharge limitation means the highest allowable average of "daily discharges" over a calendar week, calculated as the sum of all "daily discharges" measured during a calendar week divided by the number of "daily discharges" measured during that week.
Best management practices ("BMPs") means schedules of activities, prohibitions of practices, maintenance procedures, and other management practices to prevent or reduce the pollution of "waters of the United States." BMPs also include treatment requirements, operating procedures, and practices to control plant site runoff, spillage or leaks, sludge or waste disposal, or drainage from raw material storage.
BMPs means "best management practices."
Contiguous zone means the entire zone established by the United States under Article 24 of the Convention on the Territorial Sea and the Contiguous Zone.
Continuous discharge means a "discharge" which occurs without interruption throughout the operating hours of the facility, except for infrequent shutdowns for maintenance, process changes, or other similar activities.
CWA means the Clean Water Act (formerly referred to as the Federal Water Pollution Control Act or Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972) Pub. L. 92-500, as amended by Pub. L. 95-217, Pub. L. 95-576, Pub. L. 96-483 and Pub. L. 97-117, 33 U.S.C. 1251 et seq.
CWA and regulations means the Clean Water Act (CWA) and applicable regulations promulgated thereunder. In the case of an approved State program, it includes State program requirements.
Daily discharge means the "discharge of a pollutant" measured during a calendar day or any 24-hour period that reasonably represents the calendar day for purposes of sampling. For pollutants with limitations expressed in units of mass, the "daily discharge" is calculated as the total mass of the pollutant discharged over the day. For pollutants with limitations expressed in other units of measurement, the "daily discharge" is calculated as the average measurement of the pollutant over the day.
Direct discharge means the "discharge of a pollutant."
Director means the Regional Administrator or the State Director, as the context requires, or an authorized representative. When there is no "approved State program," and there is an EPA administered program, "Director" means the Regional Administrator. When there is an approved State program, "Director" normally means the State Director. In some circumstances, however, EPA retains the authority to take certain actions even when there is an approved State program. (For example, when EPA has issued an NPDES permit prior to the approval of a State program, EPA may retain jurisdiction over that permit after program approval, see § 123.1.) In such cases, the term "Director" means the Regional Administrator and not the State Director.
Discharge when used without qualification means the "discharge of a pollutant."
Discharge of a pollutant means:
(a) Any addition of any "pollutant" or combination of pollutants to "waters of the United States" from any "point source," or
(b) Any addition of any pollutant or combination of pollutants to the waters of the "contiguous zone" or the ocean from any point source other than a vessel or other floating craft which is being used as a means of transportation.
This definition includes additions of pollutants into waters of the United States from: surface runoff which is collected or channelled by man; discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances owned by a State, municipality, or other person which do not lead to a treatment works; and discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances, leading into privately owned treatment works. This term does not include an addition of pollutants by any "indirect discharge."
Discharge Monitoring Report ("DMR") means the EPA uniform national form, including any subsequent additions, revisions, or modifications for the reporting of self-monitoring results by permittees. DMRs must be used by "approved States" as well as by EPA. EPA will supply DMRs to any approved State upon request. The EPA national forms may be modified to substitute the State Agency name, address, logo, and other similar information, as appropriate, in place of EPA's.
DMR means "Discharge Monitoring Report."
Draft permit means a document prepared under § 124.6 indicating the Director's tentative decision to issue or deny, modify, revoke and reissue, terminate, or reissue a "permit." A notice of intent to terminate a permit, and a notice of intent to deny a permit, as discussed in § 124.5, are types of "draft permits." A denial of a request for modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, as discussed in § 124.5, is not a "draft permit." A "proposed permit" is not a "draft permit."
Effluent limitation means any restriction imposed by the Director on quantities, discharge rates, and concentrations of "pollutants" which are "discharged" from "point sources" into "waters of the United States," the waters of the "contiguous zone," or the ocean.
[Sec. 122.2]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
63
131:1004
Effluent limitations guidelines means a regulation published by the Administrator under section 304(b) of CWA to adopt or revise "effluent limitations."
Environmental Protection Agency ("EPA") means the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
EPA means the United States "Environmental Protection Agency."
Facility or activity means any NPDES "point source" or any other facility or activity (including land or appurtenances thereto) that is subject to regulation under the NPDES program.
General permit means an NPDES "permit" issued under § 122.28 authorizing a category of discharges under the CWA within a geographical area.
Hazardous substance means any substance designated under 40 CFR Part 116 pursuant to section 311 of CWA.
Indirect discharger means a nondomestic discharger introducing "pollutants" to a "publicly owned treatment works."
Interstate agency means an agency of two or more States established by or under an agreement or compact approved by the Congress, or any other agency of two or more States having substantial powers or duties pertaining to the control of pollution as determined and approved by the Administrator under the CWA and regulations.
Major facility means any NPDES "facility or activity" classified as such by the Regional Administrator, or, in the case of "approved State programs," the Regional Administrator in conjunction with the State Director.
Maximum daily discharge limitation means the highest allowable "daily discharge."
Municipality means a city, town, borough, county, parish, district, association, or other public body created by or under State law and having jurisdiction over disposal of sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes, or an Indian tribe or an authorized Indian tribal organization, or a designated and approved management agency under section 208 of CWA.
National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) means the national program for issuing, modifying, revoking and reissuing, terminating, monitoring and enforcing permits, and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements, under sections 307, 402, 318, and 406 of CWA. The term includes an "approved program."
"New discharger" means any building structure, facility, or installation:
(a) From which there is or may be a "discharge of pollutants."
(b) That did not commence the "discharge of pollutants" at a particular "site" prior to August 13, 1979;
(c) Which is not a "new source," and
(d) Which has never received a finally effective NDPES permit for discharges at that "site."
This definition includes an "indirect discharger" which commences discharging into "waters of the United States" after August 13, 1979. It also includes any existing mobile point source (other than an offshore or coastal oil and gas exploratory drilling rig or a coastal oil and gas developmental drilling rig) such as a seafood processing rig, seafood processing vessel, or aggregate plant, that begins discharging at a "site" for which it does not have a permit; and any offshore or coastal mobile oil and gas exploratory drilling rig or coastal mobile oil and gas developmental drilling rig that commences the discharge of pollutants after August 13, 1979, at a "site" under EPA's permitting jurisdiction for which it is not covered by an individual or general permit and which is located in an area determined by the Regional Administrator in the issuance of a final permit to be an area or biological concern. In determining whether an area is an area of biological concern, the Regional Administrator shall consider the factors specified in 40 CFR 125.122(a) (1) through (10).
An offshore or coastal mobile exploratory drilling rig or coastal mobile developmental drilling rig will be considered a "new discharger" only for the duration of its discharge in an area of biological concern.
("New discharger" revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983)
New source means any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a "discharge of pollutants," the construction of which commenced:
(a) After promulgation of standards of performance under section 306 of CWA which are applicable to such source, or
(b) After proposal of standards of performance in accordance with section 306 of CWA which are applicable to such source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with section 306 within 120 days of their proposal.
NPDES means "National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System."
Owner or operator means the owner or operator of any "facility or activity" subject to regulation under the NPDES program.
Permit means an authorization, license, or equivalent control document issued by EPA or an "approved State" to implement the requirements of this Part and Parts 123 and 124. "Permit" includes an NPDES "general permit" (§ 122.28). Permit does not include any permit which has not yet been the subject of final agency action, such as a "draft permit" or a "proposed permit."
Person means an individual, association, partnership, corporation, municipality, State or Federal agency, or an agent or employee thereof.
Point source means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, vessel, or other floating craft from which pollutants are or may be discharged. This term does not include return flows from irrigated agriculture.
("Point source" corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
Pollutant means dredged spoil, solid-waste, incinerator residue, filter backwash, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials (except those regulated under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.)), heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water. It does not mean:
(a) Sewage from vessels; or
(b) Water, gas, or other material which is injected into a well to facilitate production of oil or gas, or water derived in association with oil and gas production and disposed of in a well, if the well used either to facilitate production or for disposal purposes is approved by authority of the State in which the well is located, and if the State determines that the injection or disposal will not result in the degradation of ground or surface water resources.
(Sec. 122.2)
Environment Reporter
64
[Note.-Radioactive materials covered by the Atomic Energy Act are those encompassed in its definition of source, byproduct, or special nuclear materials. Examples of materials not covered include radium and accelerator-produced isotopes. See Train v. Colorado Public Interest Research Group, Inc., 426 U.S. 1 (1976).]
POTW means "publicly owned treatment works."
Primary industry category means any industry category listed in the NRDC settlement agreement (Natural Resources Defense Council et al. v. Train, 8 E.R.C. 2120 (D.D.C. 1976), modified 12 E.R.C. 1833 (D.D.C. 1979)); also listed in Appendix A of Part 122.
Privately owned treatment works means any device or system which is
(a) used to treat wastes from any facility whose operator is not the operator of the treatment works and
(b) not a "POTW."
Process wastewater means any water which, during manufacturing or processing, comes into direct contact with or results from the production or use of any raw material, intermediate product, finished product, byproduct, or waste product.
Proposed permit means a State NPDES "permit" prepared after the close of the public comment period (and, when applicable, any public hearing and administrative appeals) which is sent to EPA for review before final issuance by the State. A "proposed permit" is not a "draft permit."
Publicly owned treatment works ("POTW") means any device or system used in the treatment (including recycling and reclamation) of municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature which is owned by a "State" or "municipality." This definition includes sewers, pipes, or other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW providing treatment.
Recommencing discharger means a source which recommences discharge after terminating operations.
Regional Administrator means the Regional Administrator of the appropriate Regional Office of the Environmental Protection Agency or the authorized representative of the Regional Administrator.
Schedule of compliance means a schedule of remedial measures included in a "permit", including an enforceable sequence of interim requirements (for example, actions, operations, or milestone events) leading to compliance with the CWA and regulations.
Secondary industry category means any industry category which is not a "primary industry category."
Secretary means the Secretary of the Army, acting through the Chief of Engineers.
Sewage from vessels means human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or retain body wastes that are discharged from vessels and regulated under section 312 of CWA, except that with respect to commercial vessels on the Great Lakes this term includes graywater. For the purposes of this definition, "graywater" means galley, bath, and shower water.
Sewage sludge means the solids, residues, and precipitate separated from or created in sewage by the unit processes of a "publicly owned treatment works." "Sewage" as used in this definition means any wastes, including wastes from humans, households, commercial establishments, industries, and storm water runoff, that are discharged to or otherwise enter a publicly owned treatment works.
Site means the land or water area where any "facility or activity" is physically located or conducted, including adjacent land used in connection with the facility or activity.
State means any of the 50 States, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, and the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands.
State Director means the chief administrative officer of any State or interstate agency operating an "approved program," or the delegated representative of the State Director. If responsibility is divided among two or more State or interstate agencies, "State Director" means the chief administrative officer of the State or interstate agency authorized to perform the particular procedure or function to which reference is made.
State/EPA Agreement means an agreement between the Regional Administrator and the State which coordinates EPA and State activities, responsibilities and programs including those under the CWA programs.
Total dissolved solids means the total dissolved (filterable) solids as determined by use of the method specified in 40 CFR Part 136.
Toxic pollutant means any pollutant listed as toxic under section 307(a)(1) of CWA.
Variance means any mechanism or provision under sections 301 or 316 of CWA or under 40 CFR Part 125, or in the applicable "effluent limitations guidelines" which allows modification to or waiver of the generally applicable effluent limitation requirements or time deadlines of CWA. This includes provisions which allow the establishment of alternative limitations based on fundamentally different factors or on sections 301(c), 301(g), 301(h), 301(i), or 316(a) of CWA.
Waters of the United States or waters of the U.S. means:
(a) All waters which are currently used, were used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters which are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide;
(b) All interstate waters, including interstate "wetlands;"
(c) All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams (including intermittent streams), mudflats, sandflats, "wetlands," sloughs, prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds the use, degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign commerce including any such waters;
(1) Which are or could be used by interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;
(d) From which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce; or
(3) Which are used or could be used for industrial purposes by industries in interstate commerce;
(d) All impoundments of waters otherwise defined as waters of the United States under this definition;
(e) Tributaries of waters identified in paragraphs
(a) -(d) of this definition;
(f) The territorial sea; and
[Sec. 122.2]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
65
131:1006
(g) "Wetlands" adjacent to waters (other than waters that are themselves wetlands)-identified in paragraphs
(a) -(f) of this definition.
Waste treatment systems, including treatment ponds or lagoons designed to meet the requirements of CWA (other than cooling ponds as defined in 40 CFR § 423.11(m) which also meet the criteria of this definition) are not waters of the United States. This exclusion applies only to manmade bodies of water which neither were originally created in waters of the United States (such as disposal area in wetlands) nor resulted from the impoundment of waters of the United States. [See Note 1 of this section.]
Wetlands means those areas that are inundated or saturated by surface or groundwater at a frequency and duration sufficient to support, and that under normal circumstances do support, a prevalence of vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Wetlands generally include swamps, marshes, bogs, and similar areas.
[Note 1.-At 45 FR 48620, July 21, 1980, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice in § 122.2, the last sentence, beginning "This exclusion applies" in the definition of "Waters of the United States." This revision continues that suspension.]
[Note 1 corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Note 2. - [Deleted]
[Note 2 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
§ 122.3 Exclusions.
The following discharges do not require NPDES permits:
(a) Any discharge of sewage from vessels, effluent from properly functioning marine engines, laundry, shower, and galley sink wastes, or any other discharge incidental to the normal operation of a vessel. This exclusion does not apply to rubbish, trash, garbage, or other such materials discharged overboard; nor to other discharges when the vessel is operating in a capacity other than as a means of transportation such as when used as an energy or mining facility, a storage facility or a seafood processing facility, or when secured to a storage facility or a seafood processing facility, or when secured to the bed of the ocean, contiguous zone or waters of the United States for the purpose of mineral or oil exploration or development.
(b) Discharges of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States which are regulated under section 404 of CWA.
(c) The introduction of sewage, industrial wastes or other pollutants into publicly owned treatment works by indirect dischargers. Plans or agreements to switch to this method of disposal in the future do not relieve dischargers of the obligation to have and comply with permits until all discharges of pollutants to waters of the United States are eliminated. (See also § 122.47(b)). This exclusion does not apply to the introduction of pollutants to privately owned treatment works or to other discharges through pipes, sewers, or other conveyances owned by a State, municipality, or other party not leading to treatment works.
(d) Any discharge in compliance with the instructions of an On-Scene Coordinator pursuant to 40 CFR Part 1510 (The National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Plan) or 33 CFR 153.10(e) (Pollution by Oil and Hazardous Substances).
(e) Any introduction of pollutants from non point-source agricultural and silvicultural activities, including runoff from orchards, cultivated crops, pastures, range lands, and forest lands, but not discharges from concentrated animal feeding operations as defined in § 122.23, discharges from concentrated aquatic animal production facilities as defined in § 122.24, discharges to aquaculture projects as defined in § 122.25, and discharges from silvicultural point sources as defined in § 122.27.
(f) Return flows from irrigated agriculture.
(g) Discharges into a privately owned treatment works, except as the Director may otherwise require under § 122.44(m).
§ 122.4 Prohibitions (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
No permit may be issued:
(a) When the conditions of the permit do not provide for compliance with the applicable requirements of CWA, or regulations promulgated under CWA;
(b) When the applicant is required to obtain a State or other appropriate certification under section 401 of CWA and § 124.53 and that certification has not been obtained or waived;
(c) By the State Director where the Regional Administrator has objected to issuance of the permit under § 123.44;
(d) When the imposition of conditions cannot ensure compliance with the applicable water quality requirements of all affected States;
(e) When, in the judgment of the Secretary, anchorage and navigation in or on any of the waters of the United States would be substantially impaired by the discharge;
(f) For the discharge of any radiological, chemical, or biological warfare agent or high-level radioactive waste;
(g) For any discharge inconsistent with a plan or plan amendment approved under section 208(b) of CWA;
(h) For any discharge to the territorial sea, the waters of the contiguous zone, or the oceans in the following circumstances:
(1) Before the promulgation of guidelines under section 403(c) of CWA (for determining degradation of the waters of the territorial seas, the contiguous zone, and the oceans) unless the Director determines permit issuance to be in the public interest; or
(2) After promulgation of guidelines under section 403(c) of CWA, when insufficient information exists to make a reasonable judgment whether the discharge complies with them.
(i) To a new source or a new discharger, if the discharge from its construction or operation will cause or contribute to the violation of water quality standards. The owner or operator of a new source or new discharger proposing to discharge into a water segment which does not meet applicable water quality standards or is not expected to meet those standards even after the application of the effluent limitations required by section
[Sec. 122.4(i)]
Environment Reporter
66
301(b)(1)(A) and 301(b)(1)(B) of CWA, and for which the State or interstate agency has performed a pollutants load allocation for the pollutant to be discharged, must demonstrate, before the close of the public comment period, that:
(1) There are sufficient remaining pollutant load allocations to allow for the discharge; and
(2) The existing dischargers into that segment are subject to compliance schedules designed to bring the segment into compliance with applicable water quality standards.
(a) Applicable to State programs, see § 122.25. Except for any toxic effluent standards and prohibitions imposed under section 307 of the CWA, compliance with a permit during its term constitutes compliance, for purposes of enforcement, with section 301, 302, 306, 307, 318, 403, and 405 of CWA. However, a permit may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated during its term for cause as set forth in §§ 122.62 and 122.64.
(b) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. The issuance of a permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.
(c) The issuance of a permit does not authorize any injury to persons or property or invasion of other private rights, or any infringement of State or local law or regulations.
(a) EPA permits. When EPA is the permit-issuing authority, the conditions of an expired permit continue in force under 5 U.S.C. 568(c) until the effective date of a new permit (see § 124.15) if:
(1) The permittee has submitted a timely application under § 122.21 which is a complete (under § 122.21(e)) application for a new permit; and
(2) The Regional Administrator, through no fault of the permittee does not issue a new permit with an effective date under § 124.15 on or before the expiration date of the previous permit (for example, when issuance is impracticable due to time or resource constraints).
(b) Effect. Permits continued under this section remain fully effective and enforceable.
[122.6(b) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(c) Enforcement. When the permittee is not in compliance with the conditions of the expiring or expired permit the Regional Administrator may choose to do any or all of the following:
(1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the permit which has been continued;
(2) Issue a notice of intent to deny the new permit under § 124.6. If the permit is denied, the owner or operator would then be required to cease the activities authorized by the continued permit or be subject to enforcement action for operating without a permit;
(3) Issue a new permit under Part 124 with appropriate conditions; or
(4) Take other actions authorized by these regulations.
(d) State continuation.
(1) An EPA-issued permit does not continue in force beyond its expiration date under Federal law if at that time a State is the permitting authority. States authorized to administer the NPDES program may continue either EPA or State-issued permits until the effective date of the new permits, if State law allows. Otherwise, the facility or activity is operating without a permit from the time of expiration of the old permit to the effective date of the State-issued new permit.
(a) In accordance with 40 CFR Part 2, any information submitted to EPA pursuant to these regulations may be claimed as confidential by the submitter. Any such claim must be asserted at the time of submission in the manner prescribed on the application form or instructions or, in the case of other submissions, by stamping the words "confidential business information" on each page containing such information. If no claim is made at the time of submission, EPA may make the information available to the public without further notice. If a claim is asserted, the information will be treated in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR Part 2 (Public Information).
(b) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. Claims of confidentiality for the following information will be denied:
(1) The name and address of any permit applicant or permittee;
(2) Permit applications, permits, and effluent data.
(c) Applicable to State programs, see § 123.25. Information required by NPDES application forms provided by the Director under § 122.21 may not be claimed confidential. This includes information submitted on the forms themselves and any attachments used to supply information required by the forms.
(a) Duty to apply. Any person who discharges or proposes to discharge pollutants and who does not have an effective permit, except persons covered by general permits under § 122.28, excluded under § 122.3, or a user of a privately owned treatment works unless the Director requires otherwise under § 122.44(m), shall submit a complete application (which shall include a BMP program if necessary under 40 CFR 125.102) to the Director in accordance with this section and Part 124.
(b) Who applies? When a facility or activity is owned by one person but is operated by another person, it is the operator's duty to obtain a permit.
(c) (1) Time to apply. Any person proposing a new discharge shall submit an application at least 180 days before the date on which the discharge is to commence, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the Director. Persons proposing a new discharge are encouraged to submit their applications well in advance of the 180 day requirement to avoid delay. See also paragraph
(k) of this section.
[122.21(c)(1) designated by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Any existing Group I storm water discharge (as defined in §122.26(b)(2)) that does not have an effective permit shall submit an application by December 31, 1987. Any existing Group II storm water discharge (as defined in §122.26(b)(3)) that does not have an effective permit shall submit an application by June 30, 1989. Any discharger designated under §122.26(c) shall submit an application within 6 months of notification of its designation.
[122.21(c)(2) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984; corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Sec. 122.21(c)(2)]
131:1008
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
6940, February 19, 1985; revised by 50 FR 35203, August 29, 1985]
(d) Duty to reapply. (1) Any POTW with a currently effective permit shall submit a new application at least 180 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the Director. (The Director shall not grant permission for applications to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.)
[Editor's note: EPA February 19, 1985, [50 FR 6940] corrected 122.21(d)(2) as it appeared at 48 FR 14146, April 1, 1983. However, that entire subparagraph was revised August 8, 1984 (49 FR 31842) and the 1983 text no longer exists.]
(2) All other permittees with currently effective permits shall submit a new application 180 days before the existing permit expires, except that:
(i) The Regional Administrator may grant permission to submit an application later than the deadline for submission otherwise applicable, but no later than the permit expiration date; and
(ii) The Regional Administrator may grant permission to submit the information required by paragraphs
(g) (7), (9), and (10) of this section after the permit expiration date.
[122.21(d)(2) revised by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(3) All applicants for EPA issued permits, other than POTWs and new sources, must complete Forms 1 and either 2b or 2c of the consolidated permit application forms to apply under section 122.21 and paragraphs
(f) ,
(g) , and
(h) of this section.
[122.21(d)(3) added by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(e) Completeness. The Director shall not issue a permit before receiving a complete application for a permit except for NPDES general permits. An application for a permit is complete when the Director receives an application form and any supplemental information which are completed to his or her satisfaction. The completeness of any application for a permit shall be judged independently of the status of any other permit application or permit for the same facility or activity. For EPA administered NPDES programs, an application which is reviewed under § 124.3 is complete when the Director receives either a complete application or the information listed in a notice of deficiency.
(f) Information requirements. All applicants for NPDES permits shall provide the following information to the Director, using the application form provided by the Director (additional information required of applicants is set forth in paragraphs
(g) -(k)) of this section.
(1) The activities conducted by the applicant which require it to obtain an NPDES permit.
(2) Name, mailing address, and location of the facility for which the application is submitted.
(3) Up to four SIC codes which best reflect the principal products or services provided by the facility.
(4) The operator's name, address, telephone number, ownership status, and status as Federal, State, private, public, or other entity.
(5) Whether the facility is located on Indian lands.
(6) A listing of all permits or construction approvals received or applied for under any of the following programs:
(i) Hazardous Waste Management program under RCRA.
(ii) UIC program under SDWA.
(iii) NPDES program under CWA.
(iv) Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act.
(v) Nonattainment program under the Clean Air Act.
(vi) National Emission Standards for Hazardous Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act.
(vii) Ocean dumping permits under the Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act.
(viii) Dredge or fill permits under section 404 of CWA.
(ix) Other relevant environmental permits, including State permits.
(7) A topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending one mile beyond the property boundaries of the source, depicting the facility and each of its intake and discharge structures; each of its hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities; each well where fluids from the facility are injected underground; and those wells, springs, other surface water bodies, and drinking water wells listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant in the map area, Group II storm water discharges, as defined in § 122.26(b)(3), are exempt from the requirements of paragraph
(f) (7) of this section.
[122.21(f)(7) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(8) A brief description of the nature of the business.
(9) For Group II storm water dischargers (as defined in § 122.26(b)(3)) only, a brief narrative description of:
(i) The drainage area, including an estimate of the size and nature of the area;
(ii) The receiving water; and
(iii) Any treatment applied to the discharge.
[122.21(f)(9) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(g) Application requirements for existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers. Existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers applying for NPDES permits shall provide the following information to the Director, using application forms provided by the Director:
(1) Outfall location. The latitude and longitude to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving water.
(2) Line Drawing. A line drawing of the water flow through the facility with a water balance, showing operations contributing wastewater to the effluent and treatment units. Similar processes, operations, or production areas may be indicated as a single unit, labeled to correspond to the more detailed identification under paragraph
(g) (3) of this section. The water balance must show approximate average flows at intake and discharge points and between units, including treatment units. If a water balance cannot be determined (for example, for certain mining activities), the applicant may provide instead a pictorial description of the nature and amount of any sources of water and any collection and treatment measures.
(3) Average flows and treatment. A narrative identification of each type of process, operation, or production area which contributes wastewater to the effluent for each outfall, including process wastewater, cooling water, and stormwater runoff; the average flow which each process contributes; and a description of
[Sec. 122.21(g)(3)]
Environment Reporter
194
The treatment the wastewater receives, including the ultimate disposal of any solid or fluid wastes other than by discharge. Processes, operations, or production areas may be described in general terms (for example, "dye-making reactor", "distillation tower." For a privately owned treatment works, this information shall include the identity of each user of the treatment works.
(4) Intermittent flows. If any of the discharges described in paragraph
(g) (3) of this section are intermittent or seasonal, a description of the frequency, duration and flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for storm-water runoff, spillage or leaks).
[122.21(g)(3) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(5) Maximum production. If an effluent guideline promulgated under section 304 of CWA applies to the applicant and is expressed in terms of production (or other measure of operation), a reasonable measure of the applicant's actual production reported in the units used in the applicable effluent guideline. The reported measure must reflect the actual production of the facility as required by § 122.45(b)(2).
(6) Improvements. If the applicant is subject to any present requirements or compliance schedules for construction, upgrading or operation of waste treatment equipment, an identification of the abatement requirement, a description of the abatement project, and a listing of the required and projected final compliance dates.
[122.21(g)(7) introductory text revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(7) Effluent characteristics. Information on the discharge of pollutants specified in this subparagraph. When "quantitative data" for a pollutant are required, the applicant must collect a sample of effluent and analyze it for the pollutant in accordance with analytical methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136. When no analytical method is approved the applicant may use any suitable method but must provide a description of the method. When an applicant has two or more outfalls with substantially identical effluents, the Director may allow the applicant to test only one outfall and report that the quantitative data also apply to the substantially identical outfalls. The requirements in paragraphs
(g) (7)(iii) and (iv) of this section that an applicant must provide quantitative data for certain pollutants known or believed to be present do not apply to pollutants present in a discharge solely as the result of their presence in intake water; however, an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, and fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be used. However, a minimum of one grab sample may be taken for effluents from holding ponds or other impoundments with a retention period greater than 24 hours, and a minimum of one to four (4) grab samples may be taken for storm water discharges depending on the duration of the discharge. One grab sample shall be taken in the first hour (or less) of discharge with one additional grab sample taken in each succeeding hour of discharge up to a minimum of four grab samples for discharges lasting four or more hours. In addition, the Director may waive composite sampling for any outfall for which the applicant demonstrates that the use of an automatic sampler is infeasible and that the minimum of four (4) grab samples will be a representative sample of the effluent being discharged. An applicant is expected to "know or have reason to believe" that a pollutant is present in an effluent based on an evaluation of the expected use, production, or storage of the pollutant, or on any previous analyses for the pollutant. (For example, any pesticide manufactured by a facility may be expected to be present in contaminated storm water runoff from the facility.)
(ii)(A) Every applicant must report quantitative data for every outfall for the following pollutants:
(B) The Director may waive the reporting requirements for individual point sources or for a particular industry category for one or more of the pollutants listed in paragraph
(g) (7)(i)(A) of this section if the applicant has demonstrated that such a waiver is appropriate because information adequate to support issuance of a permit can be obtained with less stringent requirements.
[122.21(g)(7)(i)(B) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(ii) Each applicant with processes in one or more primary industry category (see Appendix A to Part 122) contributing to a discharge must report quantitative data for the following pollutants in each outfall containing process wastewater:
(A) The organic toxic pollutants in the fractions designated in Table I of Appendix D of this Part for the applicant's industrial category or categories unless the applicant qualifies as a small business under paragraph (8)(B) of this section. Table II of Appendix D of this Part lists the organic toxic pollutants in each fraction. The fractions result from the sample preparation required by the analytical procedure which uses gas chromatography/mass spectrometry. A determination that an applicant falls within a particular industrial category for the purposes of selecting fractions for testing is not conclusive as to the applicant's inclusion in that category for any other purposes. [See Notes 2, 3, and 4 of this section.]
[122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(B) The pollutants listed in Table III of Appendix D of this Part (the toxic metals, cyanide, and total phenols).
[122.21(g)(7)(iii) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(iii)(A) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table IV of Appendix D (certain conventional and nonconventional pollutants) is discharged from each outfall. If an applicable effluent limitations guideline either directly limits the pollutant or, by its express terms, indirectly limits the pollutant through limitations on an indicator, the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant discharged which is not so limited in an effluent limitations guideline, the applicant must either report quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged.
[Sec. 122.21(g)(7)(iii)]
131:1010
(B) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants listed in Table II or Table III of Appendix D (the toxic pollutants and total phenols) for which quantitative data are not otherwise required under paragraph
(g) (7)(ii) of this section, is discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations of 10 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, where any of these four pollutants are expected to be discharged in concentrations of 100 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations less than 10 ppb, or in the case of acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, in concentrations less than 100 ppb, the applicant must either submit quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged. An applicant qualifying as a small business under paragraph
(g) (8) of this section is not required to analyze for pollutants listed in Table II of Appendix D (the organic toxic pollutants).
(iv) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table V of Appendix D of this Part (certain hazardous substances and asbestos) are discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged, the applicant must briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged, and report any quantitative data it has for any pollutant.
[122.21(g)(7)(iv) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(v) Each applicant must report qualitative data, generated using a screening procedure not calibrated with analytical standards, for 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) if it:
(A) Uses or manufactures 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5-T); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5-TP); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl, 2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon); O,O-dimethyl O-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate (Ronnel); 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP); or hexachlorophene (HCP); or
(B) Knows or has reason to believe that TCDD is or may be present in an effluent.
(8) Small business exemption. An applicant which qualifies as a small business under one of the following criteria is exempt from the requirements in paragraphs
(g) (7)(ii)(A) or
(g) (7)(iii)(A) of this section to submit quantitative data for the pollutants listed in Table II of Appendix D of this Part (the organic toxic pollutants):
(i) For coal mines, a probable total annual production of less than 100,000 tons per year.
(ii) For all other applicants, gross total annual sales averaging less than $100,000 per year (in second quarter 1980 dollars).
(9) Used or manufactured toxics. A listing of any toxic pollutant which the applicant currently uses or manufactures as an intermediate or final product or byproduct. The Director may waive or modify this requirement for any applicant if the applicant demonstrates that it would be unduly burdensome to identify each toxic pollutant and the Director has adequate information to issue the permit.
[122.21(g)(9) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(10) Storm water point source exemption.
(i) An applicant that qualifies as a Group II storm water discharger under § 122.26(b)(3) is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs
(f) (7) and
(g) of this section, unless the Director requests such information.
(ii) For the purpose of paragraph
(g) (3) of this section, storm water point sources may estimate the average flow of their discharge and must indicate the rainfall event and the method of estimation that the estimate is based on.
(iii) The Director may require additional information under paragraph
(g) (13) of this section, and may request any Group II storm water dischargers to comply with paragraph
(g) of this section.
[122.21(g)(10) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(11) Biological toxicity tests. An identification of any biological toxicity tests which the applicant knows or has reason to believe have been made within the last 3 years on any of the applicant's discharges or on a receiving water in relation to a discharge.
(12) Contract analyses. If a contract laboratory or consulting firm performed any of the analyses required by paragraph
(g) (7) of this section, the identity of each laboratory or firm and the analyses performed.
(13) Additional information. In addition to the information reported on the application form, applicants shall provide to the Director, at his or her request, such other information as the Director may reasonably require to assess the discharges of the facility and to determine whether to issue an NPDES permit. The additional information may include additional quantitative data and bioassays to assess the relative toxicity of discharges to aquatic life and requirements to determine the cause of the toxicity.
(h) Application requirements for new and existing concentrated animal feeding operations and aquatic animal production facilities. New and existing concentrated animal feeding operations (defined in § 122.23) and concentrated aquatic animal production facilities (defined in § 122.24) shall provide the following information to the Director, using the application form provided by the Director:
(1) For concentrated animal feeding operations:
(i) The type and number of animals in open confinement and housed under roof.
(ii) The number of acres used for confinement feeding.
(iii) The design basis for the runoff diversion and control system, if one exists, including the number of acres of contributing drainage, the storage capacity, and the design safety factor.
(2) For concentrated aquatic animal production facilities:
(i) The maximum daily and average monthly flow from each outfall.
(ii) The number of ponds, raceways, and similar structures.
(iii) The name of the receiving water and the source of intake water.
(iv) For each species of aquatic animals, the total yearly and maximum harvestable weight.
(v) The calendar month of maximum feeding and the total mass of food fed during that month.
(i) Application requirements for new and existing POTWs. [Reserved.]
(j) Application requirements for new sources and new dischargers.
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.21(j)]
[Reserved.]
(k) Special provisions for applications from new sources.
(1) The owner or operator of any facility which may be a new source (as defined in § 122.2) and which is located in a State without an approved NPDES program must comply with the provisions of this paragraph.
(2)(i) Before beginning any on-site construction as defined in § 122.29, the owner or operator of any facility which may be a new source must submit information to the Regional Administrator so that he or she can determine if the facility is a new source. The Regional Administrator may request any additional information needed to determine whether the facility is a new source.
(ii) The Regional Administrator shall make an initial determination whether the facility is a new source within 30 days of receiving all necessary information under paragraph
(k) (2)(i) of this section.
(3) The Regional Administrator shall issue a public notice in accordance with § 124.10 of the new source determination under paragraph
(k) (2) of this section. If the Regional Administrator has determined that the facility is a new source, the notice shall state that the applicant must comply with the environmental review requirements of 40 CFR 6.600 et seq.
(4) Any interested person may challenge the Regional Administrator's initial new source determination by requesting an evidentiary hearing under Subpart E of Part 124 within 30 days of issuance of the public notice of the initial determination. If all parties to the evidentiary hearing on the determination agree, the Regional Administrator may defer the hearing until after a final permit decision is made, and consolidate the hearing on the determination with any hearing on the permit.
[122.21(k)(4) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(l) Variance requests by non-POTWs.
A discharger which is not a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory or regulatory provisions within the times specified in this paragraph:
(1) Fundamentally different factors. A request for a variance based on the presence of "fundamentally different factors" from those on which the effluent limitations guideline was based, shall be made by the close of the public comment period under § 124.10. The request shall explain how the requirements of § 124.13 and 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart D have been met.
(2) Non-conventional pollutants. A request for a variance from the BAT requirements for CWA section 301(b)(2)(F) pollutants (commonly called "non-conventional" pollutants) pursuant to section 301(c) of CWA because of the economic capability of the owner or operator, or pursuant to section 301(g) of CWA because of certain environmental considerations, when those requirements were based on effluent limitation guidelines, must be made by:
(i) Submitting an initial request to the Regional Administrator, as well as to the State Director if applicable, stating the name of the discharger, the permit number, the outfall number(s), the applicable effluent guideline, and whether the discharger is requesting a section 301(c) or section 301(g) modification or both. This request must have been filed not later than:
(A) September 25, 1978, for a pollutant which is controlled by a BAT effluent limitation guideline promulgated before December 27, 1977; or
(B) 270 days after promulgation of an applicable effluent limitation guideline for guidelines promulgated after December 27, 1977; and
(ii) Submitting a completed request no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 demonstrating that the requirements of § 124.13 and the applicable requirements of Part 125 have been met.
(iii) Requests for variance from effluent limitations not based on effluent limitation guidelines need only comply with paragraph (1)(2)(ii) of this section and need not be preceded by an initial request under paragraph (1)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) Delay in construction of POTW. An extension under CWA section 301(i)(2) of the statutory deadlines in sections 301(b)(1)(A) or
(b) (1)(C) of CWA based on delay in completion of a POTW into which the source is to discharge must have been requested on or before June 26, 1978, or 180 days after the relevant POTW requested an extension under paragraph
(m) (2) of this section, whichever is later, but in no event may this date have been later than December 25, 1978. The request shall explain how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart J have been met.
(4) Innovative technology. An extension under CWA section 301(k) from the statutory deadline of section 301(b)(2)(A) for best available technology based on the use of innovative technology may be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 for the discharger's initial permit requiring compliance with section 301(b)(2)(A). The request shall demonstrate that the requirements of § 124.13 and Part 125, Subpart C have been met.
(5) Water quality related effluent limitations. A modification under section 302(b)(2) of requirements under section 302(a) for achieving water quality related effluent limitations may be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 on the permit from which the modification is sought.
(6) Thermal discharges. A variance under CWA section 316(a) for the thermal component of any discharge must be filed with a timely application for a permit under this section, except that if thermal effluent limitations are established under CWA Section 402(a)(1) or are based on water quality standards the request for a variance may be filed by the close of the public comment period under § 124.10. A copy of the request as required under 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart H, shall be sent simultaneously to the appropriate State or interstate certifying agency as required under 40 CFR Part 125. (See § 124.65 for special procedures for section 316(a) thermal variances.)
(m) Variance requests by POTWs. A discharger which is a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory provisions as specified in this paragraph:
(1) Discharges into marine waters. A request for a modification under CWA section 301(b) of requirements of CWA section 301(b)(1)(B) for discharges into marine waters must be filed in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart G.
(2) Delay in construction. An extension under CWA section 301(i)(1) of
[Sec. 122.21(m)(2)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
131:1012
the statutory deadlines in CWA section 301(b)(1)(B) or
(b) (1)(C) based on delay in the construction of the POTW must have been requested on or before June 26, 1976.
(3) Water quality based effluent limitation. A modification under CWA section 302(b)(2) of the requirements under section 302(a) for achieving water quality based effluent limitations shall be requested no later than the close of the public comment period under § 124.10 on the permit from which the modification is sought.
(n) Expedited variance procedures and time extensions. (1) Notwithstanding the time requirements in paragraphs
(i) and
(m) of this section, the Director may notify a permit applicant before a draft permit is issued under § 124.6 that the draft permit will likely contain limitations which are eligible for variances. In the notice the Director may require the applicant as a condition of consideration of any potential variance request to submit a request explaining how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125 applicable to the variance have been met and may require its submission within a specified reasonable time after receipt of the notice. The notice may be sent before the permit application has been submitted. The draft or final permit may contain the alternative limitations which may become effective upon final grant of the variance.
(2) A discharger who cannot file a complete request required under paragraph (1)(2)(ii) or (1)(2)(iii) of this section may request an extension. The extension may be granted or denied at the discretion of the Director. Extensions shall be no more than 6 months in duration.
(o) Recordkeeping. Applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete permit applications and any supplemental information submitted under this section for a period of at least 3 years from the date the application is signed.
Note 1: At 46 FR 2046, Jan. 8, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to coal mines. This revision continues that suspension.
Note 2: At 46 FR 22585, Apr. 20, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to:
This revision continues that suspension.
Note 3: At 46 FR 35090, July 1, 1981, the Environmental Protection Agency suspended until further notice § 122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the NPDES application Form 2c as they apply to:
This revision continues that suspension.
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
Note 4: [Deleted]
[Note 4 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(f) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2000-0474).
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(g) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2000-0059).
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(h) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0086).
[122.21 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
§ 122.22 Signatories to permit applications and reports (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Applications. All permit applications shall be signed as follows:
(1) For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer. For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means:
(i) A president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy- or decision-making functions for the corporation, or (ii) the manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities employing more than 250 persons or having gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second-quarter 1980 dollars), if authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in accordance with corporate procedures.
Note: EPA does not require specific assignments or delegations of authority to responsible corporate officers identified in § 122.22(a)(1)(i). The Agency will presume that these responsible corporate officers have the requisite authority to sign permit applications unless the corporation has notified the Director to the contrary. Corporate procedures governing authority to sign permit applications may provide for assignment or delegation to applicable corporate positions under § 122.22(a)(1)(ii) rather than to specific individuals.
[122.22(a)(1) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(2) For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general partner or the proprietor, respectively: or
[Sec. 122.22(a)(2)]
(3) For a municipality, State, Federal, or other public agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a Federal agency includes:
(i) The chief executive officer of the agency, or (ii) a senior executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency (e.g., Regional Administrators of EPA).
[122.22(a)(3) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(b) All reports required by permits, other information requested by the Director, and all permit applications submitted for Group II storm water discharges under § 122.28(b)(3) shall be signed by a person described in paragraph
(a) , or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is a duly authorized representative only if:
[122.22(b) introductory text revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(1) The authorization is made in writing by a person described in paragraph
(a) of this section;
(2) The authorization specifies either an individual or a position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters for the company. (A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named individual or any individual occupying a named position.)
[122.22(b)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(3) The written authorization is submitted to the Director.
(c) Changes to authorization. If an authorization under paragraph
(b) of this section is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization satisfying the requirements of paragraph
(b) of this section must be submitted to the Director prior to or together with any reports, information, or applications to be signed by an authorized representative.
(d) Certification. Any person signing a document under paragraphs
(a) or
(b) of this section shall make the following certification:
I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations.
[122.22(d) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(a) Permit requirement. Concentrated animal feeding operations are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definitions. (1) "Animal feeding operation" means a lot or facility (other than an aquatic animal production facility) where the following conditions are met:
(i) Animals (other than aquatic animals) have been, are, or will be stabled or confined and fed or maintained for a total of 45 days or more in any 12-month period, and
(ii) Crops, vegetation forage growth, or post-harvest residues are not sustained in the normal growing season over any portion of the lot or facility.
(2) Two or more animal feeding operations under common ownership are considered, for the purposes of these regulations, to be a single animal feeding operation if they adjoin each other or if they use a common area or system for the disposal of wastes.
(3) "Concentrated animal feeding operation" means an "animal feeding operation" which meets the criteria in Appendix B of this part, or which the Director designates under paragraph
(c) of this section.
(c) Case-by-case designation of concentrated animal feeding operations. (1) The Director may designate any animal feeding operation as a concentrated animal feeding operation upon determining that it is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States. In making this designation the Director shall consider the following factors:
(i) The size of the animal feeding operation and the amount of wastes reaching waters of the United States;
(ii) The location of the animal feeding operation relative to waters of the United States;
(iii) The means of conveyance of animal wastes and process waste waters into waters of the United States;
(iv) The slope, vegetation, rainfall, and other factors affecting the likelihood or frequency of discharge of animal wastes and process waste waters into waters of the United States; and
(v) Other relevant factors.
(2) No animal feeding operation with less than the numbers of animals set forth in Appendix B of this part shall be designated as a concentrated animal feeding operation unless:
(i) Pollutants are discharged into waters of the United States through a manmade ditch, flushing system, or other similar manmade device; or
(ii) Pollutants are discharged directly into waters of the United States which originate outside of the facility and pass over, across, or through the facility or otherwise come into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation.
(3) A permit application shall not be required from a concentrated animal feeding operation designated under this paragraph until the Director has conducted an on-site inspection of the operation and determined that the operation should and could be regulated under the permit program.
(a) Permit requirement. Concentrated aquatic animal production facilities, as defined in this section, are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definition. "Concentrated aquatic animal production facility" means a hatchery, fish farm, or other facility which meets the criteria in Appendix C of this part, or which the Director designates under paragraph
(c) of this section.
(c) Case-by-case designation of concentrated aquatic animal production facilities. (1) The Director may designate any warm or cold water aquatic animal production facility as a concentrated aquatic animal production facility upon determining that it is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States.
[Sec. 122.24(c)(1)]
131:1014
nificant contributor of pollution to waters of the United States. In making this designation the Director shall consider the following factors:
(1) The location and quality of the receiving waters of the United States;
(ii) The holding, feeding, and production capacities of the facility;
(iii) The quantity and nature of the pollutants reaching waters of the United States; and
(iv) Other relevant factors.
(2) A permit application shall not be required from a concentrated aquatic animal production facility designated under this paragraph until the Director has conducted on-site inspection of the facility and has determined that the facility should and could be regulated under the permit program.
§ 122.25 Aquaculture projects (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Permit requirement. Discharges into aquaculture projects, as defined in this section, are subject to the NPDES permit program through section 318 of CWA, and in accordance with 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart B.
(b) Definitions. (1) "Aquaculture project" means a defined managed water area which uses discharges of pollutants into that designated area for the maintenance or production of harvestable freshwater, estuarine, or marine plants or animals.
(2) "Designated project area" means the portions of the waters of the United States within which the permittee or permit applicant plans to confine the cultivated species, using a method or plan or operation (including, but not limited to, physical confinement) which, on the basis of reliable scientific evidence, is expected to ensure that specific individual organisms comprising an aquaculture crop will enjoy increased growth attributable to the discharge of pollutants, and be harvested within a defined geographic area.
§ 122.26 Storm water discharges (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.26).
[122.26 revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(a) Permit requirement. Storm water point sources, as defined in this section, are point sources subject to the NPDES permit program. The Director may issue an NPDES permit or permits for discharges into waters of the United States from a storm water point source covering all conveyances which are a part of that storm water discharge. Where there is more than one owner or operator of a single system of such conveyances, any or all discharges into the storm water discharge system may be identified in the application submitted by the owner or operator of the portion of the system that discharges directly into waters of the United States. Any such application shall include all information regarding discharges into the system that would be required if the dischargers submitted separate applications. Dischargers so identified shall not require a separate permit unless the Director specifies otherwise. Any permit covering more than one owner or operator shall identify the effluent limitations, if any, which apply to each owner or operator. Where there is more than one owner or operator, no discharger into the storm water discharge may be subject to a permit condition for discharges into the storm water discharge other than its own discharges into that system without its consent. All dischargers into a storm water discharge system must either be covered by an individual permit or a permit issued to the owner or operator of the portion of the system that directly discharges. (See § 122.21(c)(2) for application deadline for existing storm water point sources.)
(b) Definitions. (1) "Storm water point source" means a conveyance or system of conveyances (including pipes, conduits, ditches, and channels) primarily used for collecting and conveying storm water runoff and which:
(i) is located at an urbanized area as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to the criteria in 39 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(ii) is located at an urbanized area as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to the criteria in 39 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(122.26(b)(1)(i) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(ii) Discharges from lands or facilities used for industrial or commercial activities; or
(iii) Is designated under paragraph
(c) of this section. Conveyances that discharge storm water runoff combined with municipal sewage are point sources that must obtain NPDES permits, but are not "storm water point sources".
(2) "Group I storm water discharge" means any "storm water point source" which is:
(i) Subject to effluent limitations guidelines, new source performance standards, or toxic pollutant effluent standards;
(ii) Designated under paragraph
(c) of this section; or
(iii) Located at an industrial plant or in plant associated areas. "Plant associated areas" means industrial plant yards, immediate access roads, drainage ponds, refuse piles, storage piles or areas and material or products loading and unloading areas. The term excludes areas located on plant lands separate from the plant's industrial activities, such as office buildings and accompanying parking lots.
(3) "Group II storm water discharge" means any "storm water point source" not included in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section. (See § 122.21(g)(10) for exemption from certain application requirements.)
(4) A conveyance or system of conveyances operated primarily for the purpose of collecting and conveying storm water runoff which does not constitute a "storm water point source" under paragraph
(b) (1) of this section is not considered a point source subject to the requirements of CWA.
(5) Whether a system of conveyances is or is not a storm water point source for purposes of this section shall have no bearing on whether the system is eligible for funding under Title II of CWA. See 40 CFR 35.925-21.
(c) Case-by-case designation of storm water discharges. The Director may designate a conveyance or system of conveyances primarily used for collecting and conveying storm water runoff as a storm water point source. This designation may be made to the extent allowed or required by EPA promulgated effluent limitations guidelines for point sources in the storm water discharge category or when:
(1) A Water Quality Management plan under section 208 of CWA which contains requirements applicable to such point sources is approved; or
(2) The Director determines that a storm water discharge is a significant contributor of pollution to the waters of the United States. In making this determination the Director shall consider the following factors:
(1) The location of the discharge with respect to waters of the United States;
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.26(c)(2)(ii)
74
(ii) The size of the discharge;
(iii) The quantity and nature of the pollutants reaching waters of the United States; and
(iv) Other relevant factors.
(a) Permit requirement. Silvicultural point sources, as defined in this section, as point sources subject to the NPDES permit program.
(b) Definitions.
(1) "Silvicultural point source" means any discernible, confined and discrete conveyance related to rock crushing, gravel washing, log sorting, or log storage facilities which are operated in connection with silvicultural activities and from which pollutants are discharged into waters of the United States. The term does not include non-point source silvicultural activities such as nursery operations, site preparation, reforestation and subsequent cultural treatment, thinning, prescribed burning, pest and fire control, harvesting operations, surface drainage, or road construction and maintenance from which there is natural runoff. However, some of these activities (such as stream crossing for roads) may involve point source discharges of dredged or fill material which may require a CWA section 404 permit (See 33 CFR 209.120 and Part 233).
(2) "Rock crushing and gravel washing facilities" means facilities which process crushed and broken stone, gravel, and riprap (See 40 CFR Part 436, Subpart B, including the effluent limitations guidelines).
(3) "Log sorting and log storage facilities" means facilities whose discharges result from the holding of unprocessed wood, for example, logs or roundwood with bark or after removal of bark held in self-contained bodies of water (mill ponds or log ponds) or stored on land where water is applied intentionally on the logs (wet decking) (See 40 CFR Part 429, Subpart I, including the effluent limitations guidelines).
(a) Coverage. The Director may issue a general permit in accordance with the following:
(1) Area. The general permit shall be written to cover a category of discharges described in the permit under paragraph
(a) (2) of this section, except those covered by individual permits, within a geographic area. The area shall correspond to existing geographic or political boundaries, such as:
(i) Designated planning areas under sections 208 and 303 of CWA;
(ii) Sewer districts or sewer authorities;
(iii) City, county, or State political boundaries;
(iv) State highway systems;
(v) Standard metropolitan statistical areas as defined by the Office of Management and Budget;
(vi) Urbanized areas as designated by the Bureau of the Census according to criteria in 30 FR 15202 (May 1, 1974); or
(vii) Any other appropriate division or combination of boundaries.
[122.28(a)(2) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Sources. The general permit may be written to regulate, within the area described in paragraph
(a) (1) of this section, either:
(i) Storm water point sources; or
(Editor's note: EPA February 19, 1985 (50 FR 6940), corrected 122.28(a)(2)(ii) as it appeared at 48 FR 14165, April 1, 1983. However that entire subparagraph was revised September 26, 1984 (49 FR 38048), superseding the 1983 text.)
(ii) A category of point sources other than storm water point sources if the sources all:
(A) Involve the same or substantially similar types of operations;
(B) Discharge the same types of wastes;
(C) Require the same effluent limitation or operating conditions;
(D) Require the same or similar monitoring; and
(E) In the opinion of the Director, are more appropriately controlled under a general permit than under individual permits.
(b) Administration.
(1) In general. General permits may be issued, modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated in accordance with applicable requirements of Part 124 or corresponding State regulations. Special procedures for issuance are found at § 123.44 for States and § 124.58 for EPA.
(2) Requiring an individual permit.
(i) The Director may require any person authorized by a general permit to apply for and obtain an individual NPDES permit. Any interested person may petition the Director to take action under this paragraph. Cases where an individual NPDES permit may be required include the following:
(A) The discharge(s) is a significant contributor of pollution as determined by the factors set forth at § 122.26(c)(2);
(B) The discharger is not in compliance with the conditions of the general NPDES permit;
(C) A change has occurred in the availability of demonstrated technology or practices for the control or abatement of pollutants applicable to the point source;
(D) Effluent limitation guidelines are promulgated for point sources covered by the general NPDES permit;
(E) A Water Quality Management plan containing requirements applicable to such point sources is approved; or
(F) The requirements of paragraph
(a) of this section are not met.
(ii) For EPA issued general permits only, the Regional Administrator may require any owner or operator authorized by a general permit to apply for an individual NPDES permit as provided in paragraph
(b) (2)(i) of this section, only if the owner or operator has been notified in writing that a permit application is required. This notice shall include a brief statement of the reasons for this decision, an application form, a statement setting a time for the owner or operator to file the application, and a statement that on the effective date of the individual NPDES permit the general permit as it applies to the individual permittee shall automatically terminate. The Director may grant additional time upon request of the applicant.
(iii) Any owner or operator authorized by a general permit may request to be excluded from the coverage of the general permit by applying for an individual permit. The owner or operator shall submit an application under § 122.21, with reasons supporting the request, to the Director no later than 90 days after the publication by EPA of the general permit in the FEDERAL REGISTER or the publication by a State in accordance with applicable State law. The request shall be processed under Part 124 or applicable State procedures. The request shall be granted by issuing of any individual permit if the reasons cited by the owner or operator are adequate to support the request.
(iv) When an individual NPDES permit is issued to an owner or operator otherwise subject to a general NPDES permit, the applicability of the general permit to the individual NPDES permittee is automatically terminated on the effective date of the individual permit.
[Sec. 122.28(b)(2)(iv)]
131:1016
(v) A source excluded from a general permit solely because it already has an individual permit may request that the individual permit be revoked, and that it be covered by the general permit. Upon revocation of the individual permit, the general permit shall apply to the source.
[122.28(c) added by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983]
(c) Offshore Oil and Gas Facilities
[Not applicable to State programs.] (1) The Regional Administrator shall, except as provided below, issue general permits covering discharges from offshore oil and gas exploration and production facilities within the Region's jurisdiction. Where the offshore area includes areas, such as areas of biological concern, for which separate permit conditions are required, the Regional Administrator may issue separate general permits, individual permits, or both. The reason for separate general permits or individual permits shall be set forth in the appropriate fact sheets or statements of basis. Any statement of basis or fact sheet for a draft permit shall include the Regional Administrator's tentative determination as to whether the permit applies to "new sources," "new dischargers," or existing sources and the reasons for this determination, and the Regional Administrator's proposals as to areas of biological concern subject either to separate individual or general permits. For Federally leased lands, the general permit area should generally be no less extensive than the lease sale area defined by the Department of the Interior.
(2) Any interested person, including any prospective permittee, may petition the Regional Administrator to issue a general permit. Unless the Regional Administrator determines under paragraph
(c) (1) that no general permit is appropriate, he shall promptly provide a project decision schedule covering the issuance of the general permit or permits for any lease sale area for which the Department of the Interior has published a draft environmental impact statement. The project decision schedule shall meet the requirements of § 124.3(g), and shall include a schedule providing for the issuance of the final general permit or permits not later than the date of the final notice of sale projected by the Department of the Interior or six months after the date of the request, whichever is later. The Regional Administrator may, at his discretion, issue a project decision schedule for offshore oil and gas facilities in the territorial seas.
(3) Nothing in this paragraph
(c) shall affect the authority of the Regional Administrator to require an individual permit under § 122.28(b)(2)(i)(A) through [F].
§ 122.29 New sources and new dischargers.
(a) Definitions. (1) "New source" and "new discharger" are defined in § 122.2. (See Note 2.)
(2) "Source" means any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants.
(3) "Existing source" means any source which is not a new source or a new discharger.
(4) "Site" is defined in § 122.2.
(5) "Facilities or equipment" means buildings, structures, process or production equipment or machinery which form a permanent part of the new source and which will be used in its operation, if these facilities or equipment are of such value as to represent a substantial commitment to construct. It excludes facilities or equipment used in connection with feasibility, engineering, and design studies regarding the source or water pollution treatment for the source.
[122.29(b) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(b) Criteria for new source determination.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in an applicable new source performance standard, a source is a "new source" if it meets the definition of "new source" in § 122.2, and
(i) It is constructed at a site at which no other source is located; or
(ii) It totally replaces the process or production equipment that causes the discharge of pollutants at an existing source; or
(iii) Its processes are substantially independent of an existing source at the same site. In determining whether these processes are substantially independent, the Director shall consider such factors as the extent to which the new facility is integrated with the existing plant; and the extent to which the new facility is engaged in the same general type of activity as the existing source.
(2) A source meeting the requirements of paragraphs
(b) (1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section is a new source only if a new source performance standard is independently applicable to it. If there is no such independently applicable standard, the source is a new discharger. See § 122.2.
(3) Construction on a site at which an existing source is located results in a modification subject to § 122.62 rather than a new source (or a new discharger) if the construction does not create a new building, structure, facility, or installation meeting the criteria of paragraphs
(b) (1)(ii) or (iii) of this section but otherwise alters, replaces, or adds to existing process or production equipment.
(4) Construction of a new source as defined under § 122.2 has commenced if the owner or operator has:
(i) Begun, or caused to begin as part of a continuous on-site construction program:
(A) Any placement, assembly, or installation of facilities or equipment; or
(B) Significant site preparation work including clearing, excavation, or removal of existing buildings, structures, or facilities which is necessary for the placement, assembly, or installation of new source facilities or equipment; or
(ii) Entered into a binding contractual obligation for the purchase of facilities or equipment which are intended to be used in its operation within a reasonable time. Options to purchase or contracts which can be terminated or modified without substantial loss, and contracts for feasibility, engineering, and design studies do not constitute a contractual obligation under the paragraph.
(c) Requirement for an Environmental Impact Statement. (1) The issuance of an NPDES permit to new source:
(i) By EPA may be a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment within the meaning of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 33 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. and is subject to the environmental review provisions of NEPA as set out in 40 CFR Part 6, Subpart F. EPA will determine whether an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is required under § 122.21(k) (special provisions for applications from new sources) and 40 CFR Part 6, Subpart F.
(ii) By an NPDES approved State is
[Sec. 122.29(c)(1)(ii)]
76
not a Federal action and therefore does not require EPA to conduct an environmental review.
(2) An EIS prepared under this paragraph shall include a recommendation either to issue or deny the permit.
(i) If the recommendation is to deny the permit, the final EIS shall contain the reasons for the recommendation and list those measures, if any, which the applicant could take to cause the recommendation to be changed;
(ii) If the recommendation is to issue the permit, the final EIS shall recommend the actions, if any, which the permittee should take to prevent or minimize any adverse environmental impacts:
(3) The Regional Administrator, to the extent allowed by law, shall issue, condition (other than imposing effluent limitations), or deny the new source NPDES permit following a complete evaluation of any significant beneficial and adverse impacts of the proposed action and a review of the recommendations contained in the EIS or finding of no significant impact.
[122.29(c)(3) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(4)(i) No on-site construction of a new source for which an EIS is required shall commence before final Agency action in issuing a final permit incorporating appropriate EIS-related requirements, or before execution by the applicant of a legally binding written agreement which requires compliance with all such requirements, unless such construction is determined by the Regional Administrator not to cause significant or irreversible adverse environmental impact. The provisions of any agreement entered into under this paragraph shall be incorporated as coditions of the NPDES permit when it is issued.
(ii) No on-site construction of a new source for which an EIS is not required shall commence until 30 days after issuance of a finding of no significant impact, unless the construction is determined by the Regional Administrator not to cause significant or irreversible adverse environmental impacts.
(5)(i) The commencement of on-site construction in violation of paragraph
(c) of this section shall constitute grounds for denial of a permit.
[122.29(c)(5)(i) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(5)(ii) The permit applicant must notify the Regional Administrator of any on-site construction which begins before the times specified in paragraph
(c) (4) of this section. If on-site construction begins in violation of this paragraph, the Regional Administrator shall advise the owner or operator that it is proceeding with construction at its own risk, and that such construction activities constitute grounds for denial of a permit. The Regional Administrator may seek a court order to enjoin construction in violation of this paragraph.
[Former 122.29(c)(5) redesignated as
(c) (5)(ii) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(d) Effect of compliance with new source performance standards. (The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to existing sources which modify their pollution control facilities or construct new pollution control facilities and achieve performance standards, but which are neither new sources or new dischargers or otherwise do not meet the requirements of this paragraph.)
(1) Except as provided in paragraph
(d) (2) of this section, any new discharger, the construction of which commenced after October 18, 1972, or new source which meets the applicable promulgated new source performance standards before the commencement of discharge, may not be subject to any more stringent new source performance standards or to any more stringent technology-based standards under section 301(b)(2) of CWA for the soonest ending of the following periods:
(i) Ten years from the date that construction is completed;
(ii) Ten years from the date the source begins to discharge process or other nonconstruction related wastewater; or
(iii) The period of depreciation or amortization of the facility for the purposes of section 167 or 169 (or both) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.
(2) The protection from more stringent standards of performance afforded by paragraph
(d) (1) of this section does not apply to:
(i) Additional or more stringent permit conditions which are not technology based; for example, conditions based on water quality standards, or toxic effluent standards or prohibitions under section 307(a) of CWA; or
(ii) Additional permit conditions in accordance with §123.3 controlling toxic pollutants or hazardous substances which are not controlled by new source performance standards. This includes permit conditions controlling pollutants other than those identified as toxic pollutants or hazardous substances when control of these pollutants has been specifically identified as the method to control the toxic pollutants or hazardous substances.
(3) When an NPDES permit issued to a source with a "protection period" under paragraph
(d) (1) of this section will expire on or after the expiration of the protection period, that permit shall require the owner or operator of the source to comply with the requirements of section 301 and any other applicable requirements of CWA immediately upon the expiration of the protection period. No additional period for achieving compliance with these requirements may be allowed except when necessary to achieve compliance with requirements promulgated less than 3 years before the expiration of the protection period.
(4) The owner or operator of a new source, a new discharger which commenced discharge after August 13, 1979, or a recommencing discharger shall install and have in operating condition, and shall "start-up" all pollution control equipment required to meet the conditions of its permits before beginning to discharge. Within the shortest feasible time (not to exceed 90 days), the owner or operator must meet all permit conditions. The requirements of this paragraph do not apply if the owner or operator is issued a permit containing a compliance schedule under §122.47(a)(2).
[122.29(d)(4) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(5) After the effective date of new source performance standards, it shall be unlawful for any owner or operator of any new source to operate the source in violation of those standards applicable to the source.
Note 1: [Deleted]
Note 2: [Deleted]
[Notes 1, 2 deleted by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
[Sec. 122.29(d)(5)]
131:1018
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(c) (5) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0078)
[122.29 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
Subpart C—Permit Conditions
§ 122.41 Conditions applicable to all permits (applicable to State programs, see § 122.26).
The following conditions apply to all NPDES permits. Additional conditions applicable to NPDES permits are in § 122.42. All conditions applicable to NPDES permits shall be incorporated into the permits either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to these regulations (or the corresponding approved State regulations) must be given in the permit.
(a) Duty to comply. The permittee must comply with all conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the Clean Water Act and is grounds for enforcement action; for permit termination, revocation and reissuance, or modification; or denial of a permit renewal application.
(1) The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or prohibitions established under section 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic pollutants within the time provided in the regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions, even if the permit has not yet been modified to incorporate the requirement.
(2) The Clean Water Act provides that any person who violates a permit condition implementing sections 301, 302, 306, 307, 308, 318 or 405 of the Clean Water Act is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of such violation. Any person who willfully or negligently violates permit conditions implementing sections 301, 302, 306, 307 or 308 of the Act is subject to a fine of not less than $2,500 nor more than $25,000 per day of violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both.
[122.41(a)(2) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(b) Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the permittee must apply for and obtain a new permit.
(c) Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.
[122.41(c) and
(d) revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983;
(c) head corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(d) Duty to Mitigate. The permittee shall take all reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge in violation of this permit which has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or the environment.
(3)(e) Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of treatment and control (and related appurtenances) which are installed or used by the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper operation and maintenance also includes adequate laboratory controls and appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation of backup or auxiliary facilities or similar systems which are installed by a permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the conditions of the permit.
[122.41(e) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(f) Permit actions. This permit may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination, or a notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.
(g) Property rights. This permit does not convey any property rights of any sort, or any exclusive privilege.
(h) Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the Director, within a reasonable time, any information which the Director may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating this permit or to determine compliance with this permit. The permittee shall also furnish to the Director upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this permit.
(i) Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the Director, or an authorized representative, upon the presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law, to:
(1) Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
(2) Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit;
(3) Inspect at reasonable times any facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under this permit; and
(4) Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act, any substances or parameters at any location.
(j) Monitoring and records. (1) Samples and measurements taken for the purpose of monitoring shall be representative of the monitored activity.
(2) The permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this permit, and records of all data used to complete the application for this permit, for a period of at least 3 years from the date of the sample, measurement, report or application. This period may be extended by request of the Director at any time.
(3) Records of monitoring information shall include:
(i) The date, exact place, and time of sampling or measurements;
(ii) The individual(s) who performed the sampling or measurements;
(iii) The date(s) analyses were performed;
(iv) The individual(s) who performed the analyses;
(v) The analytical techniques or methods used; and
(vi) The results of such analyses.
(4) Monitoring must be conducted according to test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 138, unless other test procedures have been specified in this permit.
(5) The Clean Water Act provides that any person who falsifies, tampers with, or knowingly renders inaccurate any monitoring device or method required to be maintained under this permit shall,
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.41(j)(5)]
78
upon conviction, be punished by a fine of not more than $10,000 per violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 6 months per violation, or by both.
(k) Signatory requirement. (1) All applications, reports, or information submitted to the Director shall be signed and certified. (See § 122.22)
(2) The CWA provides that any person who knowingly makes any false statement, representation, or certification in any record or other document submitted or required to be maintained under this permit, including monitoring reports or reports of compliance or non-compliance shall, upon conviction, be punished by a fine of not more than $10,000 per violation, or by imprisonment for not more than 6 months per violation, or by both.
(l) Reporting requirements. — (1) Planned changes. The permittee shall give notice to the Director as soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the permitted facility. Notice is required only when:
(i) The alteration or addition to a permitted facility may meet one of the criteria for determining whether a facility is a new source in §122.29(b); or
(ii) The alteration or addition could significantly change the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification applies to pollutants which are subject neither to effluent limitations in the permit, nor to notification requirements under § 122.42(a)(1).
[122.41(l)(1) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) Anticipated noncompliance. The permittee shall give advance notice to the Director of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity which may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.
(3) Transfers. This permit is not transferable to any person except after notice to the Director. The Director may require modification or revocation and reissuance of the permit to change the name of the permittee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary under the Clean Water Act. (See § 122.61; in some cases, modification or revocation and reissuance is mandatory.)
(4) Monitoring reports. Monitoring results shall be reported at the intervals specified elsewhere in this permit.
(i) Monitoring results must be reported on a Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR).
(ii) If the permittee monitors any pollutant more frequently than required by the permit, using test procedures approved under 40 CFR 136 or as specified in the permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting of the data submitted in the DMR.
(iii) Calculations for all limitations which require averaging of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified by the Director in the permit.
(5) Compliance schedules. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each schedule date.
(6) Twenty-four hour reporting.
(i) The permittee shall report any noncompliance which may endanger health or the environment. Any information shall be provided orally within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. A written submission shall also be provided within 5 days of the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The written submission shall contain a description of the noncompliance and its cause; the period of noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the noncompliance.
(ii) The following shall be included as information which must be reported within 24 hours under this paragraph.
(A) Any unanticipated bypass which exceeds any effluent limitation in the permit. (See § 122.41(g).
(B) Any upset which exceeds any effluent limitation in the permit.
(C) Violation of a maximum daily discharge limitation for any of the pollutants listed by the Director in the permit to be reported within 24 hours. (See § 122.44(g).
(iii) The Director may waive the written report on a case-by-case basis for reports under paragraph
(i) (6)(ii) of this section if the oral report has been received within 24 hours.
(7) Other noncompliance. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under paragraphs
(i) (4), (5), and (6) of this section, at the time monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in paragraph
(i) (6) of this section.
(8) Other information: Where the permittee becomes aware that it failed to submit any relevant facts in a permit application, or submitted incorrect information in a permit application or in any report to the Director, it shall promptly submit such facts or information.
[122.41(l)(8) added by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(m) Bypass. (1) Definitions.
(i) "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility.
(ii) "Severe property damage" means substantial physical damage to property, damage to the treatment facilities which causes them to become inoperable, or substantial and permanent loss of natural resources which can reasonably be expected to occur in the absence of a bypass. Severe property damage does not mean economic loss caused by delays in production.
(2) Bypass not exceeding limitations. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur which does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for essential maintenance to assure efficient operation. These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of paragraphs
(m) (3) and
(m) (4) of this section.
(3) Notice.
(i) Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of the need for a bypass, it shall submit prior notice, if possible at least ten days before the date of the bypass.
(ii) Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice of an unanticipated bypass as required in paragraph
(i) (6) of this section (24-hour notice).
(4) Prohibition of bypass.
(i) Bypass is prohibited, and the Director may take enforcement action against a permittee for bypass, unless:
(A) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe property damage;
(B) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not satisfied if adequate back up equipment should have been installed in the exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass which occurred during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and
[122.41(m)(4)(i)(B) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
[Sec. 122.41(m)(4)(i)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
79
(C) The permittee submitted notices as required under paragraph
(m) (3) of this section.
(ii) The Director may approve an anticipated bypass, after considering its adverse effects, if the Director determines that it will meet the three conditions listed above in paragraph
(m) (4)(i) of this section.
(n) Upset—(1) Definition. "Upset" means an exceptional incident in which there is unintentional and temporary noncompliance with technology based permit effluent limitations because of factors beyond the reasonable control of the permittee. An upset does not include noncompliance to the extent caused by operational error, improperly designed treatment facilities, inadequate treatment facilities, lack of preventive maintenance, or careless or improper operation.
(2) Effect of an upset. An upset constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with such technology based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of paragraph
(n) (3) of this section are met. No determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is final administrative action subject to judicial review.
(3) Conditions necessary for a demonstration of upset. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative defense of upset shall demonstrate, through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:
(i) An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify the cause(s) of the upset;
[122.41(n)(3)(i) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(ii) The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated; and
(iii) The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required in paragraph (1)(6)(ii)(B) of this section (24 hour notice).
(iv) The permittee complied with any remedial measures required under paragraph
(d) of this section.
(4) Burden of proof. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(e) (i) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0047].
[122.41 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.42 Additional conditions applicable to specified categories of NPDES permits (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 122.25).
The following conditions, in addition to those set forth in § 122.41, apply to all NPDES permits within the categories specified below:
(a) Existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers. In addition to the reporting requirements under § 122.41(1), all existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers must notify the Director as soon as they know or have reason to believe:
(1) That any activity has occurred or will occur which would result in the discharge on a routine or frequent basis, of any toxic pollutant which is not limited in the permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following "notification levels":
[122.42(a)(1) introductory text amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(1) One hundred micrograms per liter (100 µg/l);
(ii) Two hundred micrograms per liter (200 µg/l) for acrolein and acrylonitrile; five hundred micrograms per liter (500 µg/l) for 2,4-dinitrophenol and for 2-methyl-4,6-dinitrophenol; and one milligram per liter (1 mg/l) for antimony;
(iii) Five (5) times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application in accordance with § 122.21(g)(7); or
[122.42(a)(1)(iii) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(iv) The level established by the Director in accordance with § 122.44(f).
(2) That any activity has occurred or will occur which would result in any discharge, on a non-routine or infrequent basis, of a toxic pollutant which is not limited in the permit, if that discharge will exceed the highest of the following "notification levels":
(i) Five hundred micrograms per liter (500 µg/l);
(ii) One milligram per liter (1 mg/l) for antimony;
(iii) Ten (10) times the maximum concentration value reported for that pollutant in the permit application in accordance with § 122.21(g)(7).
(iv) The level established by the Director in accordance with § 122.44(f).
[122.42(a)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(b) Publicly owned treatment works. All POTWs must provide adequate notice to the Director of the following:
(1) Any new introduction of pollutants into the POTW from an indirect discharger which would be subject to sections 301 or 306 of CWA if it were directly discharging those pollutants; and
(2) Any substantial change in the volume or character of pollutants being introduced into that POTW by a source introducing pollutants into the POTW at the time of issuance of the permit.
(3) For purposes of this paragraph, adequate notice shall include information on
(i) the quality and quantity of effluent introduced into the POTW, and (ii) any anticipated impact of the change on the quantity or quality of effluent to be discharged from the POTW.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0045).
[122.42 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.43 Establishing permit conditions (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25).
(a) In addition to conditions required in all permits (§§ 122.41 and 122.42), the Director shall establish conditions, as required on a case-by-case basis, to provide for and assure compliance with all applicable requirements of CWA and regulations. These shall include conditions under §§ 122.46 (duration of permits), 122.47(a) (schedules of compliance), 122.48 (monitoring), and for EPA permits only 122.47(b) (alternates schedule of compliance) and 122.49 (considerations under Federal law).
(b) (1) For a State issued permit, an applicable requirement is a State statutory or regulatory requirement which takes effect prior to final administrative disposition of a permit. For a permit issued by EPA, an applicable requirement is a statutory or regulatory requirement (including any interim final regulation) which takes effect prior to the issuance of the permit (except as provided in § 124.86(c) for NPDES permits being processed under Subparts E or F of Part 124). Section 124.14 (reopening of comment period) provides a means for reopening EPA permit proceedings at the discretion of the Director where new requirements become effective during the permitting process and are
of sufficient magnitude to make additional proceedings desirable. For State and EPA administered programs, an applicable requirement is also any requirement which takes effect prior to the modification or revocation and reissuance of a permit, to the extent allowed in § 122.62.
(2) New or reissued permits, and to the extent allowed under § 122.62 modified or revoked and reissued permits, shall incorporate each of the applicable requirements referenced in §§ 122.44 and 122.45.
(c) Incorporation. All permit conditions shall be incorporated either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to the applicable regulations or requirements must be given in the permit.
In addition to the conditions established under § 122.43(a), each NPDES permit shall include conditions meeting the following requirements when applicable.
(a) Technology-based effluent limitations and standards based on effluent limitations and standards promulgated under section 301 of CWA or new source performance standards promulgated under section 306 of CWA, on case-by-case effluent limitations determined under section 402(a)(1) of CWA, or on a combination of the two, in accordance with § 125.3. For new sources or new dischargers, these technology-based limitations and standards are subject to the provisions of § 122.29(d) (protection period).
(b) Other effluent limitations and standards under sections 301, 302, 303, 307, 318, and 405 of CWA. If any applicable toxic effluent standard or prohibition (including any schedule of compliance specified in such effluent standard or prohibition) is promulgated under section 307(a) of CWA for a toxic pollutant and that standard or prohibition is more stringent than any limitation on the pollutant in the permit, the Director shall institute proceedings under these regulations to modify or revoke and reissue the permit to conform to the toxic effluent standard or prohibition. See also § 122.41(a).
(c) Reopener clause: for any discharger within a primary industry category (see Appendix A), requirements under section 307(a)(2) of CWA as follows:
(1) On or before June 30, 1981:
(i) If applicable standards or limitations have not yet been promulgated, the permit shall include a condition stating that, if an applicable standard or limitation is promulgated under sections 301(b)(2) (C) and (D), 304(b)(2), and 307(a)(2) and that effluent standard or limitation is more stringent than any effluent limitation in the permit or controls a pollutant not limited in the permit, the permit shall be promptly modified or revoked and reissued to conform to that effluent standard or limitation.
(ii) If applicable standards or limitations have been promulgated or approved, the permit shall include those standards or limitations. (If EPA approves existing effluent limitations or decides not to develop new effluent limitations, it will publish a notice in the Federal Register that the limitations are "approved" for the purpose of this regulation.)
[122.44(c)(1)(ii) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(2) On or after the statutory deadline set forth in sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), and (E) of CWA, any permit issued shall include effluent limitations to meet the requirements of sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), (D), (E), (F), whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated or approved. These permits need not incorporate the clause required by paragraph
(c) (1) of this section.
[122.44(c)(2) revised by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(3) The Director shall promptly modify or revoke and reissue any permit containing the clause required under paragraph
(c) (1) of this section to incorporate an applicable effluent standard or limitation under sections 301(b)(2) (C) and (D), 304(b)(2), and 307(a)(2) which is promulgated or approved after the permit is issued if that effluent standard or limitation is more stringent than any effluent limitation in the permit, or controls a pollutant not limited in the permit.
(d) Water quality standards and State requirements: any requirements in addition to or more stringent than promulgated effluent limitations guidelines or standards under sections 301, 304, 306, 307, 318, and 405 of CWA necessary to:
(1) Achieve water quality standards established under section 303 of CWA;
(2) Attain or maintain a specified water quality through water quality related effluent limits established under section 302 of CWA;
(3) Conform to the conditions to a State certification under section 401 of the CWA that meets the requirements of § 124.53 when EPA is the permitting authority. If a State certification is stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction or an appropriate State board or agency, EPA shall notify the State that the Agency will deem certification waived unless a finally effective State certification is received within sixty days from the date of the notice. If the State does not forward a finally effective certification within the sixty day period, EPA shall include conditions in the permit that may be necessary to meet EPA's obligation under section 301(b)(1)(C) of the CWA.
[122.44(d)(3) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(4) Conform to applicable water quality requirements under section 401(a)(2) of CWA when the discharge affects a State other than the certifying State;
(5) Incorporate any more stringent limitations, treatment standards, or schedule of compliance requirements established under Federal or State law or regulations in accordance with section 301(b)(1)(C) of CWA;
(6) Ensure consistency with the requirements of a Water Quality Management plan approved by EPA under section 208(b) of CWA;
(7) Incorporate section 403(c) criteria under Part 125, Subpart M, for ocean discharges;
(8) Incorporate alternative effluent limitations or standards where warranted by "fundamentally different factors," under 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart D;
(9) Incorporate any other appropriate requirements, conditions, or limitations (other than effluent limitations) into a new source permit to the extent allowed by the National Environmental Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. and section 511 of the CWA, when EPA is the permit issuing authority. (See § 122.29(c))
[122.44(d)(9) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(e) Toxic pollutants. Limitations established under paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) , or
(d) of this section, to control pollutants meeting the criteria listed in paragraph
(e) (1) of this section. Limitations will be established in accordance with paragraph
(e) (2) of this section.
[Sec. 122.44(e)]
131:1022
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
tion. An explanation of the development of these limitations shall be included in the fact sheet under § 124.56(b)(1)(i).
[[122.44(e) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(1) Limitations must control all toxic pollutants which:
The Director determines (based on information reported in a permit application under § 122.21(g)(7) or (10) or in a notification under § 122.42(a)(1) or on other information) are or may be discharged at a level greater than the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under § 125.3(c); or
[Former 122.44(e)(1)(i) redesignated as
(e) (1) and
(e) (1)(ii) deleted by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) The requirement that the limitations control the pollutants meeting the criteria of paragraph
(e) (1) of this section will be satisfied by:
(i) Limitations on those pollutants; or
(ii) Limitations on other pollutants which, in the judgment of the Director, will provide treatment of the pollutants under paragraph
(e) (1) of this section to the levels required by § 125.3(c).
(f) Notification level. A "notification level" which exceeds the notification level of § 122.42(a)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii), upon a petition from the permittee or on the Director's initiative. This new notification level may not exceed the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under § 125.3(c).
(g) Twenty-four hour reporting: Pollutants for which the permittee must report violations of maximum daily discharge limitations under § 122.41(1)(6)(ii)(C)(24-hour reporting) shall be listed in the permit. This list shall include any toxic pollutant or hazardous substance, or any pollutant specifically identified as the method to control a toxic pollutant or hazardous substance.
(h) Durations for permits, as set forth in § 122.46.
(i) Monitoring requirements: In addition to § 122.48, the following monitoring requirements:
(1) To assure compliance with permit limitations, requirements to monitor:
(i) The mass (or other measurement specified in the permit) for each pollutant limited in the permit.
(ii) The volume of effluent discharged from each outfall;
(iii) Other measurements as appropriate; including pollutants in internal waste streams under § 122.45(i), pollutants in intake water for net limitations under § 122.45(f); frequency, rate of discharge, etc., for noncontinuous discharges under § 122.45(e); and pollutants subject to notification requirements under § 122.42(a).
(iv) According to test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 for the analyses of pollutants having approved methods under that Part, and according to a test procedure specified in the permit for pollutants with no approved methods.
(2) Requirements to report monitoring results with a frequency dependent on the nature and effect of the discharge, but in no case less than once a year.
(j) Pretreatment program for POTWs: requirements for POTWs to:
(1) Identify, in terms of character and volume of pollutants, any significant indirect dischargers into the POTW subject to pretreatment standards under section 307(b) of CWA and 40 CFR Part 403.
(2) Submit a local program when required by and in accordance with 40 CFR Part 403 to assure compliance with pretreatment standards to the extent applicable under section 307(b). The local program shall be incorporated into the permit as described in 40 CFR Part 403. The program shall require all indirect dischargers to the POTW to comply with the reporting requirements of 40 CFR Part 403.
(k) Best management practices to control or abate the discharge of pollutants when:
(1) Authorized under section 304(e) of CWA for the control of toxic pollutants and hazardous substances from ancillary industrial activities;
(2) Numeric effluent limitations are infeasible, or
(3) The practices are reasonably necessary to achieve effluent limitations and standards or to carry out the purposes and intent of CWA.
(l) Reissued permits. (1) Except as provided in paragraph
(l) (2) of this section when a permit is renewed or reissued, interim limitations, standards or conditions must be at least as stringent as the final limitations, standards, or conditions in the previous permit (unless the circumstances on which the previous permit was based have materially and substantially changed since the time the permit was issued and would constitute cause for permit modification or revocation and reissuance under § 122.62).
[122.44(l)(1) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985; 50 FR 7912, February 27, 1985]
(2) When effluent limitations were imposed under section 402(a)(1) of CWA in a previously issued permit and these limitations are more stringent than the subsequently promulgated effluent guidelines, this paragraph shall apply unless:
(i) The discharger has installed the treatment facilities required to meet the effluent limitations in the previous permit and has properly operated and maintained the facilities but has nevertheless been unable to achieve the previous effluent limitations. In this case the limitations in the renewed or reissued permit may reflect the level of pollutant control actually achieved (but shall not be less stringent than required by the subsequently promulgated effluent limitation guidelines);
(ii) In the case of an approved State, State law prohibits permit conditions more stringent than an applicable effluent limitation guideline;
(iii) The subsequently promulgated effluent guidelines are based on best conventional pollutant control technology (section 301(b)(2)(E) of CWA);
(iv) The circumstances on which the previous permit was based have materially and substantially changed since the time the permit was issued and would constitute cause for permit modification or revocation and reissuance under § 122.62; or
(v) There is increased production at the facility which results in significant reduction in treatment efficiency, in which case the permit limitations will be adjusted to reflect any decreased efficiency resulting from increased production and raw waste loads, but in no event shall permit limitations be less stringent than those required by subsequently promulgated standards and limitations.
(m) Privately owned treatment works: For a privately owned treatment works, any conditions expressly applicable to any user, as a limited co-permittee, that may be necessary in the permit issued to the treatment works to ensure compliance with applicable requirements under this Part. Alternatively, the Director may issue
Environment Reporter
[Sec. 122.44(m)]
82
separate permits to the treatment works and to its users, or may require a separate permit application from any user. The Director's decision to issue a permit with no conditions applicable to any user, to impose conditions on one or more users, to issue separate permits, or to require separate applications, and the basis for that decision, shall be stated in the fact sheet for the draft permit for the treatment works.
(n) Grants: Any conditions imposed in grants made by the Administrator to POWs under sections 201 and 204 of CWA which are reasonably necessary for the achievement of effluent limitations under section 301 of CWA.
(o) Sewage sludge: Requirements under section 403 of CWA governing the disposal of sewage sludge from publicly owned treatment works, in accordance with any applicable regulations.
(p) Coast Guard: When a permit is issued to a facility that may operate at certain times as a means of transportation over water, a condition that the discharge shall comply with any applicable regulations promulgated by the Secretary of the department in which the Coast Guard is operating, that establish specifications for safe transportation, handling, carriage, and storage of pollutants.
(q) Navigation: Any conditions that the Secretary of the Army considers necessary to ensure that navigation and anchorage will not be substantially impaired, in accordance with § 124.58.
(a) Outfalls and discharge points. All permit effluent limitations, standards, and prohibitions shall be established for each outfall or discharge point of the permitted facility, except as otherwise provided under § 122.44(j)(2) (BMPs where limitations are infeasible) and paragraph
(i) of this section (limitations on internal waste streams).
(b) Production-based limitations. (1) In the case of POTWs, permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions shall be calculated based on design flow.
[122.45(b)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2)(i) Except in the case of POTWs or as provided in paragraph
(b) (2)(ii) of this section, calculation of any permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions which are based on production (or other measure of operation) shall be based not upon the designed production capacity but rather upon a reasonable measure of actual production of the facility. For new sources or new dischargers, actual production shall be estimated using projected production. The time period of the measure of production shall correspond to the time period of the calculated permit limitations; for example, monthly production shall be used to calculate average monthly discharge limitations.
(ii)(A)(1) The Director may include a condition establishing alternate permit limitations, standards, or prohibitions based upon anticipated increase (not to exceed maximum production capability) or decreased production levels.
(2) For the automotive manufacturing industry only, the Regional Administrator shall, and the State Director may establish a condition under paragraph
(b) (2)(ii)(A)(1) of this section if the applicant satisfactorily demonstrates to the Director at the time the application is submitted that its actual production, as indicated in paragraph
(b) (2)(i) of this section, is substantially below maximum production capability and that there is a reasonable potential for an increase above actual production during the duration of the permit.
(b) (2)(ii)(A) of this section:
(1) The permit shall require the permittee to notify the Director at least two business days prior to a month in which the permittee expects to operate at a level higher than the lowest production level identified in the permit. The notice shall specify the anticipated level and the period during which the permittee expects to operate at the alternate level. If the notice covers more than one month, the notice shall specify the reasons for the anticipated production level increase. New notice of discharge at alternate levels is required to cover a period or production level not covered by prior notice or, if during two consecutive months otherwise covered by a notice, the production level at the permitted facility does not in fact meet the higher level designated in the notice.
(2) The permittee shall comply with the limitations, standards, or prohibitions that correspond to the lowest level of production specified in the permit, unless the permittee has notified the Director under paragraph
(b) (2)(ii)(B)(1) of this section, in which case the permittee shall comply with the lower of the actual level of production during each month or the level specified in the notice.
(3) The permittee shall submit with the DMR the level of production that actually occurred during each month and the limitations, standards, or prohibitions applicable to that level of production.
[122.45(c) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(c) Metals. All permit effluent limitations, standards, or prohibitions for a metal shall be expressed in terms of "total recoverable metal" as defined in 40 CFR Part 136 unless:
(1) An applicable effluent standard or limitation has been promulgated under the CWA and specifies the limitation for the metal in the dissolved or valent or total form; or
(2) In establishing permit limitations on a case-by-case basis under § 125.3, it is necessary to express the limitation on the metal in the dissolved or valent or total form to carry out the provisions of the CWA; or
(3) All approved analytical methods for the metal inherently measure only its dissolved form (e.g., hexavalent chromium).
(d) Continuous discharges. For continuous discharges all permit effluent limitations, standards, and prohibitions, including those necessary to achieve water quality standards, shall unless impracticable be stated as:
(1) Maximum daily and average monthly discharge limitations for all dischargers other than publicly owned treatment works; and
(2) Average weekly and average monthly discharge limitations for POTWs.
(e) Non-continuous discharges. Discharges which are not continuous, as defined in § 122.2, shall be particularly described and limited, considering the following factors, as appropriate:
(1) Frequency (for example, a batch discharge shall not occur more than once every 3 weeks);
(2) Total mass (for example, not to exceed 100 kilograms of zinc and 200
[Sec. 122.45(e)(2)]
3-29-85
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
5-734
131:1023
131:1024
kilograms of chromium per batch discharge);
(3) Maximum rate of discharge of pollutants during the discharge (for example, not to exceed 2 kilograms of zinc per minute); and
(4) Prohibition or limitation of specified pollutants by mass, concentration, or other appropriate measure (for example, shall not contain at any time more than 0.1 mg/1 zinc or more than 250 grams (1/2 kilogram) of zinc in any discharge).
(f) Mass limitations. (1) All pollutants limited in permits shall have limitations, standards or prohibitions expressed in terms of mass except:
(i) For pH, temperature, radiation, or other pollutants which cannot appropriately be expressed by mass;
(ii) When applicable standards and limitations are expressed in terms of other units of measurement; or
(iii) If in establishing permit limitations on a case-by-case basis under § 125.3, limitations expressed in terms of mass are infeasible because the mass of the pollutant discharged cannot be related to a measure of operation (for example, discharges of TSS from certain mining operations), and permit conditions ensure that dilution will not be used as a substitute for treatment.
(2) Pollutants limited in terms of mass additionally may be limited in terms of other units of measurement, and the permit shall require the permittee to comply with both limitations.
[122.45(g) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(g) Pollutants in intake water.
(1) Upon request of the discharger, technology-based effluent limitations or standards shall be adjusted to reflect credit for pollutants in the discharger's intake water if:
(i) The applicable effluent limitations and standards contained in 40 CFR Subchapter N specifically provide that they shall be applied on a net basis; or
(ii) The discharger demonstrates that the control system it proposes or uses to meet applicable technology-based limitations and standards would, if properly installed and operated, meet the limitations and standards in the absence of pollutants in the intake waters.
(2) Credit for generic pollutants such as biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) or total suspended solids (TSS) should not be granted unless the permittee demonstrates that the constituents of the generic measure in the effluent are substantially similar to the constituents of the generic measure in the intake water or unless appropriate additional limits are placed on process water pollutants either at the outfall or elsewhere.
(3) Credit shall be granted only to the extent necessary to meet the applicable limitation or standard, up to a maximum value equal to the influent value. Additional monitoring may be necessary to determine eligibility for credits and compliance with permit limits.
(4) Credit shall be granted only if the discharger demonstrates that the intake water is drawn from the same body of water into which the discharge is made. The Director may waive this requirement if he finds that no environmental degradation will result.
(5) This section does not apply to the discharge of raw water clarifier sludge generated from the treatment of intake water.
[122.45(h) deleted and
(i) redesignated as
(h) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(h) Internal waste streams. (1) When permit effluent limitations or standards imposed at the point of discharge are impractical or infeasible, effluent limitations or standards for discharges of pollutants may be imposed on internal waste streams before mixing with other waste streams or cooling water streams. In those instances, the monitoring required by § 122.44(i) shall also be applied to the internal waste streams.
(2) Limits on internal waste streams will be imposed only when the fact sheet under § 124.56 sets forth the exceptional circumstances which make such limitations necessary, such as when the final discharge point is inaccessible (for example, under 10 meters of water), the wastes at the point of discharge are so diluted as to make monitoring impracticable, or the interferences among pollutants at the point of discharge would make detection or analysis impracticable.
(i) Disposal of pollutants into wells, into POTWs or by land application. Permit limitations and standards shall be calculated as provided in § 122.50.
[122.45(j) redesignated as
(i) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(b) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0077).
[122.45 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
8 122.46 Duration of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25).
(a) NPDES permits shall be effective for a fixed term not to exceed 5 years.
(b) Except as provided in § 122.6, the term of a permit shall not be extended by modification beyond the maximum duration specified in this section.
[122.46(b) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(c) The Director may issue any permit for a duration that is less than the full allowable term under this section.
(d) A permit may be issued to expire on or after the statutory deadline set forth in section 301(b)(2) (A), (C), and (E) (July 1, 1984), if the permit includes effluent limitations to meet the requirements of sections 301(b)(2) (A), (C), (D), (E), and (F), whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated or approved.
[Former 122.46(d) removed and former
(e) revised and redesignated as
(d) by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
(e) A determination that a particular discharger falls within a given industrial category for purposes of setting a permit expiration date under paragraph
(d) of this section is not conclusive as to the discharger's inclusion in that industrial category for any other purposes, and does not prejudice any rights to challenge or change that inclusion at the time that a permit based on that determination is formulated.
[Former 122.46
(f) revised and redesignated as
(e) by 49 FR 31842, August 8, 1984]
8 122.47 Schedules of compliance.
(a) General (applicable to State programs, see § 122.25). The permit may, when appropriate, specify a schedule of compliance leading to compliance with CWA and regulations.
(1) Time for compliance. Any schedules of compliance under this section shall require compliance as soon as possible, but not later than the applicable statutory deadline under the CWA.
(2) The first NPDES permit issued to a new source or a new discharger shall contain a schedule of compliance only when necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with requirements issued or revised after commencement of construction but less than three years before commencement of the relevant discharge. For recommencing dischargers, a schedule of compliance shall be available only
[Sec. 122.47(a)(2)]
When necessary to allow a reasonable opportunity to attain compliance with requirements issued or revised less than three years before recommencement of discharge.
(122.47(a)(3) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984)
(3) Interim dates. Except as provided in paragraph
(b) (1)(ii), if a permit establishes a schedule of compliance which exceeds 1 year from the date of permit issuance, the schedule shall set forth interim requirements and the dates for their achievement.
(i) The time between interim dates shall not exceed 1 year.
(ii) If the time necessary for completion of any interim requirement (such as the construction of a control facility) is more than 1 year and is not readily divisible into stages for completion, the permit shall specify interim dates for the submission of reports of progress toward completion of the interim requirements and indicate a projected completion date.
Note: Examples of interim requirements include:
(a) submit a complete Step 1 construction grant (for POTWs);
(b) let a contract for construction of required facilities;
(c) commence construction of required facilities;
(d) complete construction of required facilities.
(4) Reporting. The permit shall be written to require that no later than 14 days following each interim date and the final date of compliance, the permittee shall notify the Director in writing of its compliance or noncompliance with the interim or final requirements, or submit progress reports if paragraph
(a) (3)(ii) is applicable.
(122.47(a)(4) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(b) Alternative schedules of compliance. An NPDES permit applicant or permittee may cease conducting regulated activities (by terminating of direct discharge for NPDES sources) rather than continuing to operate and meet permit requirements as follows:
(1) If the permittee decides to cease conducting regulated activities at a given time within the term of a permit which has already been issued:
(i) The permit may be modified to contain a new or additional schedule leading to timely cessation of activities; or
(ii) The permittee shall cease conducting permitted activities before non-compliance with any interim or final compliance schedule requirement already specified in the permit.
(2) If the decision to cease conducting regulated activities is made before issuance of a permit whose term will include the termination date, the permit shall contain a schedule leading to termination which will ensure timely compliance with applicable requirements no later than the statutory deadline.
(3) If the permittee is undecided whether to cease conducting regulated activities, the Director may issue or modify a permit to contain two schedules as follows:
(i) Both schedules shall contain an identical interim deadline requiring a final decision on whether to cease conducting regulated activities no later than a date which ensures sufficient time to comply with applicable requirements in a timely manner if the decision is to continue conducting regulated activities;
(ii) One schedule shall lead to timely compliance with applicable requirements, no later than the statutory deadline;
(iii) The second schedule shall lead to cessation of regulated activities by a date which will ensure timely compliance with applicable requirements no later than the statutory deadline.
(iv) Each permit containing two schedules shall include a requirement that after the permittee has made a final decision under paragraph
(b) (3)(i) of this section it shall follow the schedule leading to compliance if the decision is to continue conducting regulated activities, and follow the schedule leading to termination if the decision is to cease conducting regulated activities.
(4) The applicant's or permittee's decision to cease conducting regulated activities shall be evidenced by a firm public commitment satisfactory to the Director, such as a resolution of the board of directors of a corporation.
All permits shall specify:
(a) Requirements concerning the proper use, maintenance, and installation, when appropriate, of monitoring equipment or methods (including biological monitoring methods when appropriate);
(b) Required monitoring including type, intervals, and frequency sufficient to yield data which are representative of the monitored activity including, when appropriate, continuous monitoring;
(c) Applicable reporting requirements based upon the impact of the regulated activity and as specified in § 122.44. Reporting shall be no less frequent than specified in the above regulation.
(122.48(c) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985)
(122.49 introductory paragraph revised by 48 FR 39619, September 1, 1983)
The following is a list of Federal laws that may apply to the issuance of permits under these rules. When any of these laws is applicable, its procedures must be followed. When the applicable law requires consideration or adoption of particular permit conditions or requires the denial of a permit, those requirements also must be followed.
(a) The Wild and Scenic Rivers Act, 16 U.S.C. 1273 et seq. Section 7 of the Act prohibits the Regional Administrator from assisting by license or otherwise the construction of any water resources project that would have a direct, adverse effect on the values for which a national wild and scenic river was established.
(b) The National Historic Preservation Act of 1966, 16 U.S.C. 470 et seq. Section 106 of the Act and implementing regulations (36 CFR Part 800) require the Regional Administrator, before issuing a license, to adopt measures when feasible to mitigate potential adverse effects of the licensed activity and properties listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places. The Act's requirements are to be implemented in cooperation with State Historic Preservation Officers and upon notice to, and when appropriate, in consultation with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation.
(c) The Endangered Species Act, 16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq. Section 7 of the Act and implementing regulations (50 CFR Part 402) require the Regional Administrator to ensure, in consultation with the Secretary of the Interior or Commerce, that any action authorized by EPA is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or adversely affect its critical habitat.
(d) The Coastal Zone Management Act, 16 U.S.C. 1451 et seq. Section 307(c) of the Act and implementing regulations
[Sec. 122.49(d)]
131:1026
(15 CFR Part 930) prohibit EPA from issuing a permit for an activity affecting land or water use in the coastal zone until the applicant certifies that the proposed activity complies with the State Coastal Zone Management program, and the State or its designated agency concurs with the certification (or the Secretary of Commerce overrides the State's nonconcurrence).
(e) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act, 16 U.S.C. 661 et seq., requires that the Regional Administrator, before issuing a permit proposing or authorizing the impoundment (with certain exemptions), diversion, or other control or modification of any body of water, consult with the appropriate State agency exercising jurisdiction over wildlife resources to conserve those resources.
(f) Executive orders. [Reserved.]
(g) The National Environmental Policy Act, 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq., may require preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement and consideration of EIS-related permit conditions (other than effluent limitations) as provided in § 122.29(c).
[122.49(g) amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
§ 122.50 Disposal of pollutants into wells, into publicly owned treatment works or by land application (applicable to State NPDES programs, see § 123.25).
(a) When part of a discharger's process wastewater is not being discharged into waters of the United States or contiguous zone because it is disposed into a well, into a POTW, or by land application thereby reducing the flow or level of pollutants being discharged into waters of the United States, applicable effluent standards and limitations for the discharge in an NPDES permit shall be adjusted to reflect the reduced raw waste resulting from such disposal. Effluent limitations and standards in the permit shall be calculated by one of the following methods:
(1) If none of the waste from a particular process is discharged into waters of the United States, and effluent limitations guidelines provide separate allocation for wastes from that process, all allocations for the process shall be eliminated from calculation of permit effluent limitations or standards.
[122.50(a)(2) revised by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(2) In all cases other than those described in paragraph
(a) (1) of this section, effluent limitations shall be adjusted by multiplying the effluent limitation derived by applying effluent limitation guidelines to the total waste stream by the amount of wastewater flow to be treated and discharged into waters of the United States, and dividing the result by the total wastewater flow. Effluent limitations and standards so calculated may be further adjusted under Part 125, Subpart D to make them more or less stringent if discharges to wells, publicly owned treatment works, or by land application change the character or treatability of the pollutants being discharged to receiving waters. This method may be algebraically expressed as:
$$p = \frac{E imes N}{T}$$
where P is the permit effluent limitation, E is the limitation derived by applying effluent guidelines to the total wastewaters, N is the wastewater flow to be treated and discharged to waters of the United States, and T is the total wastewater flow.
(b) Paragraph
(a) of this section does not apply to the extent that promulgated effluent limitations guidelines:
(1) Control concentrations of pollutants discharged but not mass; or
(2) Specify a different specific technique for adjusting effluent limitations to account for well injection, land application, or disposal into POTWs.
(c) Paragraph
(a) of this section does not alter a discharger's obligation to meet any more stringent requirements established under §§ 122.41, 122.42, 122.43, and 122.44.
Subpart D—Transfer, Modification, Revocation and Reissuance, and Termination of Permits
§ 122.61 Transfer of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) Transfers by modification. Except as provided in paragraph
(b) of this section, a permit may be transferred by the permittee to a new owner or operator only if the permit has been modified or revoked and reissued (under § 122.62(b)(2)), or a minor modification made (under § 122.63(d)), to identify the new permittee and incorporate such other requirements as may be necessary under CWA.
(b) Automatic transfers. As an alternative to transfers under paragraph
(a) of this section, any NPDES permit may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if:
(1) The current permittee notifies the Director at least 30 days in advance of the proposed transfer date in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section;
(2) The notice includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and
(3) The Director does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of his or her intent to modify or revoke and reissue the permit. A modification under the subparagraph may also be a minor modification under § 122.63. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the date specified in the agreement mentioned in paragraph
(b) (2) of this section.
§ 122.62 Modification or revocation and reissuance of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
When the Director receives any information (for example, inspects the facility, receives information submitted by the permittee as required in the permit (see § 122.41), receives a request for modification or revocation and reissuance under § 124.5, or conducts a review of the permit file) he or she may determine whether or not one or more of the causes listed in paragraphs
(a) and
(b) of this section for modification or revocation and reissuance or both exist. If cause exists, the Director may modify or revoke and reissue the permit accordingly, subject to the limitations of paragraph
(c) of this section, and may request an updated application if necessary. When a permit is modified, only the conditions subject to modification are reopened. If a permit is revoked and reissued, the entire permit is reopened and subject to revision and the permit is reissued for a new term. See §124.5(c)(2). If cause does not exist under this section or §122.63, the Director shall not modify or revoke and reissue the permit. If a permit modification satisfies the criteria in §122.63 for "minor modifications" the permit may be modified without a draft permit or public review. Otherwise, a draft permit must be prepared and other procedures in Part 124 (or proceed).
dures of an approved State program) followed.
(a) Causes for modification. The following are causes for modification but not revocation and reissuance of permits except when the permittee requests or agrees.
(1) Alterations. There are material and substantial alteration or additions to the permitted facility or activity which occurred after permit issuance which justify the application of permit conditions that are different or absent in the existing permit.
[Note. - Certain reconstruction activities may cause the new source provisions of §122.29 to be applicable.]
(2) Information. The Director has received new information. Permits may be modified during their terms for this cause only if the information was not available at the time of permit issuance (other than revised regulations, guidance, or test methods) and would have justified the application of different permit conditions at the time of issuance. For NPDES general permits (§122.28) this cause includes any information indicating that cumulative effects on the environment are unacceptable.
(3) New regulations. The standards or regulations on which the permit was based have been changed by promulgation of amended standards or regulations or by judicial decision after the permit was issued. Permits may be modified during their terms for this cause only as follows:
(i) For promulgation of amended standards or regulations, when:
(A) The permit condition requested to be modified was based on a promulgated effluent limitation guideline, EPA approved or promulgated water quality standards, or the Secondary Treatment Regulations under Part 133; and
[122.62(a)(3)(ii)A] amended by 49 FR 37009, September 20, 1984]
(B) EPA has revised, withdrawn, or modified that portion of the regulation or effluent limitation guideline on which the permit condition was based, or has approved a State action with regard to a water quality standard on which the permit condition was based; and
(C) A permittee requests modification in accordance with §124.5 within ninety (90) days after Federal Register notice of the action on which the request is based.
(ii) For judicial decisions, a court of competent jurisdiction has remanded and stayed EPA promulgated regulations or effluent limitation guidelines, if the remand and stay concern that portion of the regulations or guidelines on which the permit condition was based and a request is filed by the permittee in accordance with §124.5 within ninety (90) days of judicial remand.
(iii) For changes based upon modified State certifications of NPDES permits, see §124.55(b).
(4) Compliance schedules. The Director determines good cause exists for modification of a compliance schedule, such as an act of God, strike, flood, or materials shortage or other events over which the permittee has little or no control and for which there is no reasonably available remedy. However, in no case may an NPDES compliance schedule be modified to extend beyond an applicable CWA statutory deadline. See also §122.63(c) (minor modifications) and paragraph
(a) (14) of this section (NPDES innovative technology).
(5) When the permittee has filed a request for a variance under CWA section 301(c), 301(h), 301(i), 301(k), or 316(a) or for "fundamentally different factors" within the time specified in §§122.21 or 125.27(a).
[122.62(a)(5) revised by 49 FR 25981, June 25, 1984]
(6) 307(a) toxics. When required to incorporate an applicable 307(a) toxic effluent standard or prohibition (see §122.44(b)).
(7) Re:penet. When required by the "reopenet" conditions in a permit, which are established in the permit under §122.44(b) (for CWA toxic effluent limitations) or 40 CFR 403.10(d) (pretreatment program), except that when a modification clause established under 40 CFR 403.10(d) relates to the incorporation in a POTW's permit of a pretreatment program approved in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR 403.11, such modification shall be deemed a minor modification subject to the procedures in §122.63.
[122.62(a)(7) revised by 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986]
(8)(i) Net limits. Upon request of a permittee who qualifies for effluent limitation, as provided in §122.45(b)(1)(ii)(B).
(9) Pretreatment. As necessary under 40 CFR 403.8(e) (compliance schedule for development of pretreatment program).
(10) Failure to notify. Upon failure of an approved State to notify, as required by section 402(b)(3), another State whose waters may be affected by a discharge from the approved State.
(11) Non-limited pollutants. When the level of discharge of any pollutant which is not limited in the permit exceeds the level which can be achieved by the technology-based treatment requirements appropriate to the permittee under §125.3(c).
[122.62(a)(12) removed and (13)-(15) redesignated as (12)-(14) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(12) Notification levels. To establish a "notification level" as provided in §122.44(f).
(13) Compliance schedules. To modify a schedule of compliance to reflect the time lost during construction of an innovative or alternative facility, in the case of a POTW which has received a grant under section 202(a)(3) of CWA for 100% of the costs to modify or replace facilities constructed with a grant for innovative and alternative wastewater technology under section 202(a)(2). In no case shall the compliance schedule be modified to extend beyond an applicable CWA statutory deadline for compliance.
(14) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after August 19, 1981, if the permittee shows good cause for the modification, to conform to changes respecting the following regulations issued under the Settlement Agreement dated November 16, 1981, in connection with Natural Resources Defense Council v. EPA, No. 80-1607 and consolidated cases: §122.41(c) and
(d) .
[122.62(a)(15) added by 49 FR 39619, September 1, 1983; redesignated as (14) by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
[New 122.62(a)(15)-(18) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(15) When the permittee's effluent limitations were imposed under section 402(a)(1) of the CWA and the permittee demonstrates operation and maintenance costs that are totally disproportionate from the operation and maintenance costs considered in the development of a subse
[Sec. 122.62(a)(15)]
7-11-86
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
181
131:1028
guideline, but in no case may the limitations be made less stringent than the subsequent guideline.
(16) To correct technical mistakes, such as errors in calculation, or mistaken interpretations of law made in determining permit conditions.
(17) When the discharger has installed the treatment technology considered by the permit writer in setting effluent limitations imposed under section 402(a)(1) of the CWA and has properly operated and maintained the facilities but nevertheless has been unable to achieve those effluent limitations. In this case, the limitations in the modified permit may reflect the level of pollutant control actually achieved (but shall not be less stringent than required by a subsequently promulgated effluent limitations guideline).
(18) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after March 9, 1982, and the permittee applies for the modification no later than January 24, 1985, if the permittee shows good cause in its request and that it qualifies for the modification, to conform to changes respecting the following regulations issued under that Settlement Agreement:
(b) Causes for modification or revocation and reissuance. The following are causes to modify or, alternatively, revoke and reissue a permit:
(1) Cause exists for termination under § 122.64, and the Director determines that modification or revocation and reissuance is appropriate.
(2) The Director has received notification (as required in the permit, see § 122.41(i)(3)) of a proposed transfer of the permit. A permit also may be modified to reflect a transfer after the effective date of an automatic transfer (§ 122.61(b)) but will not be revoked and reissued after the effective date of the transfer except upon the request of the new permittee.
(Information collection requirements in paragraph
(a) were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2040-0058)
[122.62 amended by 50 FR 4513, January 31, 1985]
§ 122.63 Minor modifications of permits.
Upon the consent of the permittee, the Director may modify a permit to make the corrections or allowances for changes in the permitted activity listed in this section, without following the procedures of Part 124. Any permit modification, not processed as a minor modification under this section, must be made for cause and with Part 124 draft permit and public notice as required in § 122.62. Minor modifications may only:
(a) Correct typographical errors;
(b) Require more frequent monitoring or reporting by the permittee;
(c) Change an interim compliance date in a schedule of compliance, provided the new date is not more than 120 days after the date specified in the existing permit and does not interfere with attainment of the final compliance date requirement; or
(d) Allow for a change in ownership or operational control of a facility where the Director determines that no other change in the permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between the current and new permittees has been submitted to the Director.
(e) (1) Change the construction schedule for a discharger which is a new source. No such change shall affect a discharger's obligation to have all pollution control equipment installed and in operation prior to discharge under § 122.29.
(2) Delete a point source outfall when the discharge from that outfall is terminated and does not result in discharge of pollutants from other outfalls except in accordance with permit limits.
(f) When the permit becomes final and effective on or after March 9, 1982, conform to changes respecting §§ 122.41(e), 122.41(m)(4)(i)(B), 122.41(n)(3)(i) and 122.42(a) issued September 26, 1984.
[122.63(f) added by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984]
(c) Incorporate conditions of a POTW pre-treatment program that has been approved in accordance with the procedures in 40 CFR 40.11 as enforceable conditions of the POTW's permit.
[122.63(g) added by 51 FR 20430, June 4, 1986]
§ 122.64 Termination of permits (applicable to State programs, see § 123.25).
(a) The following are causes for terminating a permit during its term, or for denying a permit renewal application:
(1) Noncompliance by the permittee with any condition of the permit;
(2) The permittee's failure in the application or during the permit issuance process to disclose fully all relevant facts or the permittee's misrepresentation of any relevant facts at any time:
[122.64(a)(2), (3) corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
(3) A determination that the permitted activity endangers human health or the environment and can only be regulated to acceptable levels by permit modification or termination; or
(4) A change in any condition that requires either a temporary or a permanent reduction or elimination of any discharge controlled by the permit (for example, plant closure or termination of discharge by connection to a POTW).
(b) The Director shall follow the applicable procedures in Part 124 or State procedures in terminating any NPDES permit under this section.
APPENDIX A—NPDES PRIMARY INDUSTRY CATEGORIES
Any permit issued after June 30, 1981 to dischargers in the following categories shall include effluent limitations and a compliance schedule to meet the requirements of section 301(b)(2)(A), (C), (D), (E) and (F) of CWA, whether or not applicable effluent limitations guidelines have been promulgated. See §§ 122.44 and 122.46.
Industry Category
Adhesives and sealants
Aluminum forming
Auto and other laundries
Battery manufacturing
Coal mining
Coil coating
Copper forming
Electrical and electronic components
Electroplating
Explosives manufacturing
Foundries
Gum and wood chemicals
Inorganic chemicals manufacturing
Iron and steel manufacturing
Lenther tanning and finishing
Mechanical products manufacturing
Nonferrous metals manufacturing
Ore mining
Organic chemicals manufacturing
Paint and ink formulation
Pesticides
Petroleum refining
Pharmaceutical preparations
Photographic equipment and supplies
Plastics processing
Plastic and synthetic materials manufacturing
Porcelain enameling
Printing and publishing
Pulp and paper mills
Rubber processing
Susp and detergent manufacturing
Steam electric power plants
Environment Reporter
[Appendix A]
182
Timber Products Processing
An animal feeding operation is a concentrated animal feeding operation for purposes of $122.23 if either of the following criteria are met.
(a) More than the numbers of animals specified in any of the following categories are confined: (1) 1,000 slaughter and feeder cattle, (2) 700 mature dairy cattle (whether milked or dry cows), (3) 2,500 swine each weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds), (4) 500 horses, (5) 10,000 sheep or lambs, (6) 55,000 turkeys, (7) 100,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has continuous overflow watering), (8) 30,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has a liquid manure system), (9) 5,000 ducks, or (10) 1,000 animal units; or
(b) More than the following number and types of animals are confined: (1) 300 slaughter or feeder cattle, (2) 200 mature dairy cattle (whether milked or dry cows), (3) 750 swine each weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds), (4) 150 horses, (5) 3,000 sheep or lambs, (6) 16,500 turkeys, (7) 30,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has continuous overflow watering), (8) 9,000 laying hens or broilers (if the facility has a liquid manure handling system), (9) 1,500 ducks, or (10) 300 animal units; and either one of the following conditions are met: pollutants are discharged into navigable waters through a manmade ditch, flushing system or other similar man-made device; or pollutants are discharged directly into waters of the United States which originate outside of and pass over, across, or through the facility or otherwise come into direct contact with the animals confined in the operation. Provided, however, that no animal feeding operation is a concentrated animal feeding operation as defined above if such animal feeding operation discharges only in the event of a 25 year, 24 -hour storm event. The term "animal unit" means a unit of measurement for any animal feeding operation calculated by adding the following numbers: the number of slaughter and feeder cattle multiplied by 1.0 , plus the number of mature dairy cattle multiplied by 1.4 , plus the number of swine weighing over 25 kilograms (approximately 55 pounds) multiplied by 0.4 , plus the number of sheep multiplied by 0.1 , plus the number of horses multiplied by 2.0 . The term "manmade" means constructed by man and used for the purpose of transporting wastes.
A hatchery, fish farm, or other facility is a concentrated aquatic animal production facility for purposes of $122.24 if it contains, grows, or holds aquatic animals in either of the following categories:
(a) Cold water fish species or other cold water aquatic animals in ponds, raceways, or other similar structures which discharge at least 30 days per year but does not include: (1) Facilities which produce less than 9,090 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 20,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year; and (2) Facilities which feed less than 2,272 kilograms (approximately 5,000 pounds) of food during the calendar month of maximum feeding.
(b) Warm water fish species or other warm water aquatic animals in ponds, raceways, or other similar structures which discharge at least 30 days per year, but does not include: (1) Closed ponds which discharge only during periods of excess runoff; or (2) Facilities which produce less than 45,454 harvest weight kilograms (approximately 100,000 pounds) of aquatic animals per year. "Cold water aquatic animals" include, but are not limited to, the Salmonellae family of fish; e.g., trout and salmon. "Warm water aquatic animals" include, but are not limited to, the Ameiuride, Centrarchidae and Cyprinidae families of fish; e.g., respectively, catfish, sunfish and minnows.
Table I.-Testing Requirements for ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRIAL CATEGORY FOR EXISTING DISCHANGERS
Industrial category | GC/MS Fraction ¹ | |||
---|---|---|---|---|
Volatile | Acid | Base/ neutral | Peat- cida | |
Adhesives and Sealants | ||||
Aluminum Forming | * | * | * | |
Auto and Other | ||||
Launches | * | * | * | |
Battery Manufacturing | * | * | * | |
Coal Mining | * | * | * | |
Coil Coating | * | * | * | |
Copper Forming | * | * | * |
Table II.-Organic Toxic Pollutants in Each of Four Fractions in Analysis by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectroscopy (GS/ MS) [Appendix D - Table II corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
1V acrolein 2V acrylonitrile $3 V$ benzene $5 V$ bromoform $6 V$ carbon tetrachloride $7 V$ chlorobenzene $8 V$ chlorodibromomethane $9 V$ chloroethane $10 V$ 2-chloroethylvinyl ether $11 V$ chloroform $12 V$ dichlorobromomethane $14 V$ 1,1-dichloroethane $15 V$ 1,2-dichloroethane $16 V$ 1,1-dichloroethylene $17 V$ 1,2-dichloropropane $18 V$ 1,3-dichloropropylene $19 V$ ethylbenzene
Table II.-Organic Toxic Pollutants in Each of Four Fractions in Analysis by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectroscopy (GS/ MS)
20 V methyl bromide 21 V methyl chloride 22 V methylene chloride 23 V 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane 24 V tetrachloroethylene 25 V toluene 26 V 1,2-trans-dichloroethylene / 27 V 1,1,1-trichloroethane 28 V 1,1,2-trichloroethane 29 V trichloroethylene 31 V vinyl chloride
1A 2-chlorophenol 2A 2,4-dichlorophenol 3A 2,4-dimethylphenol 4A 4,6-dinitro-o-cresol 5A 2,4-dinitrophenol 6A 2-nitrophenol 7A 4-nitrophenol 8A p-chloro-m-cresol 9A pentachlorophenol 10A phenol 11A 2,4,6-trichlorophenol
1B acenaphthene 2B acenaphthylene 3B anthracene 4B benzidine 5B benzo(a)anthracene 6B benzo(a)pyrene 7B 3,4-benzofluoranthene 8B benzo(ghi)perylene 9B benzo(k)fluoranthene 10B bis(2-chloroethoxy)methane 11B bis(2-chloroethyl)ether 12B bis(2-chloroisopropyl)ether 13B bis (2-ethylhexyl)phthalate 14B 4-bromophenyl phenyl ether 15B butylbenzyl phthalate 16B 2-chloronaphthalene 17B 4-chlorophenyl phenyl ether 18B chrysene 19B dibenzo(a,h)anthracene 20B 1,2-dichlorobenzene 21B 1,3-dichlorobenzene 22B 1,4-dichlorobenzene 23B 3,3'-dichlorobenzidine 24B diethyl phthalate 25B dimethyl phthalate 26B di-n-butyl phthalate 27B 2,4-dinitrotoluene 28B 2,6-dinitrotoluene 29B di-n-octyl phthalate 30B 1,2-diphenylhydrazine (as azobenzene) 31B furoranthene 32B fluorene 33B hexachlorobenzene 34B hexachlorobutadiene 35B hexachlorocyclopentadiene 36B hexachloroethane
37B indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene 38B isophorone 39B napthalene 40B nitrobenzene 41B N -nitrosodimethylamine 42B N -nitrosodi-n-propylamine 43B N -nitrosodiphenylamine 44B phenanthrene 45B pyrene 46B 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene
1P aldrin 2P alpha-BHC 3P beta-BHC 4P gamma-BHC 5P delta-BHC 6P chlordane 7P 4,4'-DDT 8P 4,4'-DDE 9P 4,4'-DDD 10P dieldrin 11P alpha-endosulfan 12P beta-endosulfan 13P endosulfan sulfate 14P endrin 15P endrin aldehyde 16P 'eptechlor 17P heptachlor epoxide 18P PCB-1242 19P PCB-1254 20P PCB-1221 21P PCB-1232 22P PCB-1248 23P PCB-1260 24P PCB-1016 25P toxaphene Table III.-Other Toxic Pollutants: (Metals, Cyanide) and Total Phenols [Table III head amended by 49 FR 38046, September 26, 1984] Antimony, Total Arsenic, Total Beryllium, Total Cadmium, Total Chromium, Total Copper, Total Lead, Total Mercury, Total Nickel, Total Selenium, Total Silver, Total Thallium, Total Zinc, Total Cyanide, Total Phenols, Total Table IV.-Conventional and Nonconventional Pollutants Required To Be Tested by Existing Dischargers if Expected to be Present Bromide Chlorine, Total Residual Color Fecal Coliform Fluoride Nitrate-Nitrite
Nitrogen, Total Organic Oil and Grease Phosphorus, Total Radioactivity Sulfate Sulfide Sulfite Surfactants Aluminum, Total Barium, Total Boron, Total Cobalt, Total Iron, Total Magnesium, Total Molybdenum, Total Manganese, Total Tin, Total Titanium, Total Table V.-Toxic Pollutants and Hazardous Substances Required To Be Identified by Existing Dischargers if Expected To Be Present [Appendix D - Table V, corrected by 50 FR 6940, February 19, 1985]
Asbestos Hazardous Substances Acetaldehyde Allyl alcohol Allyl chloride Amyl acetate Aniline Benzonitrile Benzyl chloride Butyl acetate Butylamine Cepian Carbaryl Carbofuran Carbon disulfide Chlorpyrifos Coumaphos Cresol Crotonaldehyde Cyclohexane 2,4-D (2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) Diazinon Dicamba Dichlobenil Dichlone 2,2-Dichloropropionic acid Dichlorvos Diethyl amine Dimethyl amine Dintrobenzene Dipust Disulfoton Diuron Epichlorohydrin Ethion Ethylene diamine Ethylene dibromide Formaldehyde Furfural
Component | Value |
---|---|
Guthion | |
Isoprene | |
Isopropanolamine | Dodecylbenzenesulfonate |
Keldhane | |
Kepone | |
Malathion | |
Mercapiodimethor | |
Methoxychlor | |
Methyl mercaptan | |
Methyl methacrylate | |
Methyl parathion | |
Mevinphos | |
Mexacarbate | |
Monoethyl amine | |
Monomethyl amine | |
Naled | |
Napthenic acid | |
Nitrotoluene | |
Parathion | |
Phenolsulfonate | |
Phosgene | |
Propargite | |
Propylene oxide | |
Pyrethrins | |
Quinoline | |
Resorcinol | |
Stronium | |
Strychnine | |
Styrene | |
2,4,5-T (2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy acetic acid) | |
TDE (Tetrachlorodiphenylethane) | |
2,4,5-TP [2-(2,4,5-Trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid] | |
Trichlorofan | |
Triethanolamine dodecylbenzenesulfonate | |
Triethylamine | |
Trimethylamine | |
Uronium | |
Vanadium | |
Vinyl acetate | |
Xylene | |
Xylenol | |
Zirconium |
Note: The Environmental Protection Agency has suspended the requirements of §122.21(g)(7)(ii)(A) and Table I of Appendix D as they apply to certain industrial categories. The suspensions are as follows:
This revision continues these suspensions.
For the duration of the suspensions, therefore, Table I effectively reads:
TABLE I—TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRY CATEGORY
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Adhesives and sealants | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Aluminum forming | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Auto and other aluminies | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Battery manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Coal mining | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Coal coating | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Copper forming | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Electric and electronic compounds | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Electroplating | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Explosives manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Foundries | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Gum and wood (all subparts except D and F) | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
TABLE II—TESTING REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANIC TOXIC POLLUTANTS BY INDUSTRY CATEGORY
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Phernal | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Subpart D—tail oil rosin | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Subpart F—rosin-based derivatives | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Inorganic chemicals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Iron and steel manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Leather tanning and finishing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Mechanical products manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Nonferrous metals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Ore mining supplies to the base and precious metals/subpart B | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Organic chemicals manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Paint and ink formulation | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Pesticides | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Petroleum refining | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Testing required. The portions in each fraction are listed in Item V-C.
Industry category | VOC-MS | VOC | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|---|
Pharmaceutical preparations | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Photographic equipment and supplies | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Plastic and synthetic materials manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Plastic processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Porcelain enameling | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Printing and publishing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Pulp and paperboard | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Holes—see footnote 1 | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Rubber processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Soap and detergent manufacturing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Steam electric power plants | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Textile mills (subpart C—Greige Mills are exempt from this table) | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Timber products processing | ☑ | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Pulp and Paperboard Mills
Subpart # | VOC-MS | NON-OXID | Pesticide |
---|---|---|---|
A | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
B | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
C | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
D | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
E | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
F | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
G | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
H | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
I | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
J | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
K | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
L | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
M | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
N | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
O | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
P | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
Q | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
R | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
S | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
T | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
U | ☑ | ☑ | ☐ |
*Must test. Do not test unless "reason to believe" is in the category. # Subparts are defined in 40 CFR Part 430.
[Appendix D]
ANEJO C-7 Subtítulo A Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) General Provisions Section 1004 (Definitions)
land or water so that such solid waste or hazardous waste or any constituent thereof may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters, including ground waters.
(4) The term 'Federal agency' means any department, agency, or other instrumentality of the Federal Government, any independent agency or establishment of the Federal Government including any Government corporation, and the Government Printing Office.
(5) The term 'hazardous waste' means a solid waste, or combination of solid wastes, which because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics may—
(A) cause, or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible, or incapaciting reversible, illness; or
(B) pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, or disposed of, or otherwise managed.
(6) The term 'hazardous waste generation' means the act or process of producing hazardous waste.
(7) The term 'hazardous waste management' means the systematic control of the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of hazardous wastes.
(8) For purposes of Federal financial assistance (other than rural communities assistance), the term 'implementation' does not include the acquisition, leasing, construction, or modification of facilities or equipment or the acquisition, leasing, or improvement of land.
(9) The term 'intermunicipal agency' means an agency established by two or more municipalities with responsibility for planning or administration of solid waste.
(10) The term 'interstate agency' means an agency of two or more municipalities in different States, or an agency established by two or more States, with authority to provide for the management of solid wastes and serving two or more municipalities located in different States.
(11) The term 'long-term contract' means, when used in relation to solid waste supply, a contract of sufficient duration to assure the viability of a resource recovery facility (to the extent that such viability depends upon solid waste supply).
(12) The term 'manifest' means the form used for identifying the quantity, composition, and the origin, routing, and destination of hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.
(13) The term 'municipality' (A) means a city, town, borough, county, parish, district, or other public body created by or pursuant to State law, with responsibility for the planning or administration of solid waste management, or an Indian tribe or authorized tribal organization or Alaska Native village or organization, and (B) includes any rural community or unincorporated town or village or any other public entity for which an application for assistance is made by a State or political subdivision thereof.
(14) The term 'open dump' means any facility or site where solid waste is disposed of which is not a sanitary landfill which meets the criteria promulgated under section 4004 and which is not a facility for disposal of hazardous waste.
[1004(14) revised by PL 96-482]
(15) The term 'person' means an individual, trust, firm, joint stock company, corporation (including a government corporation), partnership, association, State, municipality, commission, political subdivision of a State, or any interstate body.
(16) The term 'procurement item' means any device, good, substance, material, product, or other item whether real or personal property which is the subject of any purchase, barter, or other exchange made to procure such item.
(17) The term 'procuring agency' means any Federal agency, or any State agency or agency of a political subdivision of a State which is using appropriated Federal funds for such procurement, or any person contracting with any such agency with respect to work performed under such contract.
(18) The term 'recoverable' refers to the capability and likelihood of being recovered from solid waste for a commercial or industrial use.
(19) The term 'recovered material' means waste material and byproducts which have been recovered or diverted from solid waste, but such terms does not include those materials and byproducts generated from, and commonly reused within, an original manufacturing process.
[1004(19) revised by PL 96-482]
(20) The term 'recovered resources' means material or energy recovered from solid waste.
(21) The term 'resource conservation' means reduction of the amounts of solid waste that are generated, reduction of overall resource consumption, and utilization of recovered resources.
(22) The term 'resource recovery' means the recovery of material or energy from solid waste.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
71:3106
"(23) The term 'resource recovery system' means a solid waste management system which provides for collection, separation, recycling, and recovery of solid wastes, including disposal of nonrecoverable waste residues.
"(24) The term 'resource recovery facility' means any facility at which solid waste is processed for the purpose of extracting, converting to energy, or otherwise separating and preparing solid waste for reuse.
"(25) The term 'regional authority' means the authority established or designated under section 4006.
"(26) The term 'sanitary landfill' means a facility for the disposal of solid waste which meets the criteria published under section 4004.
"(26A) The term 'sludge' means any solid, semisolid or liquid waste generated from a municipal, commercial, or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such waste having similar characteristics and effects.
"(27) The term 'solid waste' means any garbage, refuse, sludge from a waste treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility and other discarded material, including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural operations, and from community activities, but does not include solid or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved materials in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges which are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, as amended (86 Stat. 880), or source, special nuclear, or byproduct material as defined by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (68 Stat. 923).
"(28) The term 'solid waste management' means the systematic administration of activities which provide for the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, transfer, processing, treatment, and disposal of solid waste.
"(29) The term 'solid waste management facility' includes (A) any resource recovery system or component thereof, (B) any system, program, or facility for resource conservation, and (C) any facility for the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, transfer, processing, treatment or disposal of solid wastes including hazardous wastes, whether such facility is associated with facilities generating such wastes or otherwise.
"(30) The terms 'solid waste planning,' 'solid waste management,' and 'comprehensive planning' include planning or management respecting resource recovery and resource conservation.
"(31) The term 'State' means any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
"(32) The term 'State authority' means the agency established or designated under section 4007.
"(33) The term 'storage,' when used in connection with hazardous waste, means the containment of hazardous waste, either on a temporary basis or for a period of years, in such a manner as not to constitute disposal of such hazardous waste.
"(34) The term 'treatment', when used in connection with hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process, including neutralization, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any hazardous waste so as to neutralize such waste or so as to render such waste nonhazardous, safer for transport, amenable for recovery, amenable for storage, or reduced in volume. Such term includes any activity or processing designed to change the physical form or chemical composition of hazardous waste so as to render it nonhazardous.
"(35) The term 'virgin material' means a raw material, including previously unused copper, aluminum, lead, zinc, iron, or other metal or metal ore, any undeveloped resource that is, or with new technology will become, a source of raw materials.
"(36) The term 'used oil' means any oil which has been—
"(A) refined from crude oil,
"(B) used, and
"(C) as a result of such use, contaminated by physical or chemical impurities.
"(37) The term 'recycled oil' means any used oil which is reused, following its original use, for any purpose (including the purpose for which the oil was originally used). Such term includes oil which is re-refined, reclaimed, burned, or reprocessed.
"(38) The term 'lubricating oil' means the fraction of crude oil which is sold for purposes of reducing friction in any industrial or mechanical device. Such term includes re-refined oil.
"(39) The term 're-refined oil' means used oil from which the physical and chemical contaminants acquired through previous use have been removed through a refining process.
(1004(36) through (39) added by PL 96-463]
"Governmental Cooperation
"Sec. 1005.
(a) Interstate Cooperation.—The provisions of this Act to be carried out by States may be car-
ANEJO C-8 Subtítulo C Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Manejo de Desperdicios Peligrosos
man shall not affect any procedures for grievances, appeals, or administrative matters in any other provision of this Act, any other provision of law, or any Federal regulation.
The Office of the Ombudsman shall cease to exist 4 years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
[2008 added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3001.
(a) Criteria for Identification or Listing—Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Administrator shall, after notice and opportunity for public hearing, and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, develop and promulgate criteria for identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste, and for listing hazardous waste, which should be subject to the provisions of this subtitle, taking into account toxicity, persistence, and degradability in nature, potential for accumulation in tissue, and other related factors such as flammability, corrosiveness, and other hazardous characteristics. Such criteria shall be revised from time to time as may be appropriate.
"(b)(1) Identification and Listing.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and after notice and opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste, and listing particular hazardous wastes (within the meaning of section 1004(5)), which shall be subject to the provisions of this subtitle. Such regulations shall be based on the criteria promulgated under subsection
(a) and shall be revised from time to time thereafter as may be appropriate. The Administrator, in cooperation with the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry and the National Toxicology Program, shall also identify or list those hazardous wastes which shall be subject to the provisions of this subtitle solely because of the presence in such wastes of certain constituents (such as identified carcinogens, mutagens, or teratagens) at levels in excess of levels which endanger human health.
[3001(b)(1) designated by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616]
"(2)(A) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil or natural gas or geothermal energy shall be subject only to existing State or Federal regulatory programs in lieu of subtitle C until at least 24 months after the date of enactment of the Solid Waste Disposal Act Amendments of 1980 and after promulgation of the regulations in accordance with subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this paragraph. It is the sense of the Congress that such State or Federal programs should include, for waste disposal sites which are to be closed, provisions requiring at least the following:
"(i) The identification through surveying, platting, or other measures, together with recordation of such information on the public record, so as to assure that the location where such wastes are disposed of can be located in the future; except however, that no such surveying, platting, or other measure identifying the location of a disposal site for drilling fluids and associated wastes shall be required if the distance from the disposal site to the surveyed or platted location to the associated well is less than two hundred lineal feet; and
"(ii) A chemical and physical analysis of a produced water and a composition of a drilling fluid suspected to contain a hazardous material, with such information to be acquired prior to closure and to be placed on the public record.
"(B) Not later than six months after completion and submission of the study required by section 8002(m) of this Act, the Administrator shall, after public hearings and opportunity for comment, determine either to promulgate regulations under this subtitle for drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil or natural gas or geothermal energy or that such regulations are unwarranted. The Administrator shall publish his decision in the Federal Register accompanied by an explanation and justification of the reasons for it. In making the decision under this paragraph, the Administrator shall utilize the information developed or accumulated pursuant to the study required under section 8002(m).
"(C) The Administrator shall transmit his decision, along with any regulations, if necessary, to both Houses of Congress. Such regulations shall take effect only when authorized by Act of Congress.
[3001(b)(2) added by PL 96-482]
"(3)(A) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, each waste listed below shall, except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph, be subject only to regulation under other applicable provisions of Federal or State law in lieu of this subtitle until at least six months after the date of submission of the applicable study required to be conducted
under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) of section 8002 of this Act and after promulgation of regulations in accordance with subparagraph (C) of this paragraph: "(i) Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels. "(ii) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals, including phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium ore. "(iii) Cement kiln dust waste. "(B)(i) Owners and operators of disposal sites for wastes listed in subparagraph (A) may be required by the Administrator, through regulations prescribed under authority of section 2002 of this Act- "(1) as to disposal sites for such wastes which are to be closed, to identify the locations of such sites through surveying, platting, or other measures, together with recordation of such information on the public record, to assure that the locations where such wastes are disposed of are known and can be located in the future, and "(II) to provide chemical and physical analysis and composition of such wastes, based on available information, to be placed on the public record. "(ii)(1) In conducting any study under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) , of section 8002 of this Act, any officer, employee, or authorized representative of the Environmental Protection Agency, duly designated by the Administrator, is authorized, at reasonable times and as reasonably necessary for the purposes of such study, to enter any establishment where any waste subject to such study is generated, stored, treated, disposed of, or transported from; to inspect, take samples, and conduct monitoring and testing; and to have access to and copy records relating to such waste. Each such inspection shall be commenced and completed with reasonable promptness. If the officer, employee, or authorized representative obtains any samples prior to leaving the premises, he shall give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the sample obtained and if requested a portion of each such sample equal in volume or weight to the portion retained. If any analysis is made of such samples, or monitoring and testing performed, a copy of the results shall be furnished promptly to the owner, operator, or agent in charge. "(II) Any records, reports, or information obtained from any person under subclause (I) shall be available to the public, except that upon a showing satisfactory to the Administrator by any person that records, reports, or information, or particular part thereof, to which the Administrator has access under this subparagraph if made public, would divulge information entitled to protection under section 1905 of title 18 of the United
States Code, the Administrator shall consider such information or particular portion thereof confidential in accordance with the purposes of that section, except that such record, report, document, or information may be disclosed to other officers, employees, or authorized representatives of the United States concerned with carrying out this Act. Any person not subject to the provisions of section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code who knowingly and willfully divulges or discloses any information entitled to protection under this subparagraph shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 or to imprisonment not to exceed one year, or both. "(iii) The Administrator may prescribe regulations, under the authority of this Act, to prevent radiation exposure which presents an unreasonable risk to human health from the use in construction or land reclamation (with or without revegetation) of (I) solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of phosphate rock or (II) overburden from the mining of uranium ore. "(iv) Whenever on the basis of any information the Administrator determines that any person is in violation of any requirement of this subparagraph, the Administrator shall give notice to the violator of his failure to comply with such requirement. If such violation extends beyond the thirtieth day after the Administrator's notification, the Administrator may issue an order requiring compliance within a specified time period or the Administrator may commence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the violation occurred for appropriate relief, including a temporary or permanent injunction. "(C) Not later than six months after the date of submission of the applicable study required to be conducted under subsection
(f) ,
(n) ,
(o) , or
(p) , of section 8002 of this Act, the Administrator shall, after public hearings and opportunity for comment, either determine to promulgate regulations under this subtitle for each waste listed in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph or determine that such regulations are, unwarranted. The Administrator shall publish his determination, which shall be based on information developed or accumulated pursuant to such study, publichearings, and comment, in the Federal Register accompanied by an explanation and justification of the reasons for it. [3001(b)(3) added by PL 96-482] "(c) Petition by State Governor.-At any time after the date eighteen months after the enactment of this title, the Governor of any State may petition the Administrator to identify or list a material as a hazardous waste. The Administrator shall act upon such petition
71:3114
within ninety days following his receipt thereof and shall notify the Governor of such action. If the Administrator denies such petition because of financial considerations, in providing such notice to the Governor he shall include a statement concerning such considerations.
[3001(d) added by PL 98-616]
(d) SMALL QUANTITY GENERATOR WASTE.-(1) By March 31, 1986, the Administrator shall promulgate standards under sections 3002, 3003, and 3004 for hazardous waste generated by a generator in a total quantity of hazardous waste greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month.
(2) The standards referred to in paragraph (1), including standards applicable to the legitimate use, reuse, recycling, and reclamation of such wastes, may vary from the standards applicable to hazardous waste generated by larger quantity generators, but such standards shall be sufficient to protect human health and the environment.
(3) Not later than two hundred and seventy days after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 any hazardous waste which is part of a total quantity generated by a generator generating greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during one calendar month and which is shipped off the premises on which such waste is generated shall be accompanied by a copy of the Environmental Protection Agency Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest form signed by the generator. This form shall contain the following information:
(A) the name and address of the generator of the waste;
(B) the United States Department of Transportation description of the waste, including the proper shipping name, hazard class, and identification number (UN/NA), if applicable;
(C) the number and type of containers;
(D) the quantity of waste being transported; and
(E) the name and address of the facility designated to receive the waste.
If subparagraph (B) is not applicable, in lieu of the description referred to in such subparagraph (B), the form shall contain the Environmental Protection Agency identification number, or a generic description of the waste, or a description of the waste by hazardous waste characteristic. Additional requirements related to the manifest form shall apply only if determined necessary by the Administrator to protect human health and the environment.
(4) The Administrator's responsibility under this subtitle to protect human health and the environment may require the promulgation of standards under this subtitle for hazardous wastes which are generated by any generator who does not generate more than one hundred kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month.
(5) Until the effective date of standards required to be promulgated under paragraph (1), any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 generated by any generator during any calendar month in a total quantity greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms, which is not treated, stored, or disposed of at a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility with a permit under section 3005, shall be disposed of only in a facility which is permitted, licensed, or registered by a State to manage municipal or industrial solid waste.
(6) Standards promulgated as provided in paragraph (1) shall, at a minimum, require that all treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous wastes generated by generators referred to in paragraph (1) shall occur at a facility with interim status or a permit under this subtitle, except that onsite storage of hazardous waste generated by a generator generating a total quantity of hazardous waste greater than one hundred kilograms, but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month, may occur without the requirement of a permit for up to one hundred and eighty days. Such onsite storage may occur without the requirement of a permit for not more than six thousand kilograms for up to two hundred and seventy days if such generator must ship or haul such waste over two hundred miles.
(7)(A) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the validity of regulations promulgated by the Secretary of Transportation pursuant to the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act.
(B) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect, modify, or render invalid any requirements in regulations promulgated prior to January 1, 1983 applicable to any acutely hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 which is generated by any generator during any calendar month in a total quantity less than one thousand kilograms.
(B) Effective March 31, 1986, unless the Administrator promulgates standards as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection prior to such date, hazardous waste generated by any generator in a total quantity greater than one hundred kilograms but less than one thousand kilograms during a calendar month shall be subject to the following requirements until the standards referred to in paragraph (1) of this subsection have become effective:
(A) the notice requirements of paragraph (3) of this subsection shall apply and in addition, the information provided in the form shall include the name of the waste transporters and the name and address of the facility designated to receive the waste;
(B) except in the case of the onsite storage referred to in paragraph (6) of this subsection, the treatment, storage, or disposal of such waste shall occur at a facility with interim status or a permit under this subtitle;
(C) generators of such waste shall file manifest exception reports as required of generators producing greater amounts of hazardous waste per month except that such reports shall be filed by January 31, for any waste shipment occurring in the last half of the preceding calendar year, and by July 31, for any waste shipment occurring in the first half of the calendar year; and
(D) generators of such waste shall retain for three years a copy of the manifest signed by the designated facility that has received the waste.
Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as a determination of the standards appropriate under paragraph (1).
(9) The last sentence of section 3010(b) shall not apply to regulations promulgated under this subsection.
[Editor's note: Sections 221(b) through
(f) of PL 98-616 provides the following concerning responsibilities of the EPA Administrator:
(b) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall undertake activities to inform and educate the waste generators of their responsibilities under the amendments made by this section during the period within thirty months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 to help assure compliance.
(c) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency in cooperation with the States shall conduct a study of hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act which is generated by individual generators in total quantities for each generator during any calendar month of less than one thousand kilograms. The Administrator may require from such generators information as may be necessary to conduct the study. Such study shall include a characterization of the number and type
*(j) There is authorized to be appropriated for purposes of section 221(b) of this Act $500,000 for each of the fiscal years 1985 through 1987.
Environment Reporter
16
of such generators, the quantity and characteristics of hazardous waste generated by such generators. State requirements applicable to such generators, the individual and industry waste management practices of such generators, the potential costs of modifying those practices and the impact of such modifications on national treatment and disposal facility capacity, and the threat to human health and the environment and the employees of transporters or others involved in solid waste management posed by such hazardous wastes are such management practices. Such study shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1985.
(4) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall cause to be studied the existing manifest system for hazardous wastes as it applies to small quantity generators and recommend whether the current system shall be retained or whether a new system should be introduced. The study shall include an analysis of the cost versus the benefits of the system studied as well as an analysis of the ease of retrieving and collating information and identifying a given substance. Finally, any new proposal shall include a list of those standards that are necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such study shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1987.
(a) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency, in conjunction with the Secretary of Transportation, shall prepare and submit to the Congress a report on the feasibility of easing the administrative burden on small quantity generators, increasing compliance with statutory and regulatory requirements, and simplifying enforcement efforts through a program of licensing hazardous waste transporters to assume the responsibilities of small quantity generators relating to the preparation of manifests and associated recordkeeping and reporting requirements. The report shall examine the appropriate licensing requirements under such a program including the need for financial assurances by licensed transporters and shall make recommendations on provisions and requirements for such a program including the appropriate division of responsibilities between the Department of Transportation and the Environmental Protection Administration. Such report shall be submitted to the Congress not later than April 1, 1987.
(b) The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency shall, in consultation with the Secretary of Education, the States, and appropriate educational associations, conduct a comprehensive study of problems associated with the accumulation, storage and disposal of hazardous wastes from educational institutions. The study shall include an investigation of the feasibility and availability of environmentally sound methods for the treatment, storage or disposal of hazardous waste from such institutions, taking into account the types and quantities of such waste which are generated by these institutions, and the nonprofit nature of these institutions.
(2) The Administrator shall submit a report to the Congress containing the findings of the study carried out under paragraph (1) not later than April 1, 1987.
(3) For purposes of this subsection—
(A) the term "hazardous waste" means hazardous waste which is listed or identified under Section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act;
(B) the term "educational institution" includes, but shall not be limited to,
(i) secondary schools as defined in section 198(a)(7) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965; and
(ii) institutions of higher education as defined in section 198(a) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.
[3001(c) -
(i) added by PL 98-616]
"(e) SECTION WASTES.—(1) Not later than 6 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, where appropriate, list under subsection
(b) (1), additional wastes containing chlorinated dioxins or chlorinated dibenzofurans. Not later than one year after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, where appropriate, list under subsection
(b) (1) wastes containing remaining halogenated dioxins and halogenated dibenzofurans.
"(2) Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall make a determination of whether or not to list under subsection
(b) (1) the following wastes: Chlorinated Aliphatics, Dioxin, Dimethyl Hydrazine, TDI (toluene dioxins), Carbamates, Bromacil, Linuron, Organo-bromines, solvents, refining wastes, chlorinated aromatics, dyes and pigments, inorganic chemical industry wastes, lithium batteries, coke byproducts, paint production wastes, and coal slurry pipeline effluent.
"(f) DELIVING PROCEDURES.—(1) When evaluating a petition to exclude a waste generator at a particular facility from listing under this section, the Administrator shall consider factors (including additional constituents) other than those for which the waste was listed if the Administrator has a reasonable basis to believe that such additional factors could cause the waste to be a hazardous waste. The Administrator shall provide notice and opportunity for comment on these additional factors before granting or denying such petition.
"(2)(A) To the maximum extent practicable the Administrator shall publish in the Federal Register a proposal to grant or deny a petition referred to in paragraph (1) within twelve months after receiving a complete application to exclude a waste generated at a particular facility from being regulated as a hazardous waste and shall grant or deny such a petition within twenty-four months after receiving a complete application.
"(3) The temporary granting of such a petition prior to the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 without the opportunity for public comment and the full consideration of such comments shall not continue for more than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. If a final decision to grant or deny such a petition has not been promulgated after notice and opportunity for public comment within the time limit prescribed by the preceding sentence, any such temporary granting of such petition shall cease to be in effect.
"(g) EP Toxicity.—Not later than twenty-eight months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 the Administrator shall examine the deficiencies of the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic as a predictor of the leaching potential of wastes and make changes in the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic, including changes in the leaching media, as are necessary to ensure that it accurately predicts the leaching potential of wastes which pose a threat to human health and the environment when mismanaged.
"(h) ADDITIONAL CHARACTERISTICS.—Not later than two years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations under this section identifying additional characteristics of hazardous waste, including measures or indicators of toxicity.
"(i) CLARIFICATION OF HOUSEHOLD WASTE EXCLUSION.—A resource recovery facility recovering energy from the mass burning of municipal solid waste shall not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of regulation under this subtitle, if—
"(1) such facility—
(A) receives and burns only—
(i) household waste (from single and multiple dwellings, hotels, motels, and other residential sources), and
(ii) solid waste from commercial or industrial sources that does not contain hazardous waste identified or listed under this section, and
(B) does not accept hazardous wastes identified or listed under this section, and
(C) the owner or operator of such facility has established contractual requirements or other appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in such facility.
"Standards Applicable to Generators of Hazardous Waste
"Sec. 3002.
(a) In General.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this section, and after notice and opportunity for public hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such standards, applicable to generators of
hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards shall establish requirements respecting-
[3002(a) designated by PL 98-616]
"(1) recordkeeping practices that accurately identify the quantities of such hazardous waste generated, the constituents thereof which are significant in quantity or in potential harm to human health or the environment, and the disposition of such wastes;
"(2) labeling practices for any containers used for the storage, transport, or disposal of such hazardous waste such as will identify accurately such waste;
"(3) use of appropriate containers for such hazardous waste;
"(4) furnishing of information on the general chemical composition of such hazardous waste to persons transporting, treating, storing, or disposing of such wastes;
"(5) use of a manifest system and any other reasonable means necessary to assure that all such hazardous waste generated is designated for treatment, storage, or disposal in, and arrives at treatment, storage, or disposal facilities (other than facilities on the premises where the waste is generated) for which a permit has been issued as provided in this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052); and
"(6) submission of reports to the Administrator for the State agency in any case in which such agency carries out a permit program pursuant to this subtitle) at least once every two years, setting out-
"(A) the quantities and nature of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle that he has generated during the year;
"(B) the disposition of all hazardous waste reported under subparagraph (A);
"(C) the efforts undertaken during the year to reduce the volume and toxicity of waste generated; and
"(D) the changes in volume and toxicity of waste actually achieved during the year in question in comparison with previous years, to the extent such information is available for years prior to enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
[3002(a)(6) revised by PL 98-616]
"(b) Waste Minimization.—Effective September 1, 1985, the manifest required by subsection
(a) (5) shall contain a certification by the generator that—
"(1) the generator of the hazardous waste has a program in place to reduce the volume or quantity and toxicity of such waste to the degree determined by the generator to be economically practicable, and
"(2) the proposed method of treatment, storage, or disposal is that practicable method currently available to the generator which minimizes the present and future threat to human health and the environment.
[3002(b) added by PL 98-616]
"Standards Applicable to Transporters of Hazardous Waste
"Sec. 3003.
(a) Standards.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and after opportunity for public hearings the Administrator, after consultation with the Secretary of Transportation and the States, shall promulgate regulations establishing such standards, applicable to transporters of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards shall include but need not be limited to requirements respecting—
"(1) recordkeeping concerning such hazardous waste transported, and their source and delivery points;
"(2) transportation of such waste only if properly labeled;
"(3) compliance with the manifest system referred to in section 3002(5); and
"(4) transportation of all such hazardous waste only to the hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities which the shipper designates on the manifest form to be a facility holding a permit issued under this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052).
"(b) Coordination With Regulations of Secretary of Transportation.—In case of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle which is subject to the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (88 Stat. 2156; 49 U.S.C. 1801 and following), the regulations promulgated by the Administrator under this section shall be consistent with the requirements of such Act and the regulations thereunder. The Administrator is authorized to make recommendations to the Secretary of Transportation respecting the regulations of such hazardous waste under the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act and for addition of materials to be covered by such Act.
"(c) Fuel From Hazardous Waste.—Not later than two years after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and after opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing standards, applicable to transporters of fuel produced (1) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or (2) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards may include any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection
(a) as may be appropriate.
[3003(c) added by PL 98-616]
"Standards Applicable to Owners and Operators of Hazardous Waste Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities
"Sec. 3004.
(a) In General.—Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this section, and
after opportunity for public hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such performance standards, applicable to owners and operators of facilities for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. In establishing such standards the Administrator shall, where appropriate, distinguish in such standards between requirements appropriate for new facilities and for facilities in existence on the date of promulgation of such regulations. Such standards shall include, but need not be limited to, requirements respecting—
[3004 amended by PL 96-482;
(a) designated by PL 98-616]
"(1) maintaining records of all hazardous wastes identified or listed under this title which is treated, stored, or disposed of, as the case may be, and the manner in which such wastes were treated, stored, or disposed of;
"(2) satisfactory reporting, monitoring, and inspection and compliance with the manifest system referred to in section 3002(5);
"(3) treatment, storage, or disposal of all such waste received by the facility pursuant to such operating methods, techniques, and practices as may be satisfactory to the Administrator;
"(4) the location, design, and construction of such hazardous waste treatment, disposal, or storage facilities;
"(5) contingency plans for effective action to minimize unanticipated damage from any treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste;
"(6) the maintenance of operation of such facilities and requiring such additional qualifications as to ownership, continuity of operation, training for personnel, and financial responsibility (including financial responsibility for corrective action) as may be necessary or desirable; and 1
[3004(a)(6) amended by PL 98-616]
"(7) compliance with the requirements of section 3005 respecting permits for treatment, storage, or disposal.
No private entity shall be precluded by reason of criteria established under paragraph (6) from the ownership or operation of facilities providing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal services where such entity can provide assurances of financial responsibility and continuity of operation consistent with the degree and duration of risks associated with the treatment, storage, or disposal of specified hazardous waste.
[3004(b) -
(x) added by PL 98-616]
"(b) SALY DOME FORMATIONS. SALT BED FORMATIONS, UNDERGROUND MINES AND CAVES.—(1) Effective on the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any noncontainerized or bulk liquid hazardous waste in any salt dome formation, salt bed formation, underground mine, or cave is prohibited until such time as—
"(A) the Administrator has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearings on the record in the affected areas, that such placement is protective of human health and the environment;
"(B) the Administrator has promulgated performance and permitting standards for such facilities under this subtitle, and;
"(C) a permit has been issued under section 3005(c) for the facility concerned.
"(2) Effective on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any hazardous waste other than a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (1) in a salt dome formation, salt bed formation, underground mine, or cave is prohibited until such time as a permit has been issued under section 3005(c) for the facility concerned.
"(3) No determination made by the Administrator under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of this section regarding any hazardous waste to which such subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) applies shall affect the prohibition contained in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection.
"(4) Nothing in this subsection shall apply to the Department of Energy Waste Isolation Pilot Project in New Mexico.
"(c) LIQUIDS IN LANDFILLE.—(1) Effective 6 months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste or free liquids contained in hazardous waste (whether or not absorbents have been added) in any landfill is prohibited. Prior to such date the requirements (as in effect on April 30, 1983) promulgated under this section by the Administrator regarding liquid hazardous waste shall remain in force and effect to the extent such requirements are applicable to the placement of bulk or noncontainerized liquid hazardous waste, or free liquids contained in hazardous waste, in landfills.
"(2) Not later than fifteen months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate final regulations which—
"(A) minimize the disposal of containerized liquid hazardous waste in landfills, and
"(B) minimize the presence of free liquids in containerized hazardous waste to be disposed of in landfills.
Such regulations shall also prohibit the disposal in landfills of liquids that have been absorbed in materials that biodegrade or that release liquids when compressed as might occur during routine landfill operations. Prior to the date on which such final regulations take effect, the requirements (as in effect on April 30, 1983) promulgated under this section by the Administrator shall remain in force and effect to the extent such requirements are applicable to the disposal of containerized liquid hazardous waste, or free liquids contained in hazardous waste, in landfills.
"(3) Effective twelve months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the placement of any liquid which is not a hazardous waste in a landfill for which a permit is required under section 3005(c) or which is operating pursuant to interim status granted under section 3005(c) is prohibited unless the owner or operator of such landfill demonstrates to the Administrator, or the Administrator determines, that—
"(A) the only reasonably available alternative to the placement in such landfill is placement in a landfill or unlined surface impoundment, whether or not permitted under section 3005(c) or operating pursuant to interim status under section 3005(c), which contains, or may reasonably be anticipated to contain, hazardous waste; and
"(B) placement in such owner or operator's landfill will not present a risk of contamination of any underground source of drinking water.
As used in subparagraph (B), the term "underground source of drinking water" has the same meaning as provided in regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act (title XIV of the Public Health Service Act).
"(4) No determination made by the Administrator under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of this section regarding any hazardous waste to which such subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) applies shall affect the prohibition contained in paragraph (1) of this subsection.
"(d) PROHIBITIONS ON LAND DISPOSAL OF SPECIFIED WASTES.-(1) Effective 32 months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (except as provided in subsection
(f) with respect to underground injection into deep injection wells), the land disposal of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) is prohibited unless the Administrator determines the prohibition on one or more methods of land disposal of such waste is not required in order to protect human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account-
"(A) the long-term uncertainties associated with land disposal,
"(B) the goal of managing hazardous waste in an appropriate manner in the first instance, and
"(C) the persistence, toxicity, mobility, and propensity to bioaccumulate of such hazardous wastes and their hazardous constituents.
For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment for a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) (other than a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(m) ), unless, upon application by an interested person, it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous.
"(2) Paragraph (1) applies to the following hazardous wastes listed or identified under section 3001:
"(A) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid or sludge, containing free cyanides at concentrations greater than or equal to 1,000 mg/l.
"(B) Liquid hazardous wastes, including free liquids associated with any solid or sludge, containing the following metals (or elements) or compounds of these metals (or elements) at concentrations greater than or equal to those specified below:
"(i) arsenic and/or compounds (as As) 500 mg/l;
"(ii) cadmium and/or compounds (as Cd) 100 mg/l;
"(iii) chromium (VI and/or compounds (as Cr VI)) 500 mg/l;
"(iv) lead and/or compounds (as Pb) 500 mg/l;
"(v) mercury and/or compounds (as Hg) 20 mg/l;
"(vi) nickel and/or compounds (as Ni) 134 mg/l;
"(vii) selenium and/or compounds (as Se) 100 mg/l; and
"(viii) thallium and/or compounds (as Th) 130 mg/l.
"(C) Liquid hazardous waste having a pH less than or equal to two (2.0).
"(D) Liquid hazardous wastes containing polychlorinated biphenyls at concentrations greater than or equal to 50 ppm.
"(E) Hazardous wastes containing halogenated organic compounds in total concentration greater than or equal to 1,000 mg/kg.
When necessary to protect human health and the environment, the Administrator shall substitute more stringent concentration levels than the levels specified in subparagraphs (A) through (E).
"(3) During the period ending forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, this subsection shall not apply to any disposal of contaminated soil or debris resulting from a response action taken under section 104 or 106 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 or a corrective action required under this subtitle.
"(e) SOLVENTS AND DISPOLS.-(1) Effective twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (except as provided in subsection
(f) with respect to underground injection into deep injection wells), the land disposal of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) is prohibited unless the Administrator determines the prohibition of one or more methods of land disposal of such waste is not required in order to protect human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraph (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment for a hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) (other than a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(m) ), unless upon application by an interested person it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous.
"(2) The hazardous wastes to which the prohibition under paragraph (1) applies are as follows-
"(A) dioxin-containing hazardous wastes numbered F020, F021, F022, and F023 (as referred to in the proposed rule published by the Administrator in the Federal Register for April 4, 1983), and
"(B) those hazardous wastes numbered F001, F002, F003, F004, and F005 in regulations promulgated by the Administrator under section 3001 (40 C.F.R. 261.31 (July 1, 1983)), as those regulations are in effect on July 1, 1983.
"(3) During the period ending forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, this subsection shall not apply to any disposal of contaminated soil or debris resulting from a response action taken under section 104 or 106 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 or a corrective action required under this subtitle.
"(f) DISPOSAL INTO DEEP INJECTION WELLS; SPECIFIED SUBSECTION
(d) WASTES; SOLVENTS AND DISPOLS.-(1) Not later than forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall complete a review of the disposal of all hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) and in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) by underground injection into deep injection wells.
"(2) Within forty-five months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall make a determination regarding the disposal by underground injection into deep injection wells of the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) and the hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) . The Administrator shall promulgate final regulations prohibiting the disposal of such wastes into such wells if it may reasonably be determined that such disposal may not be protective of human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraphs (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). In promulgating such regulations, the Administrator shall consider each hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) or in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) which is prohibited from disposal into such wells by any State.
"(3) If the Administrator fails to make a determination under paragraph (2) for any hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (2) of subsection
(d) or in paragraph (2) of subsection
(e) within forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such hazardous waste shall be prohibited from disposal into any deep injection well.
"(4) As used in this subsection, the term 'deep injection well' means a well used for the underground injection of hazardous waste other than a well in which section 701(b)(1) applies.
"(g) ADDITIONAL LAND DISPOSAL PROHIBITION DETERMINATIONS.-(1) Not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall submit a schedule to Congress for-
"(A) reviewing all hazardous wastes listed (as of the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) under section 3001 other than those wastes which are referred to in subsection
(d) or
(e) ; and
"(B) taking action under paragraph (5) of this subsection with respect to each such hazardous waste. "(2) The Administrator shall base the schedule on a ranking of such listed wastes considering their intrinsic hazard and their volume such that decisions regarding the land disposal of high volume hazardous wastes with high intrinsic hazard shall, to the maximum extent possible, be made by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. Decisions regarding low volume hazardous wastes with lower intrinsic hazard shall be made by the date sixty-six months after such date of enactment. "(3) The preparation and submission of the schedule under this subsection shall not be subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1980. No hearing on the record shall be required for purposes of preparation or submission of the schedule. The schedule shall not be subject to judicial review. "(4) The schedule under this subsection shall require that the Administrator shall promulgate regulations in accordance with paragraph (5) or make a determination under paragraph (5)- "(A) for at least one-third of all hazardous wastes referred to in paragraph (1) by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; "(B) for at least two-thirds of all such listed wastes by the date fifty-five months after the date of enactment of such Amendments; and "(C) for all such listed wastes and for all hazardous wastes identified under 3001 by the date sixty-six months after the date of enactment of such Amendments. In the case of any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall determine whether such waste shall be prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal in accordance with paragraph (5) within six months after the date of such identification or listing. "(5) Not later than the date specified in the schedule published under this subsection, the Administrator shall promulgate final regulations prohibiting one or more methods of land disposal of the hazardous wastes listed on such schedule except for methods of land disposal which the Administrator determines will be protective of human health and the environment for as long as the waste remains hazardous, taking into account the factors referred to in subparagraph (A) through (C) of subsection
(d) (1). For the purposes of this paragraph, a method of land disposal may not be determined to be protective of human health and the environment (except with respect to a hazardous waste which has complied with the pretreatment regulations promulgated under subsection
(a) unless, upon application by an interested person, it has been demonstrated to the Administrator, to a reasonable degree of certainty, that there will be no migration of hazardous constituents from the disposal unit or injection zone for as long as the wastes remain hazardous. "(5)(A) If the Administrator fails (by the date forty-five months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) to promulgate regulations or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste which is included in the first one-third of the schedule published under this subsection, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if- "(i) such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) which are applicable to new facilities (relating to minimum technological requirements); and "(ii) prior to such disposal, the generator has certified to the Administrator that such generator has investigated the availability of treatment capacity and has determined that the use of such landfill or surface impoundment is the only practical alternative to treatment currently available to the generator. The prohibition contained in this subparagraph shall continue to apply until the Administrator promulgates regulations or makes a determination under paragraph (5) for the waste concerned. "(B) If the Administrator fails (by the date 55 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) to promulgate regulations or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste which is included in the first two-thirds of the schedule published under this subsection, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if- "(i) such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) which are applicable to new facilities (relating to minimum technological requirements); and "(ii) prior to such disposal, the generator has certified to the Administrator that such generator has investigated the availability of treatment capacity and has determined that the use of such landfill or surface impoundment is the only practical alternative to treatment currently available to the generator. The prohibition contained in this subparagraph shall continue to apply until the Administrator promulgates regulations or makes a determination under paragraph (5) for the waste concerned. "(C) If the Administrator fails to promulgate regulations, or make a determination under paragraph (5) for any hazardous waste referred to in paragraph (1) within 66 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such hazardous waste shall be prohibited from land disposal. "(b) Variances From Land Disposal Prohibitions.-(1) A prohibition in regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) shall be effective immediately upon promulgation. "(2) The Administrator may establish an effective date different from the effective date which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) with respect to a specific hazardous waste which is subject to a prohibition under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) or under regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) . Any such other effective date shall be established on the basis of the earliest date on which adequate alternative treatment, recovery, or disposal capacity which protects human health and the environment will be available. Any such other effective date shall in no event be later than 2 years after the effective date of the prohibition which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) . "(3) The Administrator, after notice and opportunity for comment and after consultation with appropriate State agencies in all affected States, may on a case-by-case basis grant an extension of the effective date which would otherwise apply under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) or under paragraph (2) for up to one year, where the applicant demonstrates that there is a binding contractual commitment to construct or otherwise provide such alternative capacity but due to circumstances beyond the control of such applicant such alternative capacity cannot reasonably be made available by such effective date. Such extension shall be renewable once for no more than one additional year. "(4) Whenever another effective date (hereinafter referred to as a "variance") is established under paragraph (2), or an extension is granted under paragraph (3), with respect to any hazardous waste, during the period for which such variance or extension is in effect, such hazardous waste may be disposed of in a landfill or surface impoundment only if such facility is in compliance with the requirements of subsection
(o) . "(i) Publication of Determination.-If the Administrator determines that a method of land disposal will be protective of human health and the environment, he shall promptly publish in the Federal Register notice of such determination, together with an explanation of the basis for such determination. "(j) Storage of Hazardous Waste Prohibited From Land Disposal.-In the case of any hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under this section (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under any provision of this section) the storage of such hazardous waste is prohibited unless such storage is solely for the purpose of the accumulation of such quantities of hazardous waste as are necessary to facilitate proper recovery, treatment or disposal. "(k) Definition of Land Disposal.-For the purposes of this section, the term 'land disposal', when used with respect to a specified hazardous waste, shall be deemed to include, but not be limited to, any placement of such hazardous waste in a landfill, surface impoundment, waste pile, injection well, land treatment facility, soil dome formation, salt bed formation, or underground mine or cave. "(l) Ban on Dust Suppression.-The use of waste or used oil or other material, which is contaminated or mixed with dioxin or any other hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 (other than a waste identified solely on the basis of ignitability), for dust suppression or road treatment is prohibited. "(m) Treatment Standards for Wastes Subject to Land Disposal Prohibition.-(1) Simultaneously with the promulgation of
regulations under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) prohibiting one or more methods of land disposal of a particular hazardous waste, and as appropriate thereafter, the Administrator shall, after notice and an opportunity for hearings and after consultation with appropriate Federal and State agencies, promulgate regulations specifying those levels or methods of treatment, if any, which substantially diminish the toxicity of the waste or substantially reduce the likelihood of migration of hazardous constituents from the waste so that short- terms and long-term threats to human health and the environment are minimized.
"(2) If such hazardous waste has been treated to the level or by a method specified in regulations promulgated under this subsection, such waste or residue thereof shall not be subject to any prohibition promulgated under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) and may be disposed of in a land disposal facility which meets the requirements of this subtitle. Any regulation promulgated under this subsection for a particular hazardous waste shall become effective on the same date as any applicable prohibition promulgated under subsection
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) , or
(g) .
"(a) ANE Emissions.-Not later than thirty months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate such regulations for the monitoring and control of air emissions at hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities, including but not limited to open tanks, surface impoundments, and landfills, as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment.
"(c) MINIMUM TECHNOLOGICAL REQUIREMENTS.-(1) The regulations under subsection
(a) of this section shall be revised from time to time to take into account improvements in the technology of control and measurement. At a minimum, such regulations shall require, and a permit issued pursuant to section 3005(c) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 by the Administrator or a State shall require-
"(A) for each new landfill or surface impoundment, each new landfill or surface impoundment unit at an existing facility, each replacement of an existing landfill or surface impound- ment unit, and each lateral expansion of an existing landfill or surface impoundment unit, for which an application for a final determination regarding issuance of a permit under section 3005(c) is received after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984-
"(i) the installation of two or more liners and a leachate collection system above (in the case of a landfill) and between such liners; and
"(ii) ground water monitoring; and
"(B) for each incinerator which receives a permit under section 3005(c) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the attainment of the minimum destruction and removal efficiency required by regulations in effect on June 24, 1982.
The requirements of this paragraph shall apply with respect to all waste received after the issuance of the permit.
"(2) Paragraph (19A)(i) shall not apply if the owner or operator demonstrates to the Administrator, and the Administrator finds for such landfill or surface impoundment, that alternative design and operating practices, together with location characteristics, will prevent the migration of any hazardous constituents into the ground water or surface water at least as effectively as such liners and leachate collection systems.
"(B) The double-liner requirement set forth in paragraph (19A)(i) may be waived by the Administrator for any monofill, if-
"(A) such monofill contains only hazardous wastes from foundry furnace emission controls or metal casting molding sand.
"(B) such wastes do not contain constituents which would render the wastes hazardous for reasons other than the Extrac- tion Procedure ("EP") toxicity characteristics set forth in regulations under this subtitle, and
"(C) such monofill meets the same requirements as are applicable in the case of a waiver under section 3005(j)(2) or (4).
"(4)(A) Not later than thirty months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate standards requiring that new landfill units, surface impoundment units, waste piles, underground tanks and land treatment units for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 shall be required to utilize approved leak detection systems.
"(B) For the purposes of subparagraph (A)-
"(i) the term 'approved leak detection system' means a system or technology which the Administrator determines to be capable of detecting leaks of hazardous constituents at the earliest practicable time; and
"(ii) the term 'new units' means units on which construction commences after the date of promulgation of regulations under this paragraph.
"(5)(A) The Administrator shall promulgate regulations or issue guidance documents implementing the requirements of paragraph (19A) within two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.
"(B) Until the effective date of such regulations or guidance documents, the requirement for the installation of two or more liners may be satisfied by the installation of a top liner designed, operated, and constructed of materials to prevent the migration of any constituent into such liner during the period such facility remains in operation (including any post-closure monitoring period), and a lower liner designed, operated and constructed to prevent the migration of any constituent through such liner during such period. For the purpose of the preceding sentence, a lower liner shall be deemed to satisfy such requirement if it is constructed of at least a 3-foot thick layer of recompacted clay or other natural material with a permeability of no more than 1x10⁻¹ centimeter per second.
"(6) Any permit under section 3005 which is issued for a landfill located within the State of Alabama shall require the installation of two or more liners and a leachate collection system above and between such liners, notwithstanding any other provision of this Act.
"(7) In addition to the requirements set forth in this subsection, the regulations referred to in paragraph (1) shall specify criteria for the acceptable location of new and existing treatment, storage, or disposal facilities as necessary to protect human health and the environment. Within 18 months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall publish guidance criteria identifying areas of vulnerable hydro- geology.
GROUND WATER MONITORING
"(p) GROUND WATER MONITORING.-The standards under this section concerning ground water monitoring which are applicable to surface impoundments, waste piles, land treatment units, and land- fills shall apply to such a facility whether or not-
"(1) the facility is located above the seasonal high water table;
"(2) two liners and a leachate collection system have been installed at the facility; or
"(3) the owner or operator inspects the liner (or liners) which has been installed at the facility.
This subsection shall not be construed to affect other exemptions or waivers from such standards provided in regulations in effect on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 or as may be provided in revisions to those regulations, to the extent consistent with this subsection. The Administrator is authorized on a case-by-case basis to exempt from ground water monitoring requirements under this section (including subsection
(a) ) any engineered structure which the Administrator finds does not receive or contain liquid waste (nor waste containing free liquids), is designed and operated to exclude liquid from precipitation or other runoff, utilizes multiple leak detection systems within the outer layer of containment, and provides for continuing operation and maintenance of these leak detection systems during the operating period, closure, and the period required for post-closure monitoring and for which the Administrator concludes on the basis of such
findings that there is a reasonable certainty hazardous constituents will not migrate beyond the outer layer of containment prior to the end of the period required for post-closure monitoring.
(q) HAZARDOUS WASTE USED AS FUEL.-(1) Not later than two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and after notice and opportunity for public hearing, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such—
(A) standards applicable to the owners and operators of facilities which produce a fuel—
(i) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or
(ii) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material;
(B) standards applicable to the owners and operators of facilities which burn, for purposes of energy recovery, any fuel produced as provided in subparagraph (A) or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001; and
**(C) standards applicable to any person who distributes or markets any fuel which is produced as provided in subparagraph (A) or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. Such standards may include any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection
(a) as may be appropriate. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the provisions of section 3001(b)(3). For purposes of this subsection, the term 'hazardous waste listed under section 3001' includes any commercial chemical product which is listed under section 3001 and which, in lieu of its original intended use, is
(i) produced for use as a component of a fuel, (ii) distributed for use as a fuel, or (iii) burned as a fuel.**
**(2)(A) This subsection, subsection
(r) , and subsection
(s) shall not apply to petroleum refinery wastes containing oil which are converted into petroleum coke at the same facility at which such wastes were generated, unless the resulting coke product would exceed one or more characteristics by which a substance would be identified as a hazardous waste under section 3001.**
**(B) The Administrator may exempt from the requirements of this subsection, subsection
(r) , or subsection
(s) facilities which burn de minimis quantities of hazardous waste as fuel, as defined by the Administrator, if the wastes are burned at the same facility at which such wastes are generated; the waste is burned to recover useful energy, as determined by the Administrator on the basis of the design and operating characteristics of the facility and the heating value and other characteristics of the waste; and the waste is burned in a type of device determined by the Administrator to be designed and operated at a destruction and removal efficiency sufficient such that protection of human health and environment is assured.**
(C)(i) After the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 and until standards are promulgated and in effect under paragraph (2) of this subsection, no fuel which contains any hazardous waste may be burned in any cement kiln which is located within the boundaries of any incorporated municipality with a population greater than five hundred thousand (based on the most recent census statistics) unless such kiln fully complies with regulations to be in effect on the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984) under this subtitle which are applicable to incinerators.
**(ii) Any person who knowingly violates the prohibition contained in clause
(i) shall be deemed to have violated section 3009(d)(2).**
**(c) LABELING.-(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, until such time as the Administrator promulgates standards under subsection
(q) specifically superseding this requirement, it shall be unlawful for any person who is required to file a notification in accordance with paragraph (1) or (3) of section 3010 to distribute or market any fuel which is produced from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, or any fuel which otherwise contains any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 if the invoice or the bill of sale fails—**
(A) to bear the following statement: 'WARNING: THIS FUEL CONTAINS HAZARDOUS WASTES', and
(B) to list the hazardous wastes contained therein. Beginning ninety days after the enactment of the Hazardous and
Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such statement shall be located in a conspicuous place on every such invoice or bill of sale and shall appear in conspicuous and legible type in contrast by typography, layouts, or color with other printed matter on the invoice or bill of sale.
(2) Unless the Administrator determines otherwise as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, this subsection shall not apply to fuels produced from petroleum refining waste containing oil if—
(A) such materials are generated and reinserted onsite into the refining process;
(B) contaminants are removed; and
(C) such refining waste containing oil is converted along with normal process streams into petroleum-derived fuel products at a facility at which crude oil is refined into petroleum products and which is classified as a number SIC 2917 facility under the Office of Management and Budget Standard Industrial Classification Manual.
(3) Unless the Administrator determines otherwise as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, this subsection shall not apply to fuels produced from oil materials, resulting from normal petroleum refining, production and transportation practices, if (A) contaminants are removed; and (B) such oil materials are converted along with normal process streams into petroleum-derived fuel products at a facility at which crude oil is refined into petroleum products and which is classified as a number SIC 2917 facility under the Office of Management and Budget Standard Classification Manual.
(b) RECOMMENDING.-Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations requiring that any person who is required to file a notification in accordance with subparagraph (1), (2), or (3), of section 3010(a) shall maintain such records regarding fuel blending, distribution, or use as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment.
**(1) FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY PROVISIONS.-(1) Financial responsibility required by subsection
(a) of this section may be established in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator by any one, or any combination, of the following: insurance, guarantee, surety bond, letter of credit, or qualification as a self-insurer. In promulgating requirements under this section, the Administrator is authorized to specify policy or other contractual terms, conditions, or defenses which are necessary or are unacceptable in establishing such evidence of financial responsibility in order to effectuate the purposes of this Act.**
(2) In any case where the owner or operator is in bankruptcy, reorganization, or arrangement pursuant to the Federal Bankruptcy Code or where (with reasonable diligence) jurisdiction in any State court or any Federal Court cannot be obtained over an owner or operator likely to be solvent at the time of judgment, any claim arising from conduct for which evidence of financial responsibility must be provided under this section may be asserted directly against the guarantor providing such evidence of financial responsibility. In the case of any action pursuant to this subsection, such guarantor shall be entitled to invoke all rights and defenses which would have been available to the owner or operator if any action had been brought against the owner or operator by the claimant and which would have been available to the guarantor if an action had been brought against the guarantor by the owner or operator.
(3) The total liability of any guarantor shall be limited to the aggregate amount which the guarantor has provided as evidence of financial responsibility to the owner or operator under this Act. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit any other State or Federal statutory, contractual or common law liability of a guarantor to its owner or operator including, but not limited to, the liability of such guarantor for bad faith either in negotiating or in failing to negotiate the settlement of any claim. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to diminish the liability of any person under section 107 or 111 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1950 or other applicable law.
(4) For the purpose of this subsection, the term 'guarantor' means any person, other than the owner or operator, who provides evidence of financial responsibility for an owner or operator under this section.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
"(u) Continuing Releases at Permitted Facilities-Standards promulgated under this section shall require, and a permit issued after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 by the Administrator or a State shall require, corrective action for all releases of hazardous waste or constituents from any solid waste management unit at a treatment, storage, or disposal facility seeking a permit under this subtitle, regardless of the time at which waste was placed in such unit. Permits issued under section 3005 shall contain schedules of compliance for such corrective action (where such corrective action cannot be completed prior to issuance of the permit) and assurances of financial responsibility for completing such corrective action. "(v) Corrective Actions Beyond Facility Boundary-As promptly as practicable after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall amend the standards under this section regarding corrective action required at facilities for the treatment, storage, or disposal, of hazardous waste listed or identified under section 3001 to require that corrective action be taken beyond the facility boundary where necessary to protect human health and the environment unless the owner or operator of the facility concerned demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Administrator that, despite the owner or operator's best efforts, the owner or operator was unable to obtain the necessary permission to undertake such action. Such regulations shall take effect immediately upon promulgation, notwithstanding section 3010(h), and shall apply to- "(1) all facilities operating under permits issued under subsection
(c) , and "(2) all landfills, surface impoundments, and waste pile units (including any new units, replacements of existing units, or lateral expansions of existing units) which receive hazardous waste after July 26, 1982. Funding promulgation of such regulations, the Administrator shall issue corrective action orders for facilities referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2), on a case-by-case basis, consistent with the purposes of this subsection. "(w) Unperground Tanks.-Not later than March 1, 1985, the Administrator shall promulgate final permitting standards under this section for underground tanks that cannot be entered for inspection. Within forty-eight months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, such standards shall be modified, if necessary, to cover at a minimum all requirements and standards described in section 9003. "(x) If (1) solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation or processing of ores and minerals, including phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium, (2) fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels, or (3) cement kiln dust waste, is subject to regulation under this subtitle, the Administrator is authorized to modify the requirements of subsections
(c) ,
(d) ,
(e) ,
(f) ,
(g) ,
(o) , and
(u) and section 3005(j), in the case of landfills or surface impoundments receiving such solid waste, to take into account the special characteristics of such wastes, the practical difficulties associated with implementation of such requirements, and site-specific characteristics, including but not limited to the climate, geology, hydrology and soil chemistry of the site, so long as such modified requirements assure protection of human health and the environment. "Permits for Treatment, Storage, or Disposal of Hazardous Waste "Sec. 3005.
(a) Permit Requirements.-Not later than eighteen months after the date of the enactment of this section, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations requiring each person owning or operating an existing facility or planning to construct a new facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle to have a permit issued pursuant to this section. Such regulations shall take effect on the date provided in section 3010 and upon and after such date the treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste and the construction of any new facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of any such hazardous waste is prohibited except in accordance with such a permit. No permit shall be required under this section in order to construct a facility if such facility is constructed pursuant to an approval issued by the Administrator under section 6(e) of the Toxic Substances Control Act for the incineration of polycholorinated biphenyls and any person owning or operating such a facility may, at any time after operation or construction of such facility has begun, file an application for a permit pursuant to this section authorizing such facility to incinerate hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle. [3005(a) amended by PL 98-616] "(b) Requirements of Permit Application.-Each application for a permit under this section shall contain such information as may be required under regulations promulgated by the Administrator, including information respecting- "(1) estimates with respect to the composition, quantities, and concentrations of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle, or combinations of any such hazardous waste and any other solid waste, proposed to be disposed of, treated, transported, or stored, and the time, frequency, or rate of which such waste is proposed to be disposed of, treated, transported, or stored; and "(2) the site at which such hazardous waste or the products of treatment of such hazardous waste will be disposed of, treated, transported to, or stored. "(c) Permit Issuance.-(1) Upon a determination by the Administrator (or a State, if applicable), of compliance by a facility for which a permit is applied for under this section with the requirements of this section and section 3004, the Administrator (or the State) shall issue a permit for such facilities. In the event permit applicants propose modification of their facilities, or in the event the Administrator (or the State) determines that modifications are necessary to conform to the requirements under this section and section 3004, the permit shall specify the time allowed to complete the modifications. [3005(c)(1) designated by PL 98-616] "(2)(A)(i) Not later than the date four years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application under this subsection for a permit for a land disposal facility which was submitted before such date, the Administrator shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application. "(ii) Not later than the date five years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application for a permit under this subsection for an incinerator facility which was submitted before such date, the Administrator
shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application.
(B) Not later than the date eight years after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, in the case of each application for a permit under this subsection for any facility other than a facility referred to in subparagraph (A) which was submitted before such date, the Administrator shall issue a final permit pursuant to such application or issue a final denial of such application.
(C) The time periods specified in this paragraph shall also apply in the case of any State which is administering an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006. Interim status under subsection
(a) shall terminate for each facility referred to in subparagraph (A)(ii) or (B) on the expiration of the five- or eight-year period referred to in subparagraph (A) or (B), whichever is applicable, unless the owner or operator of the facility applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under this subsection within—
(i) two years after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 (in the case of a facility referred to in subparagraph (A)(ii), or
(ii) four years after such date of enactment (in the case of a facility referred to in subparagraph (B)).
[3005(c)(2) added by PL 98-616].
(3) Any permit under this section shall be for a fixed term, not to exceed 10 years in the case of any land disposal facility, storage facility, or incinerator or other treatment facility. Each permit for a land disposal facility shall be reviewed five years after date of issuance or reinsurance and shall be modified as necessary to assure that the facility continues to comply with the currently applicable requirements of this section and section 3004. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Administrator from reviewing and modifying a permit at any time during its term. Review of any application for a permit renewal shall consider improvements in the state of control and measurement technology as well as changes in applicable regulations. Each permit issued under this section shall contain such terms and conditions as the Administrator (or the State) determines necessary to protect human health and the environment.
[3005(c)(3) added by PL 98-616]
(d) Permit Revocation.—Upon a determination by the Administrator (or by a State, in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006) of noncompliance by a facility having a permit under this title with the requirements of this section or section 3004, the Administrator (or State, in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under section 3006) shall revoke such permit.
(e) Interim Status.—(1) Any person who—
[3005(e)(1) designated by PL 98-616]
(A) owns or operates a facility required to have a permit under this section which facility—
(i) was in existence on November 19, 1980, or
(ii) is in existence on the effective date of statutory or regulatory changes under this Act that render the facility subject to the requirement to have a permit under this section.
[Former 3005(e)(1) amended and redesignated as (A) by PL 98-616]
(B) has complied with the requirements of section 3010(a), and
[Former 3005(e)(2) redesignated as (B) by PL 98-616]
(C) has made an application for a permit under this section shall be treated as having been issued such permit until such time as final administrative disposition of such application is made, unless the Administrator or other plaintiff proves that final administrative disposition of such application has not been made because of the failure of the applicant to furnish information reasonably required or requested in order to process the application.
[Former 3005(e)(3) amended and redesignated as (C) by PL 98-616]
This paragraph shall not apply to any facility which has been previously denied a permit under this section or if authority to operate the facility under this section has been previously terminated.
(2) In the case of each land disposal facility which has been granted interim status under this subsection before the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, interim status shall terminate on the date twelve months after the date of the enactment of such Amendments unless the owner or operator of such facility—
(A) applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) for such facility before the date twelve months after the date of the enactment of such Amendments; and
(B) certifies that such facility is in compliance with all applicable groundwater monitoring and financial responsibility requirements.
[New 3005(e)(2) added by PL 98-616]
(3) In the case of each land disposal facility which is in existence on the effective date of statutory or regulatory changes under this Act that render the facility subject to the requirement to have a permit under this section and which is granted interim status under this subsection, interim status shall terminate on the date twelve months after the date on which the facility first becomes subject to such permit requirement unless the owner or operator of such facility—
(A) applies for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) for such facility before the date twelve months after the date on which the facility first becomes subject to such permit requirement; and
(B) certifies that such facility is in compliance with all applicable groundwater monitoring and financial responsibility requirements.
[New 3005(e)(3) added by PL 98-616]
(f) Coal Mining Wastes and Reclamation Permits.—Notwithstanding subsection
(a) through
(e) of this section, any surface coal mining and reclamation permit covering any coal mining wastes or overburden which has been issued or approved under the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 shall be deemed to be a permit issued pursuant to this section with respect to the treatment, storage, or disposal of such wastes or overburden. Regulations promulgated by the Administrator under this subtitle shall not be applicable to treatment, storage, or disposal of coal mining wastes and overburden which are covered by such a permit.
[3005(f) added by PL 96-482]
(g) RESEARCH, DEVELOPMENT, AND DEMONSTRATION PERMITS.—(1)
The Administrator may issue a research, development, and demonstration permit for any hazardous waste treatment facility which proposes to utilize an innovative and experimental hazardous waste treatment technology or process for which permit standards for such experimental activity have not been promulgated under this subtitle. Any such permit shall include such terms and conditions as will assure protection of human health and the environment. Such permits—
(A) shall provide for the construction of such facilities, as necessary, and for operation of the facility for not longer than one year (unless renewed as provided in paragraph (4)), and
(B) shall provide for the receipt and treatment by the facility of only those types and quantities of hazardous waste which the Administrator deems necessary for purposes of determining the efficacy and performance capabilities of the technology or process and the effects of such technology or process on human health and the environment, and
(C) shall include such requirements as the Administrator deems necessary to protect human health and the environment (including, but not limited to, requirements regarding monitoring, operation, insurance or bonding, financial responsibility, closure, and remedial action), and such requirements as the Administrator deems necessary regarding testing and providing of information to the Administrator with respect to the operation of the facility.
The Administrator may apply the criteria set forth in this paragraph in establishing the conditions of each permit without separate establishment of regulations implementing such criteria.
(2) For the purpose of expediting review and issuance of permits under this subsection, the Administrator may, consistent with the protection of human health and the environment, modify or waive permit application and permit issuance requirements established in the Administrator's general permit regulations except that there may be no modification or waiver of regulations regarding financial responsibility (including insurance) or of procedures established under section 7004(b)(2) regarding public participation.
(3) The Administrator may order an immediate termination of all operations at the facility at any time he determines that termination is necessary to protect human health and the environment.
(4) Any permit issued under this subsection may be renewed not more than three times. Each such renewal shall be for a period of not more than 1 year.
(h) WASTE MINIMIZATION.—Effective September 1, 1985, it shall be a condition of any permit issued under this section for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste on the premises where such waste was generated that the permittee certify, no less often than annually, that—
(1) the generator of the hazardous waste has a program in place to reduce the volume or quantity and toxicity of such waste to the degree determined by the generator to be economically practicable; and
(2) the proposed method of treatment, storage, or disposal is that practicable method currently available to the generator which minimizes the present and future threat to human health and the environment.
(i) INTERIM STATUS FACILITIES RECEIVING WASTES AFTER JULY 26, 1982.—The standards concerning ground water monitoring, unsaturated zone monitoring, and corrective action, which are applicable under section 3004 to new landfills, surface impoundments, land treatment units, and waste-pile units required to be permitted under subsection
(c) shall also apply to any landfill, surface impoundment, land treatment unit, or waste-pile unit qualifying for the authorization to operate under subsection
(a) which receives hazardous waste after July 26, 1982.
(a) of this section shall not receive, store, or treat hazardous waste after the date four years after such date of enactment unless such surface impoundment is in compliance with the requirements of section 3004(o)(1)(A) which would apply to such impoundment if it were new.
(2) Paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to any surface impoundment which (A) has at least one liner, for which there is no evidence that such liner is leaking; (B) is located more than one-quarter mile from an underground source of drinking water; and (C) is in compliance with generally applicable ground water monitoring requirements for facilities with permits under subsection
(c) of this section.
(3) Paragraph (1) of this subsection shall not apply to any surface impoundment which (A) contains treated waste water during the secondary or subsequent phases of an aggressive biological treatment facility subject to a permit issued under section 402 of the Clean Water Act (or which holds such treated waste water after treatment and prior to discharge); (B) is in compliance with generally applicable ground water monitoring requirements for facilities with permits under subsection
(c) of this section; and (C)(i) is part of a facility in compliance with section 301(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act, or (ii) in the case of a facility for which no effluent guidelines required under section 304(b)(2) of the Clean Water Act are in effect and no permit under section 402(a)(1) of such Act implementing section 301(b)(2) of such Act has been issued, is part of a facility in compliance with a permit under section 402 of such Act, which is achieving significant degradation of toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents contained in the untreated waste stream and which has identified those toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents in the untreated waste stream to the appropriate permitting authority.
(4) The Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program), after notice and opportunity for comment, may modify the requirements of paragraph (1) for any surface impoundment if the owner or operator demonstrates that such surface impoundment is located, designed and operated so as to assure that there will be no migration of any hazardous constituent into ground water or surface water at any future time. The Administrator or the State shall take into account locational criteria established under section 3004(o)(7).
(5) The owner or operator of any surface impoundment potentially subject to paragraph (1) who has reason to believe that on the basis of paragraph (2), (3), or (4) such surface impoundment is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraph (1), shall apply to the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 for a determination of the applicability of paragraph (1) (in the case of paragraph (2) or (3)) or for a modification of the requirements of paragraph (1) (in the case of paragraph (4)), with respect to such surface impoundment. Such owner or operator shall provide, with such application, evidence pertinent to such decision, including:
(A) an application for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit under subsection
(c) of this section for such facility, if not previously submitted;
(B) evidence as to compliance with all applicable ground water monitoring requirements and the information and analysis from such monitoring;
(C) all reasonably ascertainable evidence as to whether such surface impoundment is leaking; and
"(D) in the case of applications under paragraph (2) or (3), a certification by a registered professional engineer with academic training and experience in ground water hydrology that—
"(i) under paragraph (2), the liner of such surface impoundment is designed, constructed, and operated in accordance with applicable requirements, such surface impoundment is more than one-quarter mile from an underground source of drinking water and there is no evidence such liner is leaking; or
"(ii) under paragraph (3), based on analysis of those toxic pollutants and hazardous constituents that are likely to be present in the untreated waste stream, such impoundment satisfies the conditions of paragraph (3).
In the case of any surface impoundment for which the owner or operator fails to apply under this paragraph within the time provided by this paragraph or paragraph (6), such surface impoundment shall comply with paragraph (1) notwithstanding paragraph (2), (3), or (4). Within twelve months after receipt of such application and evidence and not later than thirty-six months after such date of enactment, and after notice and opportunity to comment, the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) shall advise such owner or operator on the applicability of paragraph (1) to such surface impoundment or as to whether and how the requirements of paragraph (1) shall be modified and applied to such surface impoundment.
"(6)(A) In any case in which a surface impoundment becomes subject to paragraph (1) after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 due to the promulgation of additional listings or characteristics for the identification of hazardous waste under section 3001, the period for compliance in paragraph (1) shall be four years after the date of such promulgation, the period for demonstrations under paragraph (4) and for submission of evidence under paragraph (5) shall be not later than twenty-four months after the date of such promulgation, and the period for the Administrator (or if appropriate, the State) to advise such owners or operators under paragraph (5) shall be not later than thirty-six months after the date of promulgation.
"(B) In any case in which a surface impoundment is initially determined to be excluded from the requirements of paragraph (1) but due to a change in condition (including the existence of a leak) no longer satisfies the provisions of paragraph (2), (3), or (4) and therefore becomes subject to paragraph (1), the period for compliance in paragraph (1) shall be two years after the date of discovery of such change of condition, or in the case of a surface impoundment excluded under paragraph (3) three years after such date of discovery.
"(7)(A) The Administrator shall study and report to the Congress on the number, range of size, construction, likelihood of hazardous constituents migrating into ground water, and potential threat to human health and the environment of existing surface impoundments excluded by paragraph (3) from the requirements of paragraph (1). Such report shall address the need, feasibility, and estimated costs of subjecting such existing surface impoundments to the requirements of paragraph (1).
"(B) In the case of any existing surface impoundment or class of surface impoundments from which the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) determines hazardous constituents are likely to migrate into ground water, the Administrator (or if appropriate, the State) is authorized to impose such requirements as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment, including the requirements of section 3004(c) which would apply to such impoundments if they were new.
"(C) In the case of any surface impoundment excluded by paragraph (3) from the requirements of paragraph (1) which is subsequently determined to be leaking, the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) shall require compliance with paragraph (1), unless the Administrator (or, if appropriate, the State) determines that such compliance is not necessary to protect human health and the environment.
"(8) In the case of any surface impoundment in which the liners and leak detection system have been installed pursuant to the requirements of paragraph (1) and in good faith compliance with section 3004(c) and the Administrator's regulations and guidance documents governing liners and leak detection systems, no liner or leak detection system which is different from that which was so installed pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be required for such unit by the Administrator when issuing the first permit under this section to such facility. Nothing in this paragraph shall preclude the Administrator from requiring installation of a new liner when the Administrator has reason to believe that any liner installed pursuant to the requirements of this subsection is leaking.
"(9) In the case of any surface impoundment which has been excluded by paragraph (2) on the basis of a liner meeting the definition under paragraph (12)(A)(ii), at the closure of such impoundment the Administrator shall require the owner or operator of such impoundment to remove or decontaminate all waste residues, all contaminated liner material, and contaminated soil to the extent practicable. If all contaminated soil is not removed or decontaminated, the owner or operator of such impoundment shall be required to comply with appropriate post-closure requirements, including but not limited to ground water monitoring and corrective action.
"(10) Any incremental cost attributable to the requirements of this subsection or section 3004(c) shall not be considered by the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program under section 402 of the Clean Water Act)—
"(A) in establishing effluent limitations and standards under section 301, 304, 306, 307, or 402 of the Clean Water Act based on effluent limitations guidelines and standards promulgated any time before twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; or
"(B) in establishing any other effluent limitations to carry out the provisions of section 301, 307, or 402 of the Clean Water Act on or before October 1, 1986.
"(11)(A) If the Administrator allows a hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of section 3004 (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under such subsection) to be placed in a surface impoundment (which is operating pursuant to interim status) for storage or treatment, such impoundment shall meet the requirements that are applicable to new surface impoundments under section 3004(c)(1), unless such impoundment meets the requirements of paragraph (2) or (4).
"(B) In the case of any hazardous waste which is prohibited from one or more methods of land disposal under subsection
(d) ,
(e) , or
(g) of section 3004 (or under regulations promulgated by the Administrator under such subsection) the placement or maintenance of such hazardous waste in a surface impoundment for treatment is prohibited as of the effective date of such prohibition unless the treatment residues which are hazardous are, at a minimum, removed for subsequent management within one year of the entry of the waste into the surface impoundment.
"(12)(A) For the purposes of paragraph (2)(A) of this subsection, the term 'liner' means—
"(i) a liner designed, constructed, installed, and operated to prevent hazardous waste from passing into the liner at any time during the active life of the facility; or
"(ii) a liner designed, constructed, installed, and operated to prevent hazardous waste from migrating beyond the liner to adjacent subsurface soil, ground water, or surface water at any time during the active life of the facility.
"(B) For the purposes of this subsection, the term 'aggressive biological treatment facility' means a system of surface impoundments in which the initial impoundment of the secondary treatment segment of the facility utilizes intense mechanical aeration to enhance biological activity to degrade waste water pollutants and
"(i) the hydraulic retention time in such initial impoundment is no longer than 6 days under normal operating conditions, on an annual average basis;
"(ii) the hydraulic retention time in such initial impoundment is no longer than thirty days under normal operating conditions, on an annual average basis: Provided, That the sludge in such impoundment does not constitute a hazardous waste as identified by the extraction procedure toxicity characteristic in effect on the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984; or
"(iii) such system utilizes activated sludge treatment in the first portion of secondary treatment.
12-28-84
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
27
"10) For the purposes of this subsection, the term 'underground source or drinking water' has the same meaning as provided in regulations under the Safe Drinking Water Act (title XIV of the Public Health Service Act). "(18) The Administrator may modify the requirements of paragraph (1) in the case of a surface impoundment for which the owner or operator, prior to October 1, 1984, has entered into, and is in compliance with, a consent order, decree, or agreement with the Administrator or a State with an authorized program mandating corrective action with respect to such surface impoundment that provides a degree of protection of human health and the environment which is at a minimum equivalent to that provided by paragraph (1).
"Sec. 3006.
(a) Federal Guidelines.-Not later than eighteen months after the date of enactment of this Act, the Administrator, after consultation with State authorities, shall promulgate guidelines to assist States in the development of State hazardous waste programs. "(b) Authorization of State Program.-Any State which seeks to administer and enforce a hazardous waste program pursuant to this subtitle may develop and, after notice and opportunity for public hearing, submit to the Administrator an application, in such form as he shall require, for authorization of such program. Within ninety days following submission of an application under this subsection, the Administrator shall issue a notice as to whether or not he expects such program to be authorized, and within ninety days following such notice (and after opportunity for public hearing) he shall publish his findings as to whether or not the conditions listed in items (1), (2), and (3) below have been met. Such State is authorized to carry out such program in lieu of the Federal program under this subtitle in such State and to issue and enforce permits for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste (and to enforce permits deemed to have been issued under section 3012(d)(1)) unless, within ninety days following submission of the application the Administrator notifies such State that such program may not be authorized and, within ninety days following such notice and after opportunity for public hearing, he finds that (1) such State program is not equivalent to the Federal program under this subtitle, (2) such program is not consistent with the Federal or State programs applicable in other States, or (3) such program does not provide adequate enforcement of compliance with the requirements of this subtitle. In authorizing a State program, the Administrator may base his findings on the Federal program in effect one year prior to submission of a State's application or in effect on January 26, 1983, whichever is later. [3006(b) amended by PL 98-616] "(c) Interim Authorization.- (1) Any State which has in existence a hazardous waste program pursuant to State law before the date ninety days after the date of promulgation of regulations under sections 3002, 3003, 3004, and 3005, may submit to the Administrator evidence of such existing program and may request a temporary authorization to carry out such program under this subtitle. The Administrator shall, if the evidence submitted shows the existing State program to be substantially equivalent to the Federal program under this subtitle, grant an interim authorization to the State to carry out such program in lieu of the Federal program pursuant to this subtitle for a period ending no later than January 31, 1986. [3006(c)(1) designated and amended by PL 98-616] [3006(c)(2)-(4) added by PL 98-616] "(2) The Administrator shall, by rule, establish a date for the expiration of interim authorization under this subsection. "(3) Pending interim or final authorization of a State program for any State which reflects the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the State may enter into an agreement with the Administrator under which the State may assist in the administration of the requirements and prohibitions which take effect pursuant to such Amendments. "(4) In the case of a State permit program for any State which is authorized under subsection
(b) or under this subsection, until such program is amended to reflect the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 and such program amendments receive interim or final authorization, the Administrator shall have the authority in such State to issue or deny permits or those portions of permits affected by the requirements and prohibitions established by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. The Administrator shall coordinate with States the procedures for issuing such permits. "(d) Effect of State Permit.-Any action taken by a State under a hazardous waste program authorized under this section shall have the same force and effect as action taken by the Administrator under this subtitle. "(e) Withdrawal of Authorization.-Whenever the Administrator determines after public hearing that a State is not administering and enforcing a program authorized under this section in accordance with requirements of this section, he shall so notify the State and, if appropriate corrective action is not taken within a reasonable time, not to exceed ninety days, the Administrator shall withdraw authorization of such program and establish a Federal program pursuant to this subtitle. The Administrator shall not withdraw authorization of any such program unless he shall first have notified the State; and made public, in writing, the reasons for such withdrawal.
[3006(f) added by PL 98-616]
(f) AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION.—No State program may be authorized by the Administrator under this section unless—
(1) such program provides for the public availability of information obtained by the State regarding facilities and sites for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste; and
(2) such information is available to the public in substantially the same manner, and to the same degree, as would be the case if the Administrator was carrying out the provisions of this subtitle in such State.
[Editor's note: Section 226(b) of PL 98-616 provides:
**(b) The amendment made by subsection
(a) shall apply with respect to State programs authorized under section 3006 before, on, or after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984.**
(a) added 3006(f) of RCRA.]
(g) AMENDMENTS MADE BY 1984 ACT.—(1) Any requirement or prohibition which is applicable to the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste and which is imposed under this subtitle pursuant to the amendments made by the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 shall take effect in each State having an interim or finally authorized State program on the same date as such requirement takes effect in other States. The Administrator shall carry out such requirement directly in each such State unless the State program is finally authorized for its granted interim authorization as provided in paragraph (2) with respect to such requirement.
(2) Any State which, before the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 has an existing hazardous waste program which has been granted interim or final authorization under this section may submit to the Administrator evidence that such existing program contains or has been amended to include any requirement which is substantially equivalent to a requirement referred to in paragraph (1) and may request interim authorization to carry out that requirement under this subtitle. The Administrator shall, if the evidence submitted shows the State requirement to be substantially equivalent to the requirement referred to in paragraph (1), grant an interim authorization to the State to carry out such requirement in lieu of direct administration in the State by the Administrator of such requirement.
[3006(g) added by PL 98-616]
Sec. 3007.
(a) Access Entry.—For purposes of developing or assisting in the development of any regulation or enforcing the provisions of this title, any person who generates, stores, treats, transports, disposes of, or otherwise handles or has handled hazardous wastes shall, upon request of any officer, employee or representative of the Environmental Protection Agency, duly designated by the Administrator, or upon request of any duly designated officer, employee or representative of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program, furnish information relating to such wastes and permit such person at all reasonable times to have access to, and to copy all records relating to such wastes. For the purposes of developing or assisting in the development of any regulation or enforcing the provisions of this title, such officers, employees or representatives are authorized—
(1) to enter at reasonable times any establishment or other place where hazardous wastes are or have been generated, stored, treated, disposed of, or transported from;
(2) to inspect and obtain samples from any person of any such wastes and samples of any containers or labeling for such wastes.
Each such inspection shall be commenced and completed with reasonable promptness. If the officer, employee or representative obtains any samples, prior to leaving the premises, he shall give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the sample obtained and if requested a portion of each such sample equal in volume or weight to the portion retained. If any analysis is made of such samples, a copy of the results of such analysis shall be furnished promptly to the owner, operator, or agent in charge.
[3007(a) amended by PL 96-482]
(b) Availability to Public.—(1) Any records, reports, or information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) obtained from any person under this section shall be available to the public, except that upon a showing satisfactory to the Administrator (or the State, as the case may be) by any person that records, reports, or information, (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) or particular part thereof, to which the Administrator (or the State, as the case may be) or any officer, employee or representative thereof has access under this section if made public, would divulge information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) entitled to protection under section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code, such information or particular portion thereof shall be considered confidential in accordance with the purposes of that section, except that such record, report, document, or information may be disclosed to other officers, employees, or authorized representatives of the United States concerned with carrying out this Act, or when relevant in any proceeding under this Act.
(2) Any person not subject to the provisions of section 1905 of title 18 of the United States Code who knowingly and willfully divulges or discloses any information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) entitled to protection under this subsection shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $5,000 or to imprisonment not to exceed one year, or both.
(3) In submitting data under this Act, a person required to provide such data may—
"(A) designate the data which such person believes is entitled to protection under this subsection, and "(B) submit such designated data separately from other data submitted under this Act. A designation under this paragraph shall be made in writing and in such manner as the Administrator may prescribe. "(4) Notwithstanding any limitation contained in this section or any other provision of law, all information (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency) reported to, or otherwise obtained by, the Administrator (or any representative of the Administrator) under this Act shall be made available, upon written request of any duly authorized committee of the Congress, to such committee (including records, reports, or information obtained by representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency).
"(c) Federal Facility Inspections.-Beginning twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall, or in the case of a State with an authorized hazardous waste program the State may, undertake on an annual basis a thorough inspection of each facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste which is owned or operated by a Federal agency to enforce its compliance with this subtitle and the regulations promulgated thereunder. The records of such inspections shall be available to the public as provided in subsection
(b) . [3007(c) added by PL 98-616]
"(d) State-Operated Facilities.-The Administrator shall annually undertake a thorough inspection of every facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste which is operated by a State or local government for which a permit is required under section 3005 of this title. The records of such inspection shall be available to the public as provided in subsection
(b) . [3007(d) added by PL 98-616] "(e) Mandatory Inspections.-(1) The Administrator (or the State in the case of a State having an authorized hazardous waste program under this subtitle) shall commence a program to thoroughly inspect every facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste for which a permit is required under section 3005 no less often than every two years as to its compliance with this subtitle (and the regulations promulgated under this subtitle). Such inspections shall commence not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. The Administrator shall, after notice and opportunity for public comment, promulgate regulations governing the minimum frequency and manner of such inspections, including the manner in which records of such inspections shall be maintained and the manner in which reports of such inspections shall be filed. The Administrator may distinguish between classes and categories of facilities commensurate with the risks posed by each class or category. "(2) Not later than six months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall submit to the Congress a report on the potential for inspections of hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities by nongovernmental inspectors as a supplement to inspections conducted by officers, employees, or representatives of the Environmental Protection Agency or States having authorized hazardous waste programs or operating under a cooperative agreement with the Administrator. Such report shall be prepared in cooperation with the States, insurance companies offering environmental impairment insurance, independent companies providing inspection services, and other such groups as appropriate. Such report shall contain recommendations on provisions and requirements for a program of private inspections to supplement governmental inspections. [3007(e) added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3008.
(a) Compliance Orders.- (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), whenever on the basis of any information the Administrator determines that any person has violated or is in violation of any requirement of this subtitle, the Administrator may issue an order assessing a civil penalty for any past or current violation, requiring compliance immediately or within a specified time period, or both, or the Administrator may commence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the violation occurred for appropriate relief, including a temporary or permanent injunction. [3008(a)(1) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(2) In the case of a violation of any requirement of this subtitle where such violation occurs in a State which is authorized to carry out a hazardous waste program under section 3006, the Administrator shall give notice to the State in which such violation has occurred prior to issuing an order or commencing a civil action under this section. [3008(a)(2) amended by PL 96-482] "(3) Any order issued pursuant to this subsection may include a suspension or revocation of any permit issued by the Administrator or a State under this subtitle and shall state with reasonable specificity the nature of the violation. Any penalty assessed in the order shall not exceed $25,000 per day of noncompliance for each violation of a requirement of this subtitle. In assessing such a penalty, the Administrator shall take into account the seriousness of the violation and any good faith efforts to comply with applicable requirements. [3008(a)(3) revised by PL 98-616] "(b) Public Hearing.-Any order issued under this section shall become final unless, no later than thirty days after the order is served, the person or persons named therein request a public hearing. Upon such request the Administrator shall promptly conduct a public hearing. In connection with any proceeding under
this section the Administrator may issue subpoenas for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of relevent papers, books, and documents, and may promulgate rules for discovery procedures. [3008(b) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(c) Violation of Compliance Orders.-If a violator fails to take corrective action within the time specified in a compliance order, the Administrator may assess a civil penalty of not more than $25,000 for each day of continued noncompliance with the order and the Administrator may suspend or revoke any permit issued to the violator (whether issued by the Administrator or the State). [3008(c) amended by PL 96-482; revised by PL 98-616] "(d) Criminal Penalties.-Any person who- "(1) knowingly transports or causes to be transported any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle to a facility which does not have a permit under this subtitle, or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052). "(2) knowingly treats, stores, or disposes of any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle- "(A) without a permit under this subtitle or pursuant to title I of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act (86 Stat. 1052); or "(B) in knowing violation of any material condition or requirement of such permit; or "(C) in knowing violation of any material condition or require- ment of any applicable interim status regulations or stand- ards: "(3) knowingly omits material information or makes any false material statement or representation in any application, label, manifest, record, report, permit, or other document filed, maintained, or used for purposes of compliance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator (or by a State in the case of an authorized State program) under this subtitle; "(4) knowingly generates, stores, treats, transports, disposes of, exports, or otherwise handles any hazardous waste (whether such activity took place before or takes place after the date of the enactment of this paragraph) and who knowingly destroys, alters, conceals, or fails to file any record, application, manifest, report, or other document required to be maintained or filed for purposes of compliance with regulations promulgated by the Administrator (or by a State in the case of an authorized State program) under this subtitle; "(5) knowingly transports without a manifest, or causes to be transported without a manifest, any hazardous waste required by regulations promulgated under this subtitle (or by a State in the case of a State program authorized under this subtitle) to be accompanied by a manifest, or "(6) knowingly exports a hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle (A) without the consent of the receiving country or, (B) where there exists an international agreement between the United States and the government of the receiving country establishing notice, export, and enforcement procedures for the transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes, in a manner which is not in conformance with such agreement shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $50,000 for each day of violation, or imprisonment not to exceed two years (five years in the case of a violation of paragraph (1) or (2)), or both. If the conviction is for a violation committed after a first conviction of such person under this paragraph, the maximum punishment under the respective paragraph shall be doubled with respect to both fine and imprisonment. [3008(d) revised by PL 96-482; PL 98-616] "(e) Knowing Endangerment.-Any person who knowingly transports, treats, stores, disposes of, or exports any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle in violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of subsection
(d) of this section who knows at that time that he thereby places another person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury, shall, upon conviction, be subject to a fine of not more than $250,000 or imprisonment for not more than fifteen years, or both. A defendant that is an organization shall, upon conviction of violating this subsection, be subject to a fine of not more than $1,000,000. [3008(e) added by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616] "(f) Special Rules.-For the purposes of subsection
(e) - "(1) A person's state of mind is knowing with respect to- "(A) his conduct, if he is aware of the nature of his conduct; "(B) an existing circumstance, if he is aware or believes that the circumstance exists; or "(C) a result of his conduct, if he is aware or believes that his conduct is substantially certain to cause danger of death or serious bodily injury. "(2) In determining whether a defendant who is a natural person knew that his conduct placed another person in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury- "(A) the person is responsible only for actual awareness or actual belief that he possessed; and "(B) knowledge possessed by a person other than the defendant but not by the defendant himself may not be attributed to the defendant;
Provided, That in proving the defendant's possession of actual knowledge, circumstantial evidence may be used, including evidence that the defendant took affirmative steps to shield himself from relevant information. "(3) It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution that the conduct charged was consented to by the person endangered and that the danger and conduct charged were reasonably foreseeable hazards of- "(A) an occupation, a business, or a profession; or
"(B) medical treatment or medical or scientific experimentation conducted by professionally approved methods and such other person had been made aware of the risks involved prior to giving consent. The defendant may establish an affirmative defense under this subsection by a preponderance of the evidence. "(4) All general defenses, affirmative defenses, and bars to prosecution that may apply with respect to other Federal criminal offenses may apply under subsection
(e) and shall be determined by the courts of the United States according to the principles of common law as they may be interpreted in the light of reason and experience. Concepts of justification and excuse applicable under this section may be developed in the light of reason and experience. "(5) The term 'organization' means a legal entity, other than a government, established or organized for any purpose, and such term includes a corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, joint stock company, foundation, institution, trust, society, union, or any other association of persons. "(6) The term 'serious bodily injury' means- "(A) bodily injury which involves a substantial risk of death; "(B) unconsciousness; "(C) extreme physical pain; "(D) protracted and obvious disfigurement; or "(E) protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty. "(g) Civil Penalty.-Any person who violates any requirement of this subtitle shall be liable to the United States for a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $25,000 for each such violation. Each day of such violation shall, for purposes of this subsection, constitute a separate violation. [3008(g) added by PL 96-482] "O) Intense Statios Conncictive Actios Oasens.-(1) Whonowr on the haste of any information the Administrear detormines that there is or has been a release of hasardous waste into the environment from a facility authorized to operate under section 3008(a) of this subtitle, the Administrator may issue an order requiring corrective action or such other response measure as be deems necessary to protect human health or the environment or the Administrator may cmeasence a civil action in the United States district court in the district in which the facility is located for appropriate relief, including a temporary or parmenent injunction. "(2) Any order issued under this subsection may include a suspension or revocation of authorization to operate under section 3008(a) of this subtitle, shall state with reasonable specificity the nature of the required corrective action or other response measure, and shall specify a time for compliance. If any person named in an order fails to comply with the order, the Administrator may cmeas, and such person shall be liable to the United States for, a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $25,000 for each day of noncompliance with the order. [3008(h) added by PL 98-616] "Retention of State Authority "Sec. 3009. Upon the effective date of regulations under this subtitle no State or political subdivision may impose any requirements less stringent than those authorized under this subtitle respecting the same matter as governed by such regulations, except that if application of a regulation with respect to any matter under this subtitle is postponed or enjoined by the action of any court, no State or political subdivision shall be prohibited from acting with respect to the same aspect of such matter until such time as such regulation takes effect. Nothing in this title shall be construed to prohibit any State or political subdivision thereof from imposing any requirements, including those for site selection, which are more stringent than those imposed by such regulations. Nothing in this title (or in any regulation adopted under this title) shall be construed to prohibit any State from requiring that the State be provided with a copy of each manifest used in connection with hazardous waste which is generated within that State or transported to a treatment, storage, or disposal facility within that State. [3009 amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
"Sec. 3010.
(a) Preliminary Notification.-Not later than ninety days after promulgation of regulations under section 3001 identifying by its characteristics or listing any substance as hazardous waste subject to this subtitle, any person generating or transporting such substance or owning or operating a facility for treatment, storage, or disposal of such substance shall file with the Administrator (or with States having authorized hazardous waste permit programs under section 3006) a notification stating the location and general description of such activity and the identified or listed hazardous wastes handled by such person. Not later than fifteen months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984- "(1) The owner or operator of any facility which produces a fuel (A) from any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001, (B) from such hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 and any other material, (C) from used oil, or (D) from used oil and any other material:
poset of energy recovery any fuel produced as provided in paragraph (1) or any fuel which otherwise contains used oil or any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001; and
(3) any person who distributes or markets any fuel which is produced as provided in paragraph (1) or any fuel which otherwise contain used oil or any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 shall file with the Administrator (and with the State in the case of a State with an authorized hazardous waste program) a notification stating the location and general description of the facility, together with a description of the identified or listed hazardous waste involved and, in the case of a facility referred to in paragraph (1) or (2), a description of the production or energy recovery activity carried out at the facility and such other information as the Administrator deems necessary. For purposes of the preceding provisions, the term "hazardous waste listed under section 3001" also includes any commercial chemical product which is listed under section 3001 and which, in lieu of its original intended use, is
(i) produced for use as (or as a component of) a fuel, (ii) distributed for use as a fuel, or (iii) burned as a fuel. Notification shall not be required under the second sentence of this subsection in the case of facilities (such as residential builders) where the Administrator determines that such notification is not necessary in order for the Administrator to obtain sufficient information respecting current practices of facilities using hazardous waste for energy recovery. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect or impair the provisions of section 3001(b)(3). Nothing in this subsection shall affect regulatory determinations under section 3014. In revising any regulation under section 3001 identifying additional characteristics of hazardous waste or listing any additional substance as hazardous waste subject to this subtitle, the Administrator may require any person referred to in the preceding provisions to file with the Administrator (or with States having authorized hazardous waste permit programs under section 3006) the notification described in the preceding provisions. Not more than one such notification shall be required to be filed with respect to the same substance. No identified or listed hazardous waste subject to this subtitle may be transported, treated, stored, or disposed of unless notification has been given as required under this subsection.
[3010(a) amended by PL 96-482; revised by PL 98-616]
"(b) Effective Date of Regulation.—The regulations under this subtitle respecting requirements applicable to the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, or
posal) shall take effect on the date six months after the date of promulgation thereof (or six months after the date of revision in the case of any regulation which is revised after the date required for promulgation thereof). At the time a regulation is promulgated, the Administrator may provide for a shorter period prior to the effective date, or an immediate effective date for:
(1) a regulation with which the Administrator finds the regulated community does not need six months to come into compliance;
(2) a regulation which responds to an emergency situation; or
(3) other good cause found and published with the regulation.
[3010(b) amended by PL 98-616]
"Authorization of Assistance to States
"Sec. 3011.
(a) Authorization.—There is authorized to be appropriated $25,000,000 for each of the fiscal years 1978 and 1979, $20,000,000 for fiscal year 1980, $35,000,000 for fiscal year 1981, $40,000,000 for the fiscal year 1982, $55,000,000 for the fiscal year 1985, $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1986, $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1987, and $60,000,000 for the fiscal year 1988 to be used to make grants to the States for purposes of assisting the States in the development and implementation of authorized State hazardous waste programs.
[3011(a) amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
"(b) Allocation.—Amounts authorized to be appropriated under subsection
(a) shall be allocated among the States on the basis of regulations promulgated by the Administrator, after consultation with the States, which take into account, the extent to which hazardous waste is generated, transported, treated, stored, and disposed of within such State, the extent of exposure of human beings and the environment within such State to such waste, and such other factors as the Administrator deems appropriate.
"(c) Activities Included.—State hazardous waste programs for which grants may be made under subsection
(a) may include (but shall not be limited to) planning for hazardous waste treatment, storage and disposal facilities, and the development and execution of programs to protect health and the environment from inactive facilities which may contain hazardous waste.
[3011(c) added by PL 96-482]
Published by THE BUREAU OF NATIONAL AFFAIRS, INC., Washington, D.C. 20037
33
"Sec. 3012.
(a) State Inventory Programs.-Each State shall, as expeditiously as practicable, undertake a continuing program to compile, publish, and submit to the Administrator an inventory describing the location of each site within such State at which hazardous waste has at any time been stored or disposed of. Such inventory shall contain- "(1) a description of the location of the sites at which any such storage or disposal has taken place before the date on which permits are required under section 3005 for such storage or disposal; " (2) such information relating to the amount, nature, and toxicity of the hazardous waste at each such site as may be practicable to obtain and as may be necessary to determine the extent of any health hazard which may be associated with such site; " (3) the name and address, or corporate headquarters of, the owner of each such site, determined as of the date of preparation of the inventory; "(4) an identification of the types or techniques of waste treatment or disposal which have been used at each such site; and "(5) information concerning the current status of the site, including information respecting whether or not hazardous waste is currently being treated or disposed of at such site (and if not, the date on which such activity ceased) and information respecting the nature of any other activity currently carried out at such site. For purposes of assisting the States in compiling information under this section, the Administrator shall make available to each State undertaking a program under this section such information as is available to him concerning the items specified in paragraphs (1) through (5) with respect to the sites within such State, including such information as the Administrator is able to obtain from other agencies or departments of the United States and from surveys and studies carried out by any committee or subcommittee of the Congress. Any State may exercise the authority of section 3007 for purposes of this section in the same manner and to the same extent as provided in such section in the case of States having an authorized hazardous waste program, and any State may by order require any person to submit such information as may be necessary to compile the data referred to in paragraphs (1) through (5). "
(b) Environmental Protection Agency Program.-If the Administrator determines that any State program under subsection
(a) is not adequately providing information respecting the sites in such State referred to in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall notify the State. If within ninety days following such notification, the State program has not been revised or amended in such manner as will adequately provide such information, the Administrator shall carry out the inventory program in such State. In any such case- "(1) the Administrator shall have the authorities provided with respect to State programs under subsection
(a) ; (2) the funds allocated under subsection
(c) for grants to States under this section may be used by the Administrator for carrying out such program in such State; and "(3) no further expenditure may be made for grants to such State under this section until such time as the Administrator determines that such State is carrying out, or will carry out, an inventory program which meets the requirements of this section. "(c) Grants.-(1) Upon receipt of an application submitted by any State to carry out a program under this section, the Administrator may make grants to the States for purposes of carrying out such a program. Grants under this section shall be allocated among the several States by the Administrator based upon such regulations as he prescribes to carry out the purposes of this section. The Administrator may make grants to any State which has conducted an inventory program which effectively carried out the purposes of this section before the date of the enactment of the Solid Waste Disposal Act Amendments of 1980 to reimburse such State for all, or any portion of, the costs incurred by such State in conducting such program. "(2) There are authorized to be appropriated to carry out this section $25,000,000 for each of the fiscal years 1985 through 1988. [3012(c)(2) amended by PL 98-616] "(d) No Impediment to Immediate Remedial Action. -Nothing in this section shall be construed to provide that the Administrator or any State should, pending completion of the inventory required under this section, postpone undertaking any enforcement or remedial action with respect to any site at which hazardous waste has been treated, stored, or disposed of. [3012 added by PL 96-482]
"Sec. 3013.
(a) Authority of Administrators.-If the Administrator determines, upon receipt of any information, that- "(1) the presence of any hazardous waste at a facility or site at which hazardous waste is, or has been, stored, treated, or disposed of, or
"(2) the release of any such waste from such facility or site may present a substantial hazard to human health or the environment, he may issue an order requiring the owner or operator of such facility or site to conduct such monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting with respect to such facility or site as the Administrator deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of such hazard. "(b) Previous Owners and Operators.-In the case of any facility or site not in operation at the time a determination is made under subsection
(a) with respect to the facility or site, if the Administrator finds that the owner of such facility or site could not reasonably be expected to have actual knowledge of the presence of hazardous waste at such facility or site and of its potential for release, he may issue an order requiring the most recent previous owner or operator of such facility or site who could reasonably be expected to have such actual knowledge to carry out the actions referred to in subsection
(a) . "(c) Proposal.-An order under subsection
(a) or
(b) shall require the person to whom such order is issued to submit to the Administrator within 30 days from the issuance of such order a proposal for carrying out the required monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting. The Administrator may, after providing such person with an opportunity to confer with the Administrator respecting such proposal, require such person to carry out such monitoring, testing, analysis, and reporting in accordance with such proposal, and such modifications in such proposal as the Administrator deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of the hazard. "(d) Monitoring, Etc., Carried Out by Administrator.-(1) If the Administrator determines that no owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) is able to conduct monitoring, testing, analysis, or reporting satisfactory to the Administrator, if the Administrator deems any such action carried out by an owner or operator to be unsatisfactory, or if the Administrator cannot initially determine that there is an owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) who is able to conduct such monitoring, testing, analysis, or reporting, he may- "(A) conduct monitoring, testing, or analysis (or any combination thereof) which he deems reasonable to ascertain the nature and extent of the hazard associated with the site concerned, or "(B) authorize a State or local authority or other $\mathbf{r}$ erson to carry out any such action, and require, by order, the owner or operator referred to in subsection
(a) or
(b) to reimburse the Administrator or other authority or person for the costs of such activity. "(2) No order may be issued under this subsection requiring reimbursement of the costs of any action carried out by the Administrator which confirms the results of an order issued under subsection
(a) or
(b) . "(3) For purposes of carrying out this subsection, the Administrator or any authority or other person authorized under paragraph (1), may exercise the authorities set forth in section 3007. "(e) Enforcement.-The Administrator may commence a civil action against any person who fails or refuses to comply with any order issued under this section. Such action shall be brought in the United States district court in which the defendant is located, resides, or is doing business. Such court shall have jurisdiction to require compliance with such order and to assess a civil penalty of not to exceed $5,000 for each day during which such failure or refusal occurs. [3013 added by PL 96-482]
"Sec. 3014.
(a) In General-Not later than one year after the date of the enactment of this section, the Administrator shall promulgate regulations establishing such performance standards and other requirements as may be necessary to protect the public health and the environment from hazards associated with recycled oil. In developing such regulations, the Administrator shall conduct an analysis of the economic impact of the regulations on the oil recycling industry. The Administrator shall ensure that such regulations do not discourage the recovery or recycling of used oil, consistent with the protection of human health and the environment. [3012 added by PL 96-463; amended and redesignated as 3014(a) by PL 98-616]
The Deuntification of Lestons of Ured OU as Hazardous Waste.-Not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 the Administrator shall propose whether to list or identify used automobile and truck crankcase oil as hazardous waste under section 3001. Not later than twenty-four months after such date of enactment, the Administrator shall make a final determination whether to list or identify used automobile and truck crankcase oil and other used oil as hazardous wastes under section 3001. [3014(b) and
(c) added by PL 98-616] "(c) Ured On. Wace is Recycles.-(1) With respect to generators and transporters of used oil identified or lined as a humedous waste under section 3001, the mandarits promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 of this subtitle shall not apply to such used oil if such used oil is recycled. "(2)(A) In the case of used oil which is exempt under paragraph (1), not later than twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, the Administrator shall promulgate such mandarits under this subsection regarding the generation and transportation of used oil which is recycled as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. In
promulgating such regulations with respect to generators, the Administrator shall take into account the effect of such regulations on environmentally acceptable types of used oil recycling and the effect of such regulations on small quantity generators and generators which are small businesses (as defined by the Administrator). "(B) The regulations promulgated under this subsection shall provide that no generator of used oil which is exempt under paragraph (1) from the standards promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 shall be subject to any manifest requirement or any associated recordkeeping and reporting requirement with respect to such used oil if such generator- "(i) either- "(I) enters into an agreement or other arrangement (including an agreement or arrangement with an independent transporter or with an agent of the recycler) for delivery of such used oil to a recycling facility which has a permit under section 3005(c) (or for which a valid permit is deemed to be in effect under subsection
(d) ), or "(II) recycles such used oil at one or more facilities of the generator which has such a permit under section 3005 of this subtitle (or for which a valid permit is deemed to have been issued under subsection
(d) of this section); "(ii) such used oil is not mixed by the generator with other types of hazardous wastes; and "(iii) the generator maintains such records relating to such used oil, including records of agreements or other arrangements for delivery of such used oil to any recycling facility referred to in clause
(i) (1), as the Administrator deems necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(3) The regulations under this subsection regarding the transportation of used oil which is exempt from the standards promulgated under section 3001(d), 3002, and 3003 under paragraph (1) shall require the transporters of such used oil to deliver such used oil to a facility which has a valid permit under section 3005 of this subtitle or which is deemed to have a valid permit under subsection
(d) of this section. The Administrator shall also establish other standards for such transporters as may be necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(d) Permits.-(1) The owner or operator of a facility which recycles used oil which is exempt under subsection
(c) (1), shall be deemed to have a permit under this subsection for all such treatment or recycling (and any associated tank or container storage) if such owner and operator comply with standards promulgated by the Administrator under section 3004; except that the Administrator may require such owners and operators to obtain an individual permit under section 3005(c) if he determines that an individual permit is necessary to protect human health and the environment. "(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any generator who recycles used oil which is exempt under subsection
(c) (1) shall not be required to obtain a permit under section 3005(c) with respect to such used oil until the Administrator has promulgated standards under section 3004 regarding the recycling of such used oil.
"SEC. 3015.
(a) Waste Ples.-The owner or operator of a waste pile qualifying for the authorization to operate under section 3005(a) shall be subject to the same requirements for liners and leachate collection systems or equivalent protection provided in regulations promulgated by the Administrator under section 3004 before October 1, 1982, or revised under section 3004(o) (relating to minimum technological requirements), for new facilities receiving individual permits under subsection
(c) of section 3005, with respect to each new unit, replacement of an existing unit, or lateral expansion of an existing unit that is within the waste management area identified in the permit application submitted under section 3005, and with respect to waste received beginning six months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. "(b) Landfills and Surface Impoundments.-(1) The owner or operator of a landfill or surface impoundment qualifying for the authorization to operate under section 3005(a) shall be subject to the requirements of section 3004(o) (relating to minimum technological requirements), with respect to each new unit, replacement of an existing unit, or lateral expansion of an existing unit that is within the waste management area identified in the permit application submitted under this section, and with respect to waste received beginning 6 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984. "(2) The owner or operator of each unit referred to in paragraph (1) shall notify the Administrator (or the State, if appropriate) at least sixty days prior to receiving waste. The Administrator (or the State) shall require the filing, within six months of receipt of such notice, of an application for a final determination regarding the issuance of a permit for each facility submitting such notice. "(3) In the case of any unit in which the liner and leachate collection system has been installed pursuant to the requirements of this section and in good faith compliance with the Administrator's regulations and guidance documents governing liners and leachate collection systems, no liner or leachate collection system which is different from that which was so installed pursuant to this section shall be required for such unit by the Administrator when issuing the first permit under section 3005 to such facility, except that the Administrator shall not be precluded from requiring installation of a new liner when the Administrator has reason to believe that any liner installed pursuant to the requirements of this section is leaking. The Administrator may, under section 3004, amend the requirements for liners and leachate collection systems required under this section as may be necessary to provide additional protection for human health and the environment.
"SEC. 3016.
(a) Each Federal agency shall undertake a continuing program to compile, publish, and submit to the Administrator (and to the State in the case of sites in States having an authorized hazardous waste program) an inventory of each site which the Federal agency owns or operates or has owned or operated at which hazardous waste is stored, treated, or disposed of or has been disposed of at any time. The inventory shall be submitted every two years beginning January 31, 1986. Such inventory shall be available to the public as provided in section 3007(b). Information previously submitted by a Federal agency under section 103 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, or under section 3005 or 3010 of this Act, or under this section need not be readmitted except that the agency shall update any previous submission to reflect the latest available data and information. The inventory shall include each of the following: "(1) A description of the location of each site at which any such treatment, storage, or disposal has taken place before the date on which permits are required under section 3006 for such storage, treatment, or disposal, and where hazardous waste has been disposed, a description of hydrogeology of the site and the location of withdrawal wells and surface water within one mile of the site. "(2) Such information relating to the amount, nature, and toxicity of the hazardous waste in each site as may be necessary to determine the extent of any health hazard which may be associated with any site. "(3) Information on the known nature and extent of environmental contamination at each site, including a description of the monitoring data obtained. "(4) Information concerning the current status of the site, including information respecting whether or not hazardous waste is currently being treated, stored, or disposed of at such site (and if not, the date on which such activity ceased) and information respecting the nature of any other activity currently carried out at such site.
(5) A description of the types of techniques of waste treatment, storage, or disposal which have been used at each site.
(6) The name and address and responsible Federal agency for each site, determined as of the date of preparation of the inventory.
(b) Environmental Protection Agency Program.—If the Administrator determines that any Federal agency under subsection
(a) is not adequately providing information respecting the sites referred to in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall notify the chief official of such agency. If within ninety days following such notification, the Federal agency has not undertaken a program to adequately provide such information, the Administrator shall carry out the inventory program for such agency.
**SEC. 3017.
(a) IN GENERAL.**—Beginning twenty-four months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, no person shall export any hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle unless:
"(A) such person has provided the notification required in subsection
(c) of this section,
"(B) the government of the receiving country has consented to accept such hazardous waste,
"(C) a copy of the receiving country's written consent is attached to the manifest accompanying each waste shipment, and
"(D) the shipment conforms with the terms of the consent of the government of the receiving country required pursuant to subsection
(e) , or
"(E) the United States and the government of the receiving country have entered into an agreement as provided for in subsection
(f) and the shipment conforms with the terms of such agreement.
(b) Regulations.—Not later than twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, the Administrator shall promulgate the regulations necessary to implement this section. Such regulations shall become effective one hundred and eighty days after promulgation.
(c) Notification.—Any person who intends to export a hazardous waste identified or listed under this subtitle beginning twelve months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, shall, before such hazardous waste is scheduled to leave the United States, provide notification to the Administrator. Such notification shall contain the following information:
"(1) the name and address of the exporter;
"(2) the types and estimated quantities of hazardous waste to be exported;
"(3) the estimated frequency or rate at which such waste is to be exported; and the period of time over which such waste is to be exported;
"(4) the parts of entry;
"(5) a description of the manner in which such hazardous waste will be transported to and treated, stored, or disposed in the receiving country; and
"(6) the name and address of the ultimate treatment, storage or disposal facility.
(d) Procedures for Requiring Consent of the Receiving Country.—Within thirty days of the Administrator's receipt of a complete notification under this section, the Secretary of State, acting on behalf of the Administrator, shall—
"(1) forward a copy of the notification to the government of the receiving country;
"(2) the export of hazardous waste unless the receiving country consents to accept the hazardous waste;
"(3) request the government to provide the Secretary with a written consent or objection to the terms of the notification; and
"(4) forward to the government of the receiving country a description of the Federal regulations which would apply to the treatment, storage, and disposal of the hazardous waste in the United States.
(e) Convergence of Written Consent to Exporter.—Within thirty days of receipt by the Secretary of State of the receiving country's written consent or objection (or any subsequent communication withdrawing a prior consent or objection), the Administrator shall forward such a consent, objection, or other communication to the exporter.
(f) International Agreements.—Where there exists an international agreement between the United States and the government of the receiving country establishing notice, export, and enforcement procedures for the transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes, only the requirements of subsections
(a) (2) and
(g) shall apply.
(g) Exports.—After the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, any person who exports any hazardous waste identified or listed under section 3001 of this subtitle shall file with the Administrator no later than March 1 of each year, a report summarizing the types, quantities, frequency, and ultimate destination of all such hazardous waste exported during the previous calendar year.
(h) Other Standards.—Nothing in this section shall preclude the Administrator from establishing other standards for the export of hazardous wastes under section 3002 or section 3003 of this subtitle.
**SEC. 3018.
(a) REPORT.**—The Administrator shall, not later than 15 months after the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, submit a report to the Congress concerning those substances identified or listed under section 3001 which are not regulated under this subtitle by reason of the exclusion for mixtures of domestic sewage and other wastes that pass through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works. Such report shall include the types, size and number of generators which dispose of such substances in this manner, the types and quantities disposed of in this manner, and the identification of significant generators, wastes, and waste constituents not regulated under existing Federal law or regulated in a manner sufficient to protect human health and the environment.
(b) Review of Regulations.—Within eighteen months after submitting the report specified in subsection
(a) , the Administrator shall review existing regulations and promulgate such additional regulations pursuant to this subtitle (or any other authority of the Administrator, including section 307 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act) as are necessary to assure that substances identified or listed under section 3001 which pass through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works are adequately controlled to protect human health and the environment.
(c) Report on Wastewater Logs.—The Administrator shall, within thirty-six months after the date of the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1964, submit a report to the Congress concerning wastewater logs at publicly owned treatment works and their effect on groundwater quality. Such report shall include—
"(1) the number and size of such logs;
"(2) the types and quantities of waste contained in such logs;
"(3) the extent to which such waste has been or may be released from such logs and contaminates the ground water; and
"(4) available alternatives for preventing or controlling such releases.
The Administrator may utilize the authority of sections 3007 and 3013 for the purpose of completing such report.
"(d) APPLICATION OF SECTION 3010 AND SECTION 3007.-The provisions of sections 3007 and 3010 shall apply to solid or dissolved materials in domestic sewage to the same extent and in the same manner as such provisions apply to hazardous waste.
"SEC. 3019.
(a) EXPOSURE INFORMATION.-Beginning on the date nine months after the enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, each application for a final determination regarding a permit under section 3005(c) for a landfill or surface impoundment shall be accompanied by information reasonably as certainable by the owner or operator on the potential for the public to be exposed to hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents through releases related to the unit. At a minimum, such information must address: "(1) reasonably foreseeable potential releases from both normal operations and accidents at the unit, including releases associated with transportation to or from the unit; "(2) the potential pathways of human exposure to hazardous wastes or constituents resulting from the releases described under paragraph (1); and "(3) the potential magnitude and nature of the human exposure resulting from such releases.
The owner or operator of a landfill or surface impoundment for which an application for such a final determination under section 3005(c) has been submitted prior to the date of enactment of the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 shall submit the information required by this subsection to the Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) no later than the date nine months after such date of enactment. "(b) HEALTH ASSESSMENTS.-(1) The Administrator (or the State, in the case of a State with an authorized program) shall make the information required by subsection
(a) , together with other relevant information, available to the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry established by section 104(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980. "(2) Whenever in the judgment of the Administrator, or the State (in the case of a State with an authorized program), a landfill or a surface impoundment poses a substantial potential risk to human health, due to the existence of releases of hazardous constituents, the magnitude of contamination with hazardous constituents which may be the result of a release, or the magnitude of the population exposed to such release or contamination, the Administrator or the State (with the concurrence of the Administrator) may request the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry to conduct a health assessment in connection with such facility and take other appropriate action with respect to such risks as authorized by section 104
(b) and
(i) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980. If funds are provided in connection with such request the Administrator of such Agency shall conduct such health assessment. "(c) MEMBERS OF THE PUBLIC.-Any member of the public may submit evidence of releases of or exposure to hazardous constituents from such a facility, or as to the risks or health effects associated with such releases or exposure, to the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry, the Administrator, or the State (in the case of a State with an authorized program). "(d) PRIORITY.-In determining the order in which to conduct health assessments under this subsection, the Administrator of the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry shall give priority to those facilities or sites at which there is documented evidence of release of hazardous constituents, at which the potential risk to human health appears highest, and for which in the judgment of the Administrator of such Agency existing health assessment data is inadequate to assess the potential risk to human health as provided in subsection
(f) . "(e) PERIODIC REPORTS.-The Administrator of such Agency shall issue periodic reports which include the results of all the assessments carried out under this section. Such assessments or other activities shall be reported after appropriate peer review. "(f) DEFINITION.-For the purposes of this section, the term 'health assessments' shall include preliminary assessments of the potential risk to human health posed by individual sites and facilities subject to this section, based on such factors as the nature and extent of contamination, the existence of potential for pathways of human exposure (including ground or surface water contamination), air emissions, and food chain contamination), the size and potential susceptibility of the community within the likely pathways of exposure, the comparison of expected human exposure levels to the short-term and long-term health effects associated with identified contaminants and any available recommended exposure or tolerance limits for such contaminants, and the comparison of existing morbidity and mortality data on diseases that may be associated with the observed levels of exposure. The assessment shall include an evaluation of the risks to the potentially affected population from all sources of such contaminants, including known point or nonpoint sources other than the site or facility in question. A purpose of such preliminary assessments shall be to help determine whether fullscale health or epidemiological studies and medical evaluations of exposed populations shall be undertaken. "(g) Cost Recovery.-In any case in which a health assessment performed under this section discloses the exposure of a population to the release of a hazardous substance, the costs of such health assessment may be recovered as a cost of response under section 107 of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 from persons causing or contributing to such release of such hazardous substance or, in the case of multiple releases contributing to such exposure, to all such release.".
"Sec. 4001. The objectives of this subtitle are to assist in developing and encouraging methods for the disposal of solid waste which are environmentally sound and which maximize the utilization of valuable resources including energy and materials which are recoverable from solid waste and to encourage resource conservation. Such objectives are to be accomplished through Federal technical and financial assistance to States or regional authorities for comprehensive planning pursuant to Federal guidelines designed to foster cooperation among Federal, State, and local governments and private industry. In developing such comprehensive plans, it is the intention of this Act that in determining the size of the waste-to-energy facility, adequate provision shall be given to the present and reasonably anticipate future needs, including those needs created by thorough implementation of section 6003(1), of the recycling and resource recovery interest within the area encompassed by the planning process. [4001 amended by PL 96-482; PL 98-616]
ANEJO C-9 Subtítulo G Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Miscellaneous Provisions Section 7003 (Imminent Hazard)
RESOURCE RECOVERY ACT " $(g)$ TRANSPORTERS.-A transporter shall not be deemed to have contributed or to be contributing to the handling, storage, treatment, or disposal, referred to in subsection
(a) (1)(B) taking place after such solid waste or hazardous waste has left the possession or control of such transporter, if the transportation of such waste was under a sole contractual arrangement arising from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by common carrier by rail and such transporter has exercised due care in the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation and disposal of such waste. [7002(g) added by PL 98-616]
"Sec. 7003.
(a) Authority of Administrator.-Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, upon receipt of evidence that the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation or disposal of any solid waste or hazardous waste may present an imminent and substantial endangerment to health or the environment, the Administrator may bring suit on behalf of the United States in the appropriate district court against any person (including any past or present generator, past or present transporter, or past or present owner or operator of a treatment, storage or disposal facility) who has contributed or who is contributing to such handling, storage, treatment, transportation or disposal to restrain such person from such handling, storage, treatment, transportation, or disposal, to order such person to take such other action as may be necessary, or both. A transporter shall not be deemed to have contributed or to be contributing to such handling, storage, treatment, or disposal taking place after such solid waste or hazardous waste has left the possession or control of such transporter if the transportation of such waste was under a sole contractual arrangement arising from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage by common carrier by rail and such transporter has exercised due care in the past or present handling, storage, treatment, transportation and disposal of such waste. The Administrator shall provide notice to the affected State of any such suit. The Administrator may also, after notice to the affected State, take other action under this section including, but not limited to, issuing such orders as may be necessary to protect public health and the environment. [7003(a) designated and amended by PL 96-482; amended by PL 98-616] "(b) Violations.-Any person who willfully violates, or fails or refuses to comply with, any order of the Administrator under subsection
(a) may, in an action brought in the appropriate United States district court to enforce such order, be fined not more than $5,000 for each day in which such violation occurs or such failure to comply continues. [7003(b) added by PL 96-482] "(c) Immediate Notice.-Upon receipt of information that there is hazardous waste at any site which has presented an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment, the Administrator shall provide immediate notice to the appropriate local government agencies. In addition, the Administrator shall require notice of such endangerment to be promptly posted at the site where the waste is located. [7003(c) added by PL 98-616] "(d) Public Participation in Settlements.-Whenever the United States or the Administrator proposes to covenant not to sue or to forbear from suit or to settle any claim arising under this section, notice, and opportunity for a public meeting in the affected area, and a reasonable opportunity to comment on the proposed settlement prior to its final entry shall be afforded to the public. The decision of the United States or the Administrator to enter into or not to enter into such Consent Decree, covenant or agreement shall not constitute a final agency action subject to judicial review under this Act or the Administrative Procedure Act. [7003(d) added by PL 98-616] "Petition for Regulations; Public Participation "Sec. 7004.
(a) Petition.-Any person may petition the Administrator for the promulgation, amendment, or repeal of any regulation under this Act. Within a reasonable time following receipt of such petition, the Administrator shall take action with respect to such petition and shall publish notice of such action in the Federal Register together with the reasons therefor. "(b)(1) Public Participation.-Public participation in the development, revision, implementation, and enforcement of any regulation, guideline, information, or program under this Act shall be provided for, encouraged, and assisted by the Administrator and the States. The Administrator, in cooperation with the States, shall develop and publish minimum guidelines for public participation in such processes. [7004(b)(1) designated by PL 96-482] "(2) Before the issuing of a permit to any person with any respect to any facility for the treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous wastes under section 3005, the Administrator shall- "(A) cause to be published in major local newspapers of general circulation and broadcast over local radio stations notice of the agency's intention to issue such permit, and "(B) transmit in writing notice of the agency's intention to issue such permit to each unit of local government having jurisdiction over the area in which such facility if proposed to be located and to each State agency having any authority under State law with respect to the construction or operation of such facility. If within 45 days the Administrator receives written notice of opposition to the agency's intention to issue such permit and a request for a hearing, or if the Administrator determines on his own initiative, he shall hold an informal public hearing (including an opportu-
ANEJO C-10 40 CFR Parte 112 011 Pollution Prevention
(40 CFR 112; 38 FR 34164, December 11, 1973; Amended by 39 FR 31602, August 29, 1974; 41 FR 12657, March 26, 1976)
AUTHORITY: Secs. 311(j)(1)(C), 311(j)(3), 501(a), Federal Water Pollution Control Act (Sec. 3, Pub. L. 92-600, 80 Stat. 816 et seq. (52 U.S.C. 1261 et seq.); Sec. 4(b), Pub. L. 92-600, 80 Stat. 807; 5 U.S.C. Reorg. Plan of 1970 No. 2 (1970), 38 FR 15623, 3 CFR 1966-1970 Comp.; E.O. 11755, 80 FR 31243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 3 CFR 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 11243, 1124
ance used, or capable of being used as a means of transportation on water, other than a public vessel.
(a) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore facilities in operation on or before the effective date of this part that have discharged or, due to their location, could reasonably be expected to discharge oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines, shall prepare a Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure Plan (hereinafter "SPCC Plan"), in writing and in accordance with section 112.7. Except as provided for in paragraph
(f) of this section, such SPCC Plan shall be prepared within six months after the effective date of this part and shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than one year after the effective date of this part.
(b) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore facilities that become operational after the effective date of this part, and that have discharged or could reasonably be expected to discharge oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines, shall prepare an SPCC Plan in accordance with § 112.7. Except as provided for in paragraph
(f) of this section, such SPCC Plan shall be prepared within six months after the date such facility begins operations and shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than one year after such facility begins operations.
(c) Owners or operators of onshore and offshore mobile or portable facilities, such as onshore drilling or workover rigs, large mounted offshore drilling or workover rigs, and portable fueling facilities shall prepare and implement an SPCC Plan as required by paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) and
(d) of this section. The owners or operators of such facility need not prepare a new SPCC Plan each time the facility is moved to a new site. The SPCC Plan may be a general plan, prepared in accordance with section 112.7, using good engineering practice. When the mobile or portable facility is moved, it must be located and installed using the spill prevention practices outlined in the SPCC Plan for the facility. No mobile or portable facility subject to this regulation shall operate unless the SPCC Plan has been implemented. The SPCC Plan shall only apply while the facility is in a fixed (non-transportation) operations mode.
(d) No SPCC Plan shall be effective to satisfy the requirements of this part unless it has been reviewed by a Registered Professional Engineer and certified to by such Professional Engineer. By means of this certification the engineer, having examined the facility and being familiar with the provisions of this part, shall attest that the SPCC Plan has been prepared in accordance with good engineering practices. Such certification shall in no way relieve the owner or operator of an onshore or offshore facility of his duty to prepare and fully implement such Plan in accordance with § 112.7, as required by paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) and
(c) of this section.
(e) Owners or operators of a facility for which an SPCC Plan is required pursuant to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section shall maintain a complete copy of the Plan at such facility if the facility is normally attended at least 8 hours per day, or at the nearest field office if the facility is not so attended, and shall make such Plan available to the Regional Administrator for on-site review during normal working hours.
(f) Extensions of time.
(1) The Regional Administrator may authorize an extension of time for the preparation and full implementation of an SPCC Plan beyond the time permitted for the preparation and implementation of an SPCC Plan pursuant to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section where he finds that the owner or operator of a facility subject to paragraphs
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) of this section cannot fully comply with the requirements of this part as a result of either nonavailability of qualified personnel, or delays in construction or equipment delivery beyond the control and without the fault of such owner or operator or their respective agents or employees.
(2) Any owner or operator seeking an extension of time pursuant to paragraph
(f) (1) of this section may submit a letter of request to the Regional Administrator. Such letter shall include:
(i) A complete copy of the SPCC Plan, if completed;
(ii) A full explanation of the cause for any such delay and the specific aspects of the SPCC Plan affected by the delay;
(iii) A full discussion of actions being taken or contemplated to minimize or mitigate such delay;
(iv) A proposed time schedule for the implementation of any corrective actions being taken or contemplated, including interim dates for completion of tests or studies, installation and operation of any necessary equipment or other preventive measures.
In addition, such owner or operator may present additional oral or written statements in support of his letter of request.
(3) The submission of a letter of request for extension of time pursuant to paragraph
(f) (2) of this section shall in no way relieve the owner or operator from his obligation to comply with the requirements of § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) . Where an extension of time is authorized by the Regional Administrator for particular equipment or other specific aspects of the SPCC Plan, such extension shall in no way affect the owner's or operator's obligation to comply with the requirements of § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) with respect to other equipment or other specific aspects of the SPCC Plan for which an extension of time has not been expressly authorized.
(a) Notwithstanding compliance with § 112.3, whenever a facility subject to § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) has: Discharged more than 1,000 U.S. gallons of oil into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines in a single spill event, or discharged oil in harmful quantities, as defined in 40 CFR Part 110, into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines in two spill events, reportable under section 311(b)(3) of the FWPCA, occurring within any twelve month period, the owner or operator of such facility shall submit to the Regional Administrator, within 90 days from the time such facility becomes subject to this section, the following:
(1) Name of the facility;
(2) Name(s) of the owner or operator of the facility;
(3) Location of the facility;
(4) Date and year of initial facility operation;
(5) Maximum storage or handling capacity of the facility and normal daily throughput;
(6) Description of the facility, including maps, flow diagrams, and topographical maps;
(7) A complete copy of the SPCC Plan with any amendments;
(8) The cause(s) of such spill, including a failure analysis of system or subsystem in which the failure occurred;
(9) The corrective actions and/or countermeasures taken, including an adequate description of equipment repairs and/or replacements;
(10) Additional preventive measures taken or contemplated to minimize the possibility of recurrence;
(11) Such other information as the Regional Administrator may reasonably require pertinent to the Plan or spill event.
(b) Section 112.4 shall not apply until the expiration of the time permitted for the preparation and implementation of an SPCC Plan pursuant to § 112.3
(a) ,
(b) ,
(c) and
(f) .
(c) A complete copy of all information provided to the Regional Administrator pursuant to paragraph
(a) of this section shall be sent at the same time to the State agency in charge of water pollution control activities in and for the State in which the facility is located. Upon receipt of such information such State agency may conduct a review and make recommendations to the Regional Administrator as to further procedures, methods, equipment and other requirements for equipment necessary to prevent and to contain discharges of oil from such facility.
(d) After review of the SPCC Plan for a facility subject to paragraph
(a) of this section, together with all other information submitted by the owner or operator of such facility, and by the State agency under paragraph
(c) of this section, the Regional Administrator may require the owner or operator of such facility to amend the SPCC Plan if he finds that the Plan does not meet the requirements of this part or that the amendment of the Plan is necessary.
sary to prevent and to contain discharges of oil from such facility.
(e) When the Regional Administrator proposes to require an amendment to the SPCC Plan, he shall notify the facility operator by certified mail addressed to, or by personal delivery to, the facility owner or operator, that he proposes to require an amendment to the Plan, and shall specify the terms of such amendment. If the facility owner or operator is a corporation, a copy of such notice shall also be mailed to the registered agent, if any, of such corporation in the State where such facility is located. Within 30 days from receipt of such notice, the facility owner or operator may submit written information, views, and arguments on the amendment. After considering all relevant material presented, the Regional Administrator shall notify the facility owner or operator of any amendment required or shall rescind the notice. The amendment required by the Regional Administrator shall become part of the Plan 30 days after such notice, unless the Regional Administrator, for good cause, shall specify another effective date. The owner or operator of the facility shall implement the amendment of the Plan as soon as possible, but not later than six months after the amendment becomes part of the Plan, unless the Regional Administrator specifies another date.
(f) An owner or operator may appeal a decision made by the Regional Administrator requiring an amendment to an SPCC Plan. The appeal shall be made to the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency and must be made in writing within 30 days of receipt of the notice from the Regional Administrator requiring the amendment. A complete copy of the appeal must be sent to the Regional Administrator at the time the appeal is made. The appeal shall contain a clear and concise statement of the issues and points of fact in the case. It may also contain additional information from the owner or operator, or from any other person. The Administrator or his designee may request additional information from the owner or operator, or from any other person. The Administrator or his designee shall render a decision within 60 days of receiving the appeal and shall notify the owner or operator of his decision. [41 FR 12637, March 26, 1976]
Control and Countermeasure Plans by owners or operators.
(a) Owners or operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) shall amend the SPCC Plan for such facility in accordance with $112.7 whenever there is a change in facility design, construction, operation or maintenance which materially affects the facility's potential for the discharge of oil into or upon the navigable waters of the United States or adjoining shorelines. Such amendments shall be fully implemented as soon as possible, but not later than six months after such change occurs.
(b) Notwithstanding compliance with paragraph
(a) of this section, owners and operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) shall complete a review and evaluation of the SPCC Plan at least once every three years from the date such facility becomes subject to this part. As a result of this review and evaluation, the owner or operator shall amend the SPCC Plan within six months of the review to include more effective prevention and control technology if: (1) Such technology will significantly reduce the likelihood of a spill event from the facility, and (2) If such technology has been field-proven at the time of the review.
(c) No amendment to an SPCC Plan shall be effective to satisfy the requirements of this section unless it has been certified by a Professional Engineer in accordance with $112.3(\mathrm{~d})$. § 112.6 Civil penalties for violation of Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations. Owners or operators of facilities subject to $112.3
(a) ,
(b) or
(c) who violate the requirements of this Part 112 by failing 's refusing to comply with any of the provisions of $112.3, $ 112.4$ or $112.5 shall be liable for a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each day such violation continues. Civil penalties shall be imposed in accordance with procedures set out in Part 114 of this subchapter D.
vention Control and Countermeasure Plan. The SPCC Plan shall be a carefully thought-out plan, prepared in accordance with good engineering practices, and which has the full approval of management at a level with authority to commit the necessary resources. If the plan calls for additional facilities or procedures, methods, or equipment not yet fully operational, these items should be discussed in separate paragraphs, and the details of installation and operational start-up should be explained separately. The complete SPCC Plan shall follow the sequence outlined below, and include a discussion of the facility's conformance with the appropriate guidelines listed:
(a) A facility which has experienced one or more spill events within twelve months prior to the effective date of this part should include a written description of each such spill, corrective action taken and plans for preventing recurrence.
(b) Where experience indicates a reasonable potential for equipment failure (such as tank overflow, rupture, or leakage), the plan should include a prediction of the direction, rate of flow, and total quantity of oil which could be discharged from the facility as a result of each major type of failure.
(c) Appropriate containment and/or diversionary structures or equipment to prevent discharged oil from reaching a navigable water course should be provided. One of the following preventive systems or its equivalent should be used as a minimum: (1) Onshore facilities. (1) Dikes, berms or retaining wells sufficiently impervious to contain spilled oil (ii) Curbing (iii) Culverting, gutters or other drainage systems (iv) Pairs, booms or other barriers
(v) Spill diversion ponds (vi) Retention ponds (vii) Sorbent materials (2) Offshore facilities.
(i) Curbing, drip pans (ii) Bumps and collection systems
(d) When it is determined that the installation of structures or equipment listed in $112.7(\mathrm{~d})$ to prevent discharged oil from reaching the navigable waters is not practicable from any onshore or offshore facility, the owner or operator should clearly demonstrate such impracticability and provide the following: (1) A strong oil spill contingency plan following the provision of 40 CFR Part 108. (2) A written commitment of manpower, equipment and materials required to expeditiously control and remove any harmful quantity of oil discharged.
(e) In addition to the minimal prevention standards listed under $112.7
(c) , sections of the Plan should include a complete discussion of conformance with the following applicable guidelines, other effective spill prevention and containment procedures (or, if more stringent, with State rules, regulations and guidelines): (1) Facility drainage (onshore): (excluding production facilities).
(i) Drainage from dined storage areas should be restrained by valves or other positive means to prevent a spill or other excessive leakage of oil into the drainage system or implant effluent treatment system, except where plan systems are designed to handle such leakage. Dined areas may be emptied by pumps or electors; however, these should be manually activated and the condition of the accumulation should be examined before starting to be sure no oil will be discharged into the water. (ii) Plopper-type drain valves should not be used to drain dined areas. Valves used for the drainage of dined areas should, as far as practical, be of manual, open-and-closed design. When plant drainage drains directly into water courses and not into wastewater treatment plants, retained storm water should be inspected as provided in paragraph
(e) (3) (iii) (B, C and D) before drainage. (iii) Plant drainage systems from undined areas should, if possible, flow into ponds, lagoons or catchment basins, designed to retain oil or return it to the facility. Catchment basins should not be located in areas subject to periodic flooding. (iv) If plant drainage is not engineered as above, the final discharge of all in-plant ditches should be equipped with a diversion system that could, in
the event of an uncontrolled spill, return the oil to the plant.
(v) Where drainage waters are treated in more than one treatment unit, natural hydraulic flow should be used. If pump transfer is needed, two "lift" pumps should be provided, and at least one of the pumps should be permanently installed when such treatment is continuous. In any event, whatever techniques are used facility drainage systems should be adequately engineered to prevent oil from reaching navigable waters in the event of equipment failure or human error at the facility. (2) Bulk storage tanks (onshore) ; (excluding production facilities). (1) No tank should be used for the storage of oil unless its material and construction are compatible with the material stored and conditions of storage such as pressure and temperature, etc. (ii) All bulk storage tank installations should be constructed so that a secondary means of containment is provided for the entire contents of the largest single tank plus sufficient freeboard to allow for precipitation. Diked areas should be sufficiently impervious to contain spilled oil. Dikes, containment curbs, and pits are commonly employed for this purpose, but they may not always be appropriate. An alternative system could consist of a complete drainage trench enclosure arranged so that a spill could terminate and be safely confined in an in-plant catchment basin or holding pond. (iii) Drainage of rainwater from the diked area into a storm drain or an effluent discharge that empties into an open water course, lake, or pond, and bypassing the in-plant treatment system may be acceptable if: (A) The bypass valve is normally sealed closed. (B) Inspection of the run-off rain water ensures compliance with applicable water quality standards and will not cause a harmful discharge as defined in 61 CFR 110. (C) The bypass valve is opened, and resealed following drainage under responsible supervision. (D) Adequate records are kept of such events. (iv) Buried metallic storage tanks represent a potential for undetected spills. A new buried installation should be protected from corrosion by coatings, cathodic protection or other effective methods compatible with local soil conditions. Such buried tanks should at least be subjected to regular pressure testing.
(v) Partially buried metallic tanks for the storage of oil should be avoided, unless the buried section of the shell is adequately coated, since partial burial in damp earth can cause rapid corrosion of metallic surfaces, especially at the earth/ air interface. (vi) Aboveground tanks should be subject to periodic integrity testing, taking into account tank design (floating roof, etc.) and using such techniques as hydrostatic testing, visual inspection or a system of non-destructive shell thickness testing. Comparison records should be kept where appropriate, and tank supports and foundations should be included in these inspections. In addition, the outside of the tank should frequently be observed by operating personnel for signs of deterioration, leaks which might cause a spill, or accumulation of oil inside diked areas. (vii) To control leakage through defective internal heating coils, the following factors should be considered and applied, as appropriate. (A) The steam return or exhaust lines from internal heating coils which discharge into an open water course should be monitored for contamination, or passed through a settling tank, skimmer, or other separation or retention system. (B) The feasibility of installing an external heating system should also be considered. (viii) New and old tank installations should, as far as practical, be fall-safe engineered or updated into a fall-safe engineered installation to avoid spills. Consideration should be given to providing one or more of the following devices: (A) High liquid level alarms with an audible or visual signal at a constantly manned operation or surveillance station; in smaller plants an audible air vent may suffice. (B) Considering size and complexity of the facility, high liquid level pump cutoff devices set to stop flow at a predetermined tank content level. (C) Direct audible or code signal communication between the tank gauger and the pumping station. (D) A fast response system for determining the liquid level of each bulk storage tank such as digital computers, telemules, or direct vision gauges on their equivalent. (B) Liquid level sensing devices should be regularly tested to insure proper operation. (ix) Plant effluents which are discharged into navigable waters should have disposal facilities observed frequently enough to detect possible system upsets that could cause an oil spill event.
(x) Visible oil leaks which result in a loss of oil from tank seams, gaskets, rivets and bolts sufficiently large to cause the accumulation of oil in diked areas should be promptly corrected. (xi) Mobile or portable oil storage tanks (onshore) should be positioned or located so as to prevent spilled oil from reaching navigable waters. A secondary means of containment, such as dikes or catchment basins, should be furnished for the largest single compartment or tank. These facilities should be located where they will not be subject to periodic flooding or washout. (3) Facility transfer operations, pumping, and in-plant process (onshore) ; (excluding production facilities). (1) Buried piping installations should have a protective wrapping and coating and should be cathodically protected if soil conditions warrant. If a section of buried line is exposed for any reason, it should be carefully examined for deterioration. If corrosion damage is found, additional examination and corrective action should be taken as indicated by the magnitude of the damage. An alternative would be the more frequent use of exposed pipe corridors or galleries. (ii) When a pipeline is not in service, or in standby service for an extended time the terminal connection at the transfer point should be capped or blank-funged, and marked as to origin. (iii) Pipe supports should be properly designed to minimize abrasion and corrosion and allow for expansion and contraction.
Environment Reporter (iv) All aboveground valves and pipelines should be subjected to regular examinations by operating personnel at which time the general condition of items, such as flange joints, expansion joints, valve glands and bodies, catch pans, pipeline supports, locking of valves, and metal surfaces should be assessed. In addition, periodic pressure testing may be warranted for piping in areas where facility drainage is such that a failure might lead to a spill event.
(v) Vehicular traffic granted entry into the facility should be warned verbally or by appropriate signs to be sure that the vehicle, because of its size, will not endanger above ground piping. (4) Facility tank car and tank truck loading/unloading rack (onshore). (1) Tank car and tank truck loading/unloading procedures should meet the minimum requirements and regulation established by the Department of Transportation. (iii) Where rack area drainage does not flow into a catchment basin or treatment facility designed to handle spills, a quick drainage system should be used for tank truck loading and unloading areas. The containment system should be designed to hold at least maximum capacity of any single compartment of a tank car or tank truck loaded or unloaded in the plant. (iii) An interlocked warning light or physical barrier system, or warning signs, should be provided in loading/unloading areas to prevent vehicular departure before complete disconnect of flexible or fixed transfer lines. (iv) Prior to filling and departure of any tank car or tank truck, the lewermost drain and all outlets of such vehicles should be closely examined for leakage, and if necessary, tightened, adjusted, or replaced to prevent liquid leakage while in transit. (5) Oil production facilities (onshore). (1) Definition. An onshore production facility may include all wells, fowlines, separation equipment, storage facilities, gathering lines, and auxiliary non-trans-portation-related equipment and facilities in a single geographical oil or gas field operated by a single operator. (iii) Oil production facility (onshore) drainage. (A) At tank batteries and central treating stations where an accidental discharge of oil would have a reasonable possibility of reaching navigable waters, the dikes or equivalent required under § 112.7(c) (1) should have drains closed and sealed at all times except when rainwater is being drained. Prior to drainage, the diked area should be inspected as provided in paragraph
(a) (2) (iii) (B), (1), and (D). Accumulated oil on the rainwater should be picked up and returned to storage or disposed of in accordance with approved methods. (B) Field drainage ditches, road ditches, and oil traps, sumps or skimmers. If such exist, should be inspected at regularly scheduled intervals for accumulation of oil that may have escaped from small leaks. Any such accumulations should be removed. (iii) Oil production facility (onshore) bulk storage tanks. (A) No tank should be used for the storage of oil unless its material and construction are compatible with the material stored and the conditions of storage. (See. 112.7(c)(5)(iii))
(B) All tank battery and central treating plant installations should be provided with a secondary means of containment for the entire contents of the largest single tank if feasible, or alternate systems such as those outlined in 113.7(c)(1). Drainage from undiked areas should be safely confined in a catchment basin or holding pond. (C) All tanks containing oil should be visually examined by a competent person for condition and need for maintenance on a scheduled periodic basis. Such examination should include the foundation and supports of tanks that are above the surface of the ground. (D) New and old tank battery installations should, as far as practical, be failsafe engineered or updated into a failsafe engineered installation to prevent spills. Consideration should be given to one or more of the following: (1) Adequate tank capacity to assure that a tank will not overfill should a pumper/gauder be delayed in making his regular rounds. (2) Overflow equalizing lines between tanks so that a full tank can overflow to an adjacent tank. (3) Adequate vacuum protection to prevent tank collapse during a pipeline run. (4) High level sensors to generate and transmit an alarm signal to the computer where facilities are a part of a computer production control system. (iv) Facility transfer operations, oil production facility (coahors). (A) All above ground valves and pipelines should be examined periodically on a scheduled basis for general condition of items such as flange joints, valve glands and bodies, drip pans, pipeline supports, pumping well polish rod stuffing boxes, blender and gauge valves. (B) Salt water (oil field brine) disposal facilities should be examined often, particularly following a sudden change in atmospheric temperature to detect possible system upsets that could cause an oil discharge. (C) Production facilities should have a program of flowline maintenance to prevent spills from this source. The program should include periodic examinations, corrosion protection, flowline replacement, and adequate records, as appropriate, for the individual facility. (6) Oil drilling and workover facilities (coahors) (1) Mobile drilling or workover equipment should be positioned or located so as to prevent spilled oil from reaching navigable waters. (11) Depending on the location, catchment basins or diversion structures may be necessary to intercept and contain spills of fuel, crude oil, or oily drilling fluids. (iii) Before drilling below any casing string or during workover operations, a blowout prevention (BOP) assembly and well control system should be installed that is capable of controlling any well head pressure that is expected to be encountered while that BOP assembly is on the well. Casing and BOP installations should be in accordance with State regulatory agency requirements. (7) Oil drilling, production, or workover facilities (ofahors). (1) Definition: "An oil drilling, production or workover facility (ofahors)" may include all drilling or workover equipment, wells, flowlines, gathering lines, platforms, and auxiliary nontransportation-related equipment and facilities in a single geographical oil or gas field operated by a single operator. (11) Oil drainage collection equipment should be used to prevent and control small oil spillage around pumps, glands, valves, flanges, expansion joints, boxes, drain lines, separators, treaters, tanks, and allied equipment. Drains on the facility should be controlled and directed toward a central collection sump or equivalent collection system sufficient to prevent discharges of oil into the navigable waters of the United States. Where drains and sumps are not practicable oil contained in collection equipment should be removed as often as necessary to prevent overflow. (iii) For facilities employing a sump system, sump and drains should be adequately sized and a spare pump or equivalent method should be available to remove liquid from the sump and assure that oil does not escape. A regular scheduled preventive maintenance inspection and testing program should be employed to assure reliable operation of the liquid removal system and pump start-up device. Redundant automatic sump pumps and control devices may be required on some installations. (iv) In areas where separators and treaters are equipped with dump valves whose predominant mode of failure is in the closed position and pollution risk is high, the facility should be specially equipped to prevent the escape of oil. This could be accomplished by extending the flare line to a diked area if the separator is near shore, equipping it with a high liquid level sensor that will automatically shut-in wells producing to the separator, parallel redundant dump valves, or other feasible alternatives to prevent oil discharges.
(v) Atmospheric storage or surge tanks should be equipped with high liquid level sensing devices or other acceptable alternatives to prevent oil discharges. (vi) Pressure tanks should be equipped with high and low pressure sensing devices to activate an alarm and/or control the flow or other acceptable alternatives to prevent oil discharges. (vii) Tanks should be equipped with suitable corrosion protection. (viii) A written procedure for inspecting and testing pollution prevention equipment and systems should be prepared and maintained at the facility. Such procedures should be included as part of the SPCC Plan. (ix) Testing and inspection of the pollution prevention equipment and systems at the facility should be conducted by the owner or operator on a scheduled periodic basis commensurate with the complexity, conditions and circumstances of the facility or other appropriate regulations.
(x) Surface and subsurface well shutin valves and devices in use at the facility should be sufficiently described to determine method of activation or control, e.g., pressure differential, change in fluid or flow conditions, combination of pressure and flow, manual or remote control mechanisms. Detailed records for each well, while not necessarily part of the plan should be kept by the owner or operator. (xi) Before drilling below any casing string, and during workover operations a blowout preventor (BOP) assembly and well control system should be installed that is capable of controlling any wellhead pressure that is expected to be encountered while that BOP assembly is on the well. Casing and BOP installations should be in accordance with State regulatory agency requirements. (xii) Extraordinary well control measures should be provided should emergency conditions, including fire, loss of control and other abnormal conditions, occur. The degree of control system redundancy should vary with hazard exposure and probable consequences of failure. It is recommended that surface shut-in systems have redundant or "fall close" valving. Subsurface safety valves may not be needed in producing wells that will not flow but should be installed as required by applicable State regulations. (xiii) In order that there will be no misunderstanding of joint and separate duties and obligations to perform work in a safe and pollution free manner, written instructions should be prepared by the owner or operator for contractors and subcontractors to follow whenever contract activities include servicing a well or systems appurtenant to a well or pressure vessel. Such instructions and procedures should be maintained at the offshore production facility. Under certain circumstances and conditions such contractor activities may require the presence at the facility of an authorized representative of the owner or operator who would intervene when necessary to prevent a spill event. (xiv) All manifolds (headers) should be equipped with check valves on individual flowlines. (xv) If the shut-in well pressure is greater than the working pressure of the flowline and manifold valves up to and including the header valves associated with that individual flowline, the flowline should be equipped with a high pressure sensing device and shutin valve at the wellhead unless provided with a pressure relief system to prevent over pressuring. (xvi) All pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be protected from corrosion. Methods used, such as protective coatings or cathodic protection, should be discussed. (xvii) Sub-marine pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be adequately protected against environmental stresses and other activities such as fishing operations. (xviii) Sub-marine pipelines appurtenant to the facility should be in good
operating condition at all times and inspected on a scheduled periodic basis for failures. Such inspections should be documented and maintained at the facility. (8) Inspections and records. Inspections required by this part should be in accordance with written procedures developed for the facility by the owner or operator. These written procedures and a record of the inspections, signed by the appropriate supervisor or inspector, should be made part of the SPCC Plan and maintained for a period of three years. (9) Security (excluding oil production facilities). (1) All plants handling, processing, and storing oil should be fully fenced, and entrance gates should be locked and/or guarded when the plant is not in production or is unattended. (ii) The master flow and drain valves and any other valves that will permit direct outward flow of the tank's content to the surface should be securely locked in the closed position when in non-operating or non-standby status. (iii) The starter control on all oil pumps should be locked in the "off" position or located at a site accessible only to authorized personnel when the pumps are in a non-operating or nonstandby status. (iv) The loading/unloading connections of oil pipelines should be securely capped or blank-flanged when not in service or standby service for an extended time. This security practice should also apply to pipelines that are emptied of liquid content either by draining or by inert gas pressure.
(v) Facility lighting should be commensurate with the type and location of the facility. Consideration should be given to: (A) Discovery of spills occurring during hours of darkness, both by operating personnel, if present, and by non-operating personnel (the general public, local police, etc.) and (B) prevention of spills occurring through acts of vandalism. (10) Personnel, training and spill prevention procedures. (1) Owners or operators are responsible for properly instructing their personnel in the operation and maintenance of equipment to prevent the discharges of oil and applicable pollution control laws, rules and regulations. (2) Each applicable facility should have a designated person who is accountable for oil spill prevention and who reports to line management. (11) Owners or operators should schedule and conduct spill prevention briefings for their operating personnel at intervals frequent enough to assure adequate understanding of the SPCC Plan for that facility. Such briefings should highlight and describe known spill events or failures, malfunctioning components, and recently developed precautionary measures.
Memorandum of Understanding between the Secretary of Transportation and the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency.
The Environmental Protection Agency and the Department of Transportation agree that for the purposes of Executive Order 11548, the term: (1) "Non-transportation-related onshore and offshore facilities" means: (A) Fixed onshore and offshore oil well drilling facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto used in drilling operations for exploratory or development wells, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (B) Mobile onshore and offshore oil well drilling platforms, barges, trucks, or other mobile facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto when such mobile facilities are fixed in position for the purpose of drilling operations for exploratory or development wells, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (C) Fixed onshore and offshore oil production structures, platforms, derricks, and rigs including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto, as well as completed wells and the wellhead separators, oil separators, and storage facilities used in the production of oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (D) Mobile onshore and offshore oil production facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as completed wells and wellhead equipment, piping from wellheads to oil separators, oil separators, and storage facilities used in the production of oil when such mobile facilities are fixed in position for the purpose of oil production operations, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (E) Oil refining facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as in-plant processing units, storage units, piping, drainage systems and waste treatment units used in the refining of oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (F) Oil storage facilities including all equipment and appurtenances related thereto as well as fixed bulk plant storage, terminal oil storage facilities, consumer storage, pumps and drainage systems used in the storage of oil, but excluding inline or breakout storage tanks needed for the continuous operation of a pipeline system and any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (G) Industrial, commercial, agricultural or public facilities which use and store oil, but excluding any terminal facility, unit or process integrally associated with the handling or transferring of oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (H) Waste treatment facilities including in-plant pipelines, offiand discharge lines, and storage tanks, but excluding waste treatment facilities located on vessels and terminal storage tanks and appurtenances for the reception of oily ballast water or tank washings from vessels and associated systems used for oil-loading vessels. (I) Loading racks, transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment which are appurtenant to a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are used to transfer oil in bulk to or from highway vehicles or railroad cars. (J) Highway vehicles and railroad cars which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce. (K) Pipeline systems which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce, but excluding pipeline systems used to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (3) "transportation-related onshore and offshore facilities" means: (A) Onshore and offshore terminal facilities including transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment and appurtenances used for the purpose of handling or transferring oil in bulk to or from a vessel as well as storage tanks and appurtenances for the reception of oily ballast water or tank washings from vessels, but excluding terminal waste treatment facilities and terminal oil storage facilities. (B) Transfer boxes, loading arms and other equipment appurtenant to a non-transportation-related facility which is used to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (C) Interstate and intrastate onshore and offshore pipeline systems including pumps and appurtenances related thereto as well as in-line or breakout storage tanks needed for the continuous operation of a pipeline system, and pipelines from onshore and offshore oil production facilities, but excluding onshore and offshore piping from wellheads to oil separators and pipelines which are used for the transport of oil exclusively within the confines of a nontransportationrelated facility or terminal facility and which are not intended to transport oil in interstate or intrastate commerce or to transfer oil in bulk to or from a vessel. (D) Highway vehicles and railroad cars which are used for the transport of oil in interstate or intrastate commerce and the equipment and appurtenances related thereto, and equipment used for the fueling of locomotive units, as well as the rights-of-way on which they operate. Excluded are highway vehicles and railroad cars and motive power used exclusively within the confines of a nontransportation-related facility or terminal facility and which are not intended for use in interstate or intrastate commerce.
.
Appendix I Representative Sampling Methods
ANEJO B-2 Appendix I Representative Sampling Methods
The methods and equipment used for sampling waste materials will vary with the form and consistency of the waste materials to be sampled. Samples collected using the sampling protocols listed below, for sampling waste with properties similar to the indicated materials, will be considered by the Agency to be representative of the waste.
Extremely viscous liquid-ASTM Standard D140-70 Crushed or powdered material-ASTM Standard D346-75 Soil or rock-like material-ASTM Standard D420-69 Soil-like material-ASTM Standard D1452-65
Fly Ash-like material-ASTM Standard D2234-76 (ASTM Standards are available from ASTM, 1916 Race St., Philadelphia, PA 19103)
Containerized liquid wastes-"COLIWASA" described in "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Solid Waste, Washington, D.C. 20460. (Copies may be obtained from Solid Waste Information, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 26 W. St. Clair St., Cincinnati, Ohio 45268)
Liquid waste in pits, ponds, lagoons, and similar reservoirs-"Pond Sampler" described in "Test Methods for the Evaluation of Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods."
This manual also contains additional information on application of these protocols.
ANEJO B-14 Appendix VII Basis for Listing Hazardous Waste
[Appendix VII amended by 45 FR 47833. July 16, 1980; revised by 45 FR 74890. November 12, 1980; 46 FR 4617. January 16, 1981; 49 FR 5312. February 10, 1984; 50 FR 1999. January 14, 1985; 50 FR 42942. October 23, 1985; 51 FR 5330. February 13, 1986; 51 FR 6541. February 25, 1986]
EPA hazardous waste No. | Hazardous constituents for which listed |
---|---|
F001 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons. |
F002 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, trichlorofluoromethane. |
F003 | N.A. |
F004 | Cresols and cresols: acid, nitrobenzene. |
F005 | Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, 2-ethyl-9-ethynol, benzene, 2-nitropropene. |
F006 | Cadmium, hexavalent chromium, nickel, cyanide (complexed). |
F007 | Cyanide (salts). |
F008 | Cyanide (salts). |
F009 | Cyanide (salts). |
F010 | Cyanide (salts). |
F011 | Cyanide (salts). |
F012 | Cyanide (complexed). |
F013 | Hexavalent chromium, cyanide (complexed). |
F014 | Tetra- and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins: tetra and pentachlorobenzofurans: tri- and tetrachloro-9-phenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
F015 | Pentachlorophenol, phenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2-chlorophenol, 2,4-dimethylphenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2,4-dinitrophenol, 2, |
K047 | N.A. |
---|---|
K048 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K049 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K050 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K051 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K052 | Lead. |
K060 | Cyanide, naphthalene, phenolic compounds, arsenic. |
K061 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K062 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
K063 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K071 | Mercury. |
K073 | Chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, trichloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, dichloroethylene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K083 | Aniline, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K084 | Arsenic. |
K085 | Benzene, dichlorobenzene, trichlorobenzene, tetrachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, benzyl chloride. |
K086 | Lead, hexavalent chromium. |
K087 | Phenol, naphthalene. |
K093 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
K094 | Phthalic anhydride. |
K095 | 1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
K096 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane. |
K097 | Chlordane, heptachlor. |
K098 | Tetrachloroethane. |
K099 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K100 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
K101 | Arsenic. |
K102 | Arsenic. |
K103 | Aniline, nitrolutriene, phenylenediamine. |
K104 | Aniline, benzene, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
K105 | Benzene, monochlorobenzene, dichlorobenzene, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
K106 | Mercury. |
K111 | 2,4-Dimethylamine. |
K112 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K113 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
K114 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, p-toluidine, p-toluidine. |
K115 | 2,4-Toluenediamine. |
K116 | Carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, chloroform, phosgene. |
K117 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K118 | Ethylene dibromide. |
K136 | Ethylene dibromide. |
N.A. - Waste is hazardous because it fails the test for the characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
ANEJO B-15 Appendix A (Método 3) Gas Analysis for Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, Excess Air and Dry Molecular Weight
.
121:1574
and carbon monoxide (CO) concentrations are measured at the outlet. Then the ratio of total carbon at the incinerator inlet and outlet is multiplied by the inlet volume to determine the exhaust volume and volume flow rate.
2.1 Volume Meter. Equipment described in Method 2A.
2.2 Organic Analyzers (2). Equipment described in Method 25A or 25B.
[2.2 head corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
2.3 CO Analyzer. Equipment described in Method 10.
2.4 CO2 Analyzer. A nondispersive infrared (NDIR) CO2 analyzer and supporting equipment with comparable specifications as CO2 analyzer described in Method 10.
3.1 Inlet Installation. Install a volume meter in the vapor line to incinerator inlet according to the procedure in Method 2A. At the volume meter inlet, install a sample probe as described in Method 25A. Connect to the probe a leak-tight, heated (if necessary to prevent condensation) sample line (stainless steel or equivalent) and an organic analyzer system as described in Method 25A or 25B.
[3.1 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
3.2 Exhaust Installation. Three sample analyzers are required for the incinerator exhaust: CO2, CO, and organic analyzers. A sample manifold with a single sample probe may be used. Install a sample probe as described in Method 25A. Connect a leak-tight heated sample line to the sample probe. Heat the sample line sufficiently to prevent any condensation.
3.3 Recording Requirements. The output of each analyzer must be permanently recorded on an analog strip chart, digital recorder, or other recording device. The chart speed or number of readings per time unit must be similar for all analyzers so that data can be correlated. The minimum data recording requirement for each analyzer is one measurement value per minute.
3.4 Preparation. Prepare and calibrate all equipment and analyzers according to the procedures in the respective methods. For the CO2 analyzer, follow the procedures described in Method 10 for CO analysis substituting CO2 calibration gas where the method calls for CO calibration gas. The span value for the CO2 analyzer shall be 15 percent by volume. All calibration gases must be introduced at the connection between the probe and the sample line. If a manifold system is used for the exhaust analyzers, all the analyzers and sample pumps must be operating when the calibrations are done. Note: For the purposes of this test, methane should not be used as an organic calibration gas.
3.5 Sampling. At the beginning of the test period, record the initial parameters for the inlet volume meter according to the procedures in Method 2A and mark all of the recorder strip charts to indicate the start of the test. Continue recording inlet organic and exhaust CO2, CO, and organic concentrations throughout the test. During periods of process interruption and halting of gas flow, stop the timer and mark the recorder strip charts so that data from this interruption are not included in the calculations. At the end of the test period, record the final parameters for the inlet volume meter and mark the end on all of the recorder strip charts.
3.6 Post Test Calibrations. At the conclusion of the sampling period, introduce the calibration gases as specified in the respective reference methods. If an analyzer output does not meet the specifications of the method, invalidate the test data for the period. Alternatively, calculate the volume results using initial calibration data and using final calibration data and report both resulting volumes. Then, for emissions calculations, use the volume measurement resulting in the greatest emission rate or concentration.
Carry out the calculations, retaining at least one extra decimal figure beyond that of the acquired data. Round off figures after the final calculation.
4.1 Nomenclature
[4.1 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ ext{CO}_2 = ext{Mean carbon monoxide concentration in system exhaust, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{CO}_2 = ext{Mean carbon dioxide concentration in system exhaust, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{HC}_2 = ext{Mean organic concentration in system exhaust as defined by the calibration gas, ppmv.} $$
$$ ext{HC}_2 = ext{Mean organic concentration in system inlet as defined by the calibration gas, ppmv.} $$
[Corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ ext{K} = ext{Calibration gas factor} $$
$$ = 2 ext{ for ethane calibration gas.} $$
[4.1 "K" definition corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
$$ = 3 ext{ for propane calibration gas.} $$
$$ = 4 ext{ for butane calibration gas.} $$
$$ ext{V}_m = ext{Exhaust gas volume, M}^3. $$
$$ ext{V}_m = ext{Inlet gas volume, M}^3. $$
$$ ext{Q}_m = ext{Exhaust gas volume flow rate, m}^3/ ext{min.} $$
$$ ext{Q}_m = ext{Inlet gas volume flow rate, m}^3/ ext{min.} $$
$$ ext{v} = ext{Sample run time, min.} $$
$$ ext{G} = ext{Standard Conditions: 20°C, 760 mm Hg.} $$
$300 = ext{Estimated concentration of ambient CO}_2, ext{ppmv. [CO}_2] concentration in the ambient air may be measured during the test period using an NDIR.} $$
[Corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
4.2 Concentrations. Determine mean concentrations of inlet organics, outlet CO2, outlet CO, and outlet organics according to the procedures in the respective methods and the analyzers' calibration curves, and for the time intervals specified in the applicable regulations. Concentrations should be determined on a parts per million by volume (ppmv) basis.
[4.2 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
4.3 Exhaust Gas Volume. Calculate the exhaust gas volume as follows:
$$ ext{V}_m = \frac{V_s}{K[H_2]_0 + CO_2 + CO_2 - 300} $$
[4.3 corrected by 48 FR 56580, December 22, 1983]
Eq. 2B-1
4.4 Exhaust Gas Volume Flow Rate. Calculate the exhaust gas volume flow rate as follows:
$$ ext{Q}_m = \frac{V_s}{G} $$
Eq. 2B-2
5.1 Measurement of Volatile Organic Compounds. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park, N.C. 27711. Publication No. EPA-450/2-78-041. October 1979, p. 55.
Method 3—Gas Analysis for Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, Excess Air, and Dry Molecular Weight
1.1 Principle. A gas sample is extracted from a stack, by use of the following methods: (1) single-point, grid sampling; (2) single-point, integrated sampling, or (3) multi-point, integrated sampling. The gas sample is analyzed for percent carbon dioxide (CO2), percent oxygen (O2), and, if necessary, percent carbon monoxide (CO). If a dry molecular weight determination is to be made, either as Ucal or a Pyriol, a analyzer may be used for the analysis; for excess air or
Figure 3-1. Grab sampling train.
Figure 3-2. Integrated gas-sampling train. [43 FR 1495, January 10, 1978]
121:1576
2.2.2 Condenser. An air-cooled or water-cooled condenser, or other condenser that will not remove O2, CO2, CO, and N2, may be used to remove excess moisture which would interfere with the operation of the pump and flow meter.
2.2.3 Valve. A needle valve is used to adjust sample gas flow rate.
2.2.4 Pump. A leak-free, diaphragm-type pump, or equivalent, is used to transport sample gas to the flexible bag. Install a small surge tank between the pump and rate meter to eliminate the pulsation effect of the diaphragm pump on the rotameter.
2.2.5 Rate Meter. The rotameter, or equivalent rate meter, used should be capable of measuring flow rate to within ±2 percent of the selected flow rate. A flow rate range of 500 to 1000 cm³/min is suggested.
2.2.6 Flexible Bag. Any leak-free plastic (e.g., Tedlar, Mylar, Teflon) or plastic-coated aluminum (e.g., aluminized Mylar) bag, or equivalent, having a capacity consistent with the selected flow rate and time length of the test run, may be used. A capacity in the range of 55 to 90 liters is suggested.
To leak-check the bag, connect it to a water manometer and pressurize the bag to 5 to 10 cm H2O (2 to 4 in. H2O). Allow to stand for 10 minutes. Any displacement in the water manometer indicates a leak. An alternative leak-check method is to pressurize the bag to 5 to 10 cm H2O (2 to 4 in. H2O) and allow to stand overnight. A deflated bag indicates a leak.
2.2.7 Pressure Gauge. A water-filled U-tube manometer, or equivalent, of about 38 cm (12 in.) is used for the flexible bag leak-check.
2.2.8 Vacuum Gauge. A mercury manometer, or equivalent, of at least 760 mm Hg (36 in. Hg) is used for the sampling train leak-check.
2.3 Analysis. For Orsat and Pyrite analyzer maintenance and operation procedures, follow the instructions recommended by the manufacturer, unless otherwise specified herein.
2.3.1 Dry Molecular Weight Determination. An Orsat analyzer or Pyrite type combustion gas analyzer may be used.
2.3.2 Emission Rate Correction Factor or Excess Air Determination. An Orsat analyzer must be used. For low CO2 (less than 4.0 percent) or high O2 (greater than 15.0 percent) concentrations, the measuring burette of the Orsat must have at least 0.1 percent subdivisions.
Any of the three sampling and analytical procedures described below may be used for determining the dry molecular weight.
3.1 Single-Point, Grab Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.1.1 The sampling point in the duct shall either be at the centroid of the cross section or at a point no closer to the walls than 1.00 m (3.3 ft), unless otherwise specified by the Administrator.
3.1.2 Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-1, making sure all connections ahead of the analyzer are tight and leak-free. If an Orsat analyzer is used, it is recommended that the analyzer be leaked, checked by following the procedure in Section 5; however, the leak-check is optional.
3.1.3 Place the probe in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Draw a sample into the analyzer and immediately analyze it for percent CO2 and percent O2. Determine the percentage of the gas that is N2 and CO by subtracting the sum of the percent CO2 and percent O2 from 100 percent. Calculate the dry molecular weight as indicated in Section 6.3.
3.1.4 Repeat the sampling, analysis, and calculation procedures, until the dry molecular weights of any three grab samples differ from their mean by no more than 0.3 g/g-mole (0.3 lb/lb-mole). Average these three molecular weights, and report the results to the nearest 0.1 g/g-mole (lb/lb-mole).
3.2 Single-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.2.1 The sampling point in the duct shall be located as specified in Section 3.1.1.
3.2.2 Leak-check (optional) the flexible bag as in Section 2.2.6. Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-2. Just prior to sampling, leak-check (optional) the train by placing a vacuum gauge at the condenser inlet, pulling a vacuum of at least 250 mm Hg (10 in. Hg), plugging the outlet at the quick disconnect, and then turning off the pump. The vacuum should remain stable for at least 0.5 minute. Evacuate the flexible bag. Connect the probe and place it in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Next, connect the bag and make sure that all connections are tight and leak-free.
3.2.3 Sample at a constant rate. The sampling run should be simultaneous with, and for the same total length of time as, the pollutant emission rate determination. Collection of at least 30 liters (1.00 ft³) of sample gas is recommended; however, smaller volumes may be collected, if desired.
3.2.4 Obtain one integrated flue gas sample during each pollutant emission rate determination. Within 8 hours after the sample is taken, analyze it for percent CO2 and percent O2 using either an Orsat analyzer or a Pyrite-type combustion gas analyzer. If an Orsat analyzer is used, it is recommended that the Orsat leak-check described in Section 5 be performed before this determination; however, the check is optional. Determine the percentage of the gas that is N2 and CO by subtracting the sum of the percent CO2 and percent O2 from 100 percent. Calculate the dry molecular weight as indicated in Section 6.3.
3.2.5 Repeat the analysis and calculation procedures until the individual dry molecular weights for any three analyses differ from their mean by no more than 0.3 g/g-mole (0.3 lb/lb-mole). Average these three molecular weights, and report the results to the nearest 0.1 g/g-mole (0.1 lb/lb-mole).
3.3 Multi-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
3.3.1 Unless otherwise specified by the Administrator, a minimum of eight traverse points shall be used for circular stacks having diameters less than 0.61 m (24 in.), a minimum of nine shall be used for rectangular stacks having equivalent diameters less than 0.61 m (24 in.), and a minimum of twelve traverse points shall be used for all other cases. The traverse points shall be located according to Method 1. The use of fewer points is subject to approval of the Administrator.
3.3.2 Follow the procedures outlined in sections 3.2.2 through 3.2.5, except for the following: traverse all sampling points and sample at each point for an equal length of time. Record sampling data as shown in Figure 3-2.
Nortz. A Pyrite-type combustion gas analyzer is not acceptable for excess air or emission rate correction factor determination, unless approved by the Administrator. If both percent CO2 and percent O2 are measured, the analytical results of any of the three procedures given below may also be used for calculating the dry molecular weight.
Each of the three procedures below shall be used only when specified in an applicable subpart of the standards. The use of these procedures for other purposes must have specific prior approval of the Administrator.
[Appendix A, Method 3]
Environment Reporter
30
4.1 Single-Point, Grab Sampling and Analytical Procedure 4.1.1 The sampling point in the duct shall either be at the centroid of the crosssection or at a point no closer to the walls than $1.00 \mathrm{~m}(3.3 \mathrm{ft}$ ), unless otherwise specified by the Administrator. 4.1.2 Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-1, making sure all connections ahead of the analyzer are tight and leakfree. Leak-check the Orsat analyzer according to the procedure described in Section 5. This leak-check is mandatory.
Figure 3-3. Sampling rate data. 4.1.3 Place the probe in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Draw a sample into the analyzer. For emission rate correction factor determination, immediately analyze the sample, as outlined in Sections 4.1.4 and 4.1.5, for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$. If excess air is desired, proceed as follows: (1) immediately analyze the sample, as in Sections 4.1.4 and 4.1.5, for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, and $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ (2) determine the percentage of the gas that is $\mathrm{N}{2}$ by subtracting the sum of the percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$, percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$, and percent CO from 100 percent; and (3) calculate percent excess air as outlined in Section 6.2. 4.1.4 To insure complete absorption of the $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, or if applicable, $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ make repeated passes through each absorbing solution until two consecutive readings are the same. Several passes (three or four) should be made between readings. (If constant readings cannot be obtained after three consecutive readings, replace the absorbing solution.) 4.1.5 After the analysis is completed, leak-check (mandatory) the Orsat analyzer once again, as described in Section 5. For the results of the analysis to be valid, the Orsat analyzer must pass this leak test before and after the analysis. Note: Since this single-point, grab sampling and analytical procedure in normally conducted in conjunction with a singlepoint, grab sampling and analytical procedure for a pollutant, only one analysis is ordinarily conducted. Therefore, great care must be taken to obtain a valid sample and analysis. Although in most cases only $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or $\mathrm{O}{3}$ is required, it is recommended that both $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ and $\mathrm{O}{3}$ be measured, and that Section 4.4 be used to validate the analytical data. [4.1.5 Note amended by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983] 4.2 Single-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure. 4.2.1 The sampling point in the duct shall be located as specified in Section 4.1.1. 4.2.2 Leak-check (mandatory) the flexible bag as in Section 2.2.6. Set up the equipment as shown in Figure 3-2. Just prior to sampling, leak-check (mandatory) the train by placing a vacuum gauge at the condenser inlet, pulling a vacuum of a least 250 mm Hg ( 10 in. Hg), plugging the outlet at the quick disconnect, and then turning off the pump. The vacuum shall remain stable for at least 0.5 minute. Evacuate the flexible bag. Connect the probe and place it in the stack, with the tip of the probe positioned at the sampling point; purge the sampling line. Next, connect the bag and make sure that all connections are tight and leak free. 4.2.3 Sample at a constant rate, or as specified by the Administrator. The sampling run must be simultaneous with, and for the same total lengh of time as, the pollutant emission rate determination. Collect at least 30 liters ( $1.00 \mathrm{ft}^{3}$ ) of sample gas. Smaller volumes may be collected, subject to approval of the Administrator. 4.2.4 Obtain one integrated flue gas sample during each pollutant emission rate determination. For emission rate correction factor determination, analyze the sample within 4 hours after it is taken for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ or percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$ (as outlined in Sections 4.2.5 through 4.2.7). The Orsat analyzer must be leak-check (see Section 5) before the analysis. If excess air is desired, proceed as follows: (1) within 4 hours after the sample is taken, analyze it (as in Sections 4.2.5 through 4.2.7) for percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, and $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ (2) determine the percentage of the gas that is $\mathrm{N}{2}$ by subtracting the sum of the percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$, percent $\mathrm{O}{3}$, and percent CO from 100 percent; (3) calculate percent excess air. as outlined in Section 6.2. 4.2.5 To insure complete absorption of the $\mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{O}{3}$, or if applicable, $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ make repeated passes through each absorbing solution until two consecutive readings are the same. Several passes (three or four) should be make between readings. (If constant readings cannot be obtained after three consecutive readings, replace the absorbing solution.) 4.2.6 Repeat the analysis until the following criteria are met: 4.2.6.1 For percent $\mathrm{CO}_{2}$, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more that
(a) 0.3 percent by volume when $\mathrm{CO}_{2}$ is greater than 4.0 percent or
(b) 0.2 percent by volume when $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ is less than or equal to 4.0 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent $\mathrm{CO}{2}$ and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
121:1576.2
4.2.6.2 For percent O₃, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more than
(a) 0.3 percent by volume when O₃ is less than 15.0 percent or
(b) 0.2 percent by volume when O₃ is greater than or equal to 15.0 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent O₃ and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
4.2.6.3 For percent CO, repeat the analytical procedure until the results of any three analyses differ by no more than 0.3 percent. Average the three acceptable values of percent CO and report the results to the nearest 0.1 percent.
4.2.7 After the analysis is completed, leak-check (mandatory) the Orsat analyzer once again, as described in Section 5. For the results of the analysis to be valid, the Orsat analyzer must pass this leak test before an after the analysis.
Note. Although in most instances only CO₂ or O₃ is required, it is recommended that both CO₂ and O₃ be measured, and that Section 4.4 to be used to validate the analytical data.
[4.2.7 Note amended by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983]
4.3 Multi-Point, Integrated Sampling and Analytical Procedure.
4.3.1 Both the minimum number of sampling points and the sampling point location shall be as specified in Section 3.3.1 of this method. The use of fewer points than specified is subject to the approval of the Administrator.
4.3.2 Follow the procedures outlined in Sections 4.2.2 through 4.2.7, except for the following. Traverse all sampling points and sample at each point for an equal length of time. Record sampling data as shown in Figure 3-3.
[Section 4.4 added by 48 FR 49459, October 25, 1983]
4.4 Quality Control Procedures.
4.4.1 Data Validation When Both CO₂ and O₃ Are Measured. Although in most instances, only CO₂ or O₃ measurement is required, it is recommended that both CO₂ and O₃ be measured to provide a check on the quality of the data. The following quality control procedure is suggested.
Note—Since the method for validating the CO₂ and O₃ analyses is based on combustion of organic and fossil fuels and dilution of the gas stream with air, this method does not apply to sources that (1) remove CO₂ or O₃ through processes other than combustion, (2) add O₃ (e.g., oxygen enrichment) and N₂ in proportions different from that of air, (3) add CO₂ (e.g., cement or lime kilns), or (4) have no fuel factor, F₀, values obtainable (e.g., extremely variable waste mixtures). This method validates the measured proportions of CO₂ and O₃ for the fuel type, but the method does not detect sample dilution resulting from leaks during or after sample collection. The method is applicable for samples collected downstream of most lime or limestone flue-gas desulfurization units as the CO₂ added or removed from the gas stream is not significant in relation to the total CO₂ concentration. The CO₂ concentrations from other types of scrubbers using only water or basic slurry can be significantly affected and would render the F₀ check minimally useful.
4.4.1.1 Calculate a fuel factor, F₀, using the following equation:
$$ F_0 = \frac{20.0 - %O_2}{%CO_2} $$
Where:
If CO is present in quantities measurable by this method, adjust the O₂ and CO₂ values before performing the calculation for F₀ as follows:
$$ %CO_2( ext{adj}) = %CO_2 + %CO $$
$$ %O_2( ext{adj}) = %O_2 - 0.5 %CO $$
Where: %CO = Percent CO by volume (dry basis).
4.4.1.2 Compare the calculated F₀ factor with the expected F₀ values. The following table may be used in establishing acceptable ranges for the expected F₀ if the fuel being burned is known. When fuels are burned in combination, calculate the combined fuel F₀ and F₀ factors (as defined in Method 19) according to the procedure in Method 19 Section 5.2.3. Then calculate the F₀ factor as follows:
$$ F_0 = \frac{0.209 F_0}{F_0} $$
Figure 3-4
Fuel type | F₀ range |
---|---|
Coal: | 1.018-1.130 |
Anthracite and lignite | 1.083-1.250 |
Bituminous | 1.060-1.413 |
Oil: | 1.210-1.370 |
Ductile | 1.320-1.636 |
Residual | 1.434-1.588 |
Gas: | 1.405-1.553 |
Natural | 1.000-1.120 |
Propane | 1.003-1.130 |
Butane |
Moving an Orsat analyzer frequently causes it to leak. Therefore, an Orsat analyzer should be thoroughly leak-checked on site before the flue gas sample is introduced into it. The procedure for leak-checking an Orsat analyzer is:
5.1.1 Bring the liquid level in each pipette up to the reference mark on the capillary tubing and then close the pipette stopcock.
5.1.2 Raise the leveling bulb sufficiently to bring the confining liquid meniscus onto the graduated portion of the burette and then close the manifold stopcock.
5.1.3 Record the meniscus position.
5.1.4 Observe the meniscus in the burette and the liquid level in the pipette for movement over the next 4 minutes.
5.1.5 For the Orsat analyzer to pass the leak-check, two conditions must be met.
5.1.5.1 The liquid level in each pipette must not fall below the bottom of the capillary tubing during this 4-minute interval.
5.1.5.2 The meniscus in the burette must not change by more than 0.2 ml during this 4-minute interval.
5.1.6 If the analyzer fails the leak-check procedure, all rubber connections and stopcocks should be checked until the cause of the leak is identified. Leaking stopcocks must be disassembled, cleaned, and re-pressed. Leaking rubber connections must be replaced. After the analyzer is reassembled, the leak-check procedure must be repeated.
[Appendix A, Method 3]
Calculate the percent excess air (if applicable), by substituting the appropriate values of percent O₃, CO, and N₃ (obtained from Section 4.1.5 or 4.2.4) into Equation 3-1.
$$ ext{GEA} = \left[ \frac{%O_3 - 0.5%CO}{0.264%N_3(%O_3 - 0.5%CO)} ight] imes 100 $$
Equation 3-1
NOTE: The equation above assumes that ambient air is used as the source of O₃ and that the fuel does not contain appreciable amounts of N₃ (as do coke oven or blast furnace gases). For those cases when appreciable amounts of N₃ are present (coal, oil, and natural gas do not contain appreciable amounts of N₃) or when oxygen enrichment is used, alternate methods, subject to approval of the Administrator, are required.
Use Equation 3-2 to calculate the dry molecular weight of the stack gas:
$$ M_0 = 0.440(%CO_3) + 0.320(%O_3) + 0.280(%N_3 + %CO) $$
Equation 3-2
NOTE: The above equation does not consider argon in air (about 0.9 percent, molecular weight of 37.7). A negative error of about 0.4 percent is introduced. The tester may opt to include argon in the analysis using procedures subject to approval of the Administrator.
Method 3A—Determination of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Concentrations in Emissions From Stationary Sources (Instrumental Analyzer Procedure)
[Method 3A added by 51 FR 21165, June 11, 1986]
This method is applicable to the determination of oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) concentrations in emissions from stationary sources only when specified within the regulations.
A sample is continuously extracted from the effluent stream: a portion of the sample stream (economy) is collected from the instrument (economy) for determination of O₂ and CO₂ concentration(s). Performance specifications and test procedures are provided to ensure reliable data.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 2.1 and 2.2, except that the span of the monitoring system shall be selected such that the average O₂ or CO₂ concentration is not less than 20 percent of the span.
The total equipment required for the determination of the O₂ or CO₂ concentration. The measurement system consists of the same major subsystems as defined in Method 6C, Sections 3.1.1, 3.1.2, and 3.1.3.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 3.2 through 3.8, and 3.10.
The output response of the measurement system to a component in the sample gas, other than the gas component being measured.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 4.1 through 4.4.
Any measurement system for O₂ or CO₂ that meets the specifications of this method. A schematic of an acceptable measurement system is shown in Figure 6C-1 of Method 6C. The essential components of the measurement system are described below:
A leak-free probe, of sufficient length to traverse the sample points.
Tubing, to transport the sample gas from the probe to the moisture removal system. A heated sample line is not required for systems that measure the O₂ or CO₂ concentration on a dry basis, or transport dry gases.
Same as Method 6C, Sections 5.1.3 through 5.1.9, and 5.1.11, except that the requirements to use stainless steel, Teflon, and nonreactive glass filters do not apply.
An analyzer to determine continuously the O₂ or CO₂ concentration in the sample gas stream. The analyzer shall meet the applicable performance specifications of Section 4. A means of controlling the analyzer flow rate and a device for determining proper sample flow rate (e.g., precision rotameter, pressure gauge downstream of all flow controls, etc.) shall be provided at the analyzer. The requirements for measuring and controlling the analyzer flow rate are not applicable if data are presented that demonstrate the analyzer is insensitive to flow variations over the range encountered during the test.
The calibration gases for CO₂ analyzers shall be CO₂ in N₂ or CO₂ in air. Alternatively, CO₂/SO₂, O₂/SO₃, or O₂/CO₂/SO₂ gas mixtures in N₂ may be used. Three calibration gases, as specified Section 5.3.1 through 5.3.3 of Method 6C, shall be used. For O₂ monitors that cannot analyze zero gas, a calibration gas concentration equivalent to less than 10 percent of the span may be used in place of zero gas.
Perform the following procedures before measurement of emissions (Section 7).
Follow Section 6.1 of Method 6C, except if calibration gas analysis is required, use Method 3 and change the acceptable criteria for agreement among Method 3 results to 5 percent (or 0.2 percent by volume, whichever is greater).
Conduct an interference response test of the analyzer prior to its initial use in the field. Thereafter, recheck the measurement system if changes are made in the instrumentation that could alter the interference response (e.g., changes in the type of gas detector). Conduct the interference response in accordance with Section 5.4 of Method 20.
Follow Sections 6.2 through 6.4 of Method 6C.
Select a measurement site and sampling points using the same criteria that are applicable to tests performed using Method 3.
Position the sampling probe at the first measurement point, and begin sampling at the same rate as used during the sampling system bias check. Maintain constant rate sampling (i.e., ±10 percent) during the entire run. The sampling time per run shall be the same as for tests conducted using Method 3 plus twice the system response time. For each run, use only those measurements obtained after twice the response time of the measurement system has elapsed to determine the average effluent concentration.
Follow Section 7.4 of Method 6C.
The following quality control procedures are recommended when the results of this method are used for an emission rate correction factor, or excess air determination. The tester should select one of the following options for validating measurement results:
If both O₂ and CO₂ are measured using Method 3A, the procedures described in Section 4.4 of Method 3 should be followed to validate the O₂ and CO₂ measurement results.
If only O₂ is measured using Method 3A, measurements of the sample stream CO₂ concentration should be obtained at the sample by-pass vent discharge using an Orsat.
[Appendix A, Method 3A]
121:1576.4
or Fyrite analyzer, or equivalent. Duplicate samples should be obtained concurrent with at least one run. Average the duplicate Orsat or Fyrite analysis results for each run. Use the average CO2 values for comparison with the O2 measurements in accordance with the procedures described in Section 4.4 of Method 3.
8.2 If only CO2 is measured using Method 3A, concurrent measurements of the sample stream CO2 concentration should be obtained using an Orsat or Fyrite analyzer as described in Section 8.2. For each run, differences greater than 0.5 percent between the Method 3A results and the average of the duplicate Fyrite analysis should be investigated.
For all CO2 analyzers, and for O2 analyzers that can be calibrated with zero gas, follow Section 8 of Method 6C, except express all concentrations as percent, rather than ppm. For O2 analyzers that use a low-level calibration gas in place of a zero gas, calculate the effluent gas concentration using Equation 3A-1.
$$ C_{gas} = \frac{C_{gas} - C_{tot}}{C_{in} - C_{o}} \left( \frac{C - C_{tot}}{C_{in}} ight) + C_{gas} $$
Eq. 3A-1
where:
Same as bibliography of Method 6C.
1.1 Principle. A gas sample is extracted at a constant rate from the source; moisture is removed from the sample stream and determined either volumetrically or gravimetrically.
1.2 Applicability. This method is applicable for determining the moisture content of stack gas.
Two procedures are given. The first is a reference method, for accurate determinations of moisture content (such as are needed to calculate emission data). The second is an approximation method, which provides estimates of percent moisture to aid in setting isokinetic sampling rates prior to a pollutant emission measurement run. The approximation method described herein is only a suggested approach; alternative means for approximating the moisture content, e.g., drying tubes, wet bulb-dry bulb techniques, condensation techniques, stoichiometric calculations, previous experience, etc., are also acceptable.
The reference method is often conducted simultaneously with a pollutant emission measurement run; when it is, calculation of percent isokinetic, pollutant emission rate, etc., for the run shall be based upon the results of the reference method or its equivalent; these calculations shall not be based upon the results of the approximation method, unless the approximation method is shown, to the satisfaction of the Administrator, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, to be capable of yielding results within 1 percent H2O of the reference method.
NOTE: The reference method may yield questionable results when applied to saturated gas streams or to streams that contain water droplets. Therefore, when these conditions exist or are suspected, a second determination of the moisture content shall be made simultaneously with the reference method, as follows: Assume that the gas stream is saturated. Attach a temperature sensor (capable of measuring to ±1° C (2° F)) to the reference method probe. Measure the stack gas temperature at each traverse point (see Section 2.2.1) during the reference method traverse; calculate the average stack gas temperature. Next, determine the moisture percentage, either by: (1) using a psychrometric chart and making appropriate corrections if stack pressure is different from that of the chart, or (2) using saturation vapor pressure tables. In cases where the psychrometric chart or the saturation vapor pressure tables are not applicable (based on evaluation of the process), alternate methods, subject to the approval of the Administrator, shall be used.
The procedure described in Method 5 for determining moisture content is acceptable as a reference method.
2.1 Apparatus. A schematic of the sampling train used in this reference method is shown in Figure 4-1. All components shall be maintained and calibrated according to the procedure outlined in Method 5.
Figure 4-1. Moisture sampling train-reference method
Environment Reporter
[Appendix A, Method 4]
108